Antineoplastic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Describe primary induction, neoadjuvant, and adjuvant therapies.

A

Primary induction - 1st line treatment
Neoadjuvant - Treatment given before primary induction to shrink the tumor
Adjuvant - Given after primary induction to prevent recurrence

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2
Q

What is the purpose and goals of primary induction chemotherapy?

A

Used for cancers in which no alternative treatment therapy exists.

Goals

  1. Palliate the patient
  2. Improve quality of life
  3. Prolong progression
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3
Q

What is growth fraction? Describe its relevance clinically and with respect to the progression of solid tumors.

A

Growth fraction - ratio of proliferating cells to those in G0

Tumors with a higher GF will respond with more success to chemotherapy

Solid tumors initially grow rapidly, but as they enlarge a higher portion of the interior mass enters G0 due to lack of nutrients and O2. You can increase GF through resection or radiation

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4
Q

Describe the effectivity of antineoplastic agents.

A

These drugs follow first-order kinetics, and always eliminate a fraction of cancer cells.

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5
Q

What is a pharmacologic sanctuary?

A

This is a region of the body where cancer cells are less susceptible. Could be the interior of solid tumors, the CNS, or testes.

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6
Q

Describe the characteristics of intermittent high-dose therapoy and continuous infusion.

A

Intermittent High-Dose Therapy - used for CCNS drugs. Allows normal tissues to recover and decreases the risk of infection

Continuous infusion - used for CCS drugs and those which are excreted/metabolized rapidly

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7
Q

What are the three advantages of combination therapy?

A
  1. Maximal cell killing
  2. Broader scope of effectivity
  3. Delay or prevent drug resistant tumors
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8
Q

What are the 5 principles of combination chemotherapy?

A
  1. Each drug has individual activity
  2. Operate by individual mechanisms
  3. Each drug has differing toxicities
  4. Scheduling allows shortest time of recovery for normal tissues
  5. Repeated exposure
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9
Q

Describe primary resistance, acquired resistance, and multi-drug resistance with respect to chemotherapy.

A

Primary resistance - due to genetic instability

Acquired Resistance - response to drug exposure, normally highly specific for a single drug

Multi-drug resistance - Due to expression of MDR1 gene –> surface transporter P-glycoprotein. This transporter confers resistance to anthracyclines, vinca alkaloids, dactinomycin, paclitaxel, and etoposide.

Note: P-gp can be blocked by calcium channel blockers such as verapamil

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10
Q

What are the common adverse effects of chemotherapy?

A

Nausea, vomiting, stomatitis, alopecia, myelosuppression, azoospermia, and growth retardation in children.

Myelosuppression results in anemia 10-14 days later, but recovery occurs by 28 days. Most regimens operate on a 28 day cycle.

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11
Q

How can side effects be minimized in chemotherapy, generally and with respect to myelosuppression?

A

Generally side effects can be avoided by change route of administration, direct perfusion, or removing the bone marrow. Myelosuppression can be specifically treated:

  1. Neutropenia can be treated with GM-CSF (sargramostim) or G-CSF (filgrastim/pelfilgrastin).
  2. Thrombocytopenia is treated with oprelvekin
  3. Anemia is treated with EPO or darbepoetin
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12
Q

Describe the CNS control of vomiting and how this adverse effect can be minimized?

A

There are 2 medullary control centrers for vomiting: The vomiting center and the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The CTZ is triggered in response to drugs and toxins. It signals the vomiting center to cause emesis.

Emesis can be reduced by administration of ondansetron, a serotonin antagonists.

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13
Q

Describe stomatitis, alopecia, and skeletal complications.

A

Stomatitis begins as erythema and edema, but progresses to ulceration.
Note: Proper oral hygiene can prevent secondary infection, but you cannot prevent stomatitis, unless modifying causative agent.

Alopecia occurs 2 weeks post-therapy, but can grow back once causative agents has been removed, although texture may be altered.

Skeletal complicaitons can be treated by bisphosphonates which inhibit osteoclast activity.

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14
Q

What are the types of alkylating agents and what is their general function?

A

Nitrogen mustards, methylhydrazines, alkyl sulfonates, nitrosureas, triazenes, and platinum compounds.

All of the drugs covalently bind to DNA.

Note: Platinum is not an alkylating agents, but does covalently bind to DNA

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15
Q

What is the MOA of alkylating agents?

A

These drugs covalently bind DNA causing inter- and intra-strand cross-linkages inhibiting the unwinding of DNA. Abnormal thymine pairing and depurination resulting in strand breaks can also occur.

These drugs are CCNS, but cells are most susceptible in late G1 and S phases

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16
Q

What are the key adverse effects of alkylating agents?

A

They cause nausea, vomiting, myelosuppression, local damage at injection site, and secondary neoplasms (especially AML)

17
Q

What are the key adverse effects of cyclophosphamide?

A

Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis due to accumulation of its metabolite acrelein. This can be overcome by the administration of mensa, which binds acreliein in the acidic urinary tract.

18
Q

What are the key adverse effects of cisplatin?

A

Cisplatin can cause nephrotoxiticity and ototoxicity. Nephrotoxicity can be avoided with hydration and diuresis. Ototoxicity occurs bilaterally or unilaterally and causes tinitus with high-frequency hearing loss, predominately in children.

19
Q

What are the key adverse effects of busulfan?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, hyperpigmentation, and adrenal insufficiency

20
Q

What are the antimetabolites? What are the types and why do they not cause acute toxicity?

A

Antimetabolites are drugs which are similar to compounds required for metabolism. This includes folic acid analogs, purine/pyrimidine analogs. These do not cause acute toxicity because they must be absorbed and incorporated before their effects take place.

21
Q

Describe methotrexate with respect to MOA, doages, leucovorin, cell cycle, and adverse effects.

A

MOA - inhibits dihydrofolate reductase which converts folic acid to THF. This limits the production of thymidine, purine nucleotides, and serine/methionine.

At low doses, methotrexate is actively transported into cells target cells. At high doses, methotrexate diffuses into healthy cells.

Leucovorin can be used to rescue healthy cells, because it allows thymidine to be produced.

This drug is CCS (S-phase)

Adverse effects - common effects along with hepatotoxicity and fatigue

22
Q

Describe 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) with respect to active metabolite, MOA, cell cycle, and adverse effects.

A

Active metobalite - FdUMP

MOA - FdUMP can inhibit synthesis of thymidylate, while FdUTP and FUTP can be incorpareted into DNA and RNA.

This drug is CCS (S-phase)

Adverse effects - nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and diarrhea

23
Q

Describe 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) with respect to MOA, cell cycle, hyperuricemia, and adverse effects.

A

MOA - inhibits purine synthesis and can be incorporated into DNA and RNA in triphosphate form

This drug is CCS (S-phase)

The primary metabolite of 6-MP is 6-thiouracil. Allopurinol is given to ALL patients because it inhibits xanthine oxidase, which produce uric acids. Xanthine oxidase also produces 6-thiouracil. Patients on allopurinol and oral 6-MP should have oral regimens reduced by 50-75%. IV is unaffected.

Adverse effects include myelosuppression, immunosuppression, and hepatotxicity

24
Q

Describe the vinca alkaloids with respect to source, MOA, cell cycle, drug resistance, and adverse effects.

A

Vincrestine and vinblastine are derived from the madagascar perriwinkle plant.

MOA - bind beta-tubulin and prevent microtubule assembly

This drug is CCS (m-phase)

Drug resistance is conferred by MDR1

Adverse effects - alopecia and cellulitis; vinblastine = myelosuppression and vincrestine = neurotoxicity

25
Q

Describe paclitaxel with respect to source, MOA, cell cycle, drug resistance, and adverse effects.

A

Source - bark of western yew tree

MOA - binds beta-tubulin and stabilizes microtubules

This drug is CCS (m-phase)

Drug resistance is conferred by MDR1

Adverse effects - myelosuppression, peripheral sensory neuropathy, neurotoxicity, and fluid retention

26
Q

Describe etoposide with respect to source, MOA, cell cycle, and drug resistance.

A

Etoposide is a semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin

MOA - inhibits topoisomerase II, and causes strand breaks due to formation of ternary complex (DNA, Drug, Enzyme)

This drug is CCS (Late S and G2 phase)

Drug resistance is conferred by MDR1

27
Q

Describe doxorubicin with respect to class, MOA, cell cycle, metabolism, resistance, and adverse effects.

A

Class - anthracyclines

MOA - 1. Inhibits topoisomerase II 2. intercalates DNA 3. increases ROS 4. decreases membrane fluidity

This drug is CCNS due to intercalation

Metabolized extensively by the liver

Resistance is conferred by MDR1

Adverse effects - include the common effects along with red urine and cardiotoxicity due to long-term ROS

28
Q

Describe bleomycin with respect to MOA, cell cycle, and adverse effects.

A

MOA - small peptide binds DNA causing ss and ds DNA breaks

This drug is CCS (G2 phase)

Adverse Effects - hypersensitivity, pulmonary fibrosis, skin toxicity, hypotension, and fever

29
Q

Describe L-aspariginase with respect to MOA, cell cycle, ALL, and adverse effects.

A

MOA - lyses asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia halting protein synthesis

This drug is CCS (G1 phase)

ALL tumors require exogenous L-asparagine, and are extremely susceptible.

Adverse effects - hypersensitivity, bleeding/clotting, pancreatitis, and CNS toxicity (confusion, lethargy, coma, hallucinations)

30
Q

Describe Imatinib with respect to MOA, diseases treated, drug interactions, and adverse effects.

A

MOA - inhibits the tyrosine kinase of BCR-ABL oncoprotein

Used to treat CML or GI stromal tumors expressing c-kit

Use caution with other drugs which interact with CYP3A4

Adverse effects - myelosuppression, fluid retention (periorbital and ankles), diarrhea, and myalgias.

31
Q

Describe trastuzumab with respect to MOA and adverse effects.

A

MOA - blocks the HER2/Neu receptor preventing intracellular signaling required for proliferation and differentiation.

Adverse effects - Cardiotoxicity Mx.ing with left ventricular dysfunction. Ventricular function should be monitored before and during use.

Note: halt therapy if ventricualr function begins to decline

32
Q

What is the antigen of Rituximab, Ibritumomab Tositumomab?

A

CD20

33
Q

What is the antigen of Alemtuzumab?

A

CD52

34
Q

What is the antigen of Gemtuzumab?

A

CD33

35
Q

What is the antigen of Cetuximab?

A

EGFR

36
Q

What is the antigen of Bevacizumab?

A

VEGF