Antimicrobials/antifungals Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 first line treatments for MRSA bacteremia?

A

-vancomycin
-daptomycin

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2
Q

What abx are first line therapy against ESBL organisms?

A

carbapenems

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3
Q

What is the treatment for mucormycosis or other invasive fungal infections in a soft tissue injury?

A

liposomal amphotericin B
-as efficacious as amphotericin B but w/ less nephrotoxicity and catheter associated side effects

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4
Q

What are the empiric abx of choice for bacterial meningitis? What if the pt is pregnant?

A

-vancomycin and a third generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime)
-if pregnant also have to worry about Listeria monocytogenes as an organism so add PCN G to the regimen
-L. monocytogenes is facultative anaerobe GPB transmitted via soft cheese and smoked meats

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5
Q

What is first line treatment for pts w/ fungemia or at risk for it (immunocompromised)?

A

echinocandins (micafungin, caspofungin, anidulafungin)

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6
Q

What is an appropriate treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin B and flucytosine
-also check for HIV

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7
Q

What class of drug is the first-line treatment for candidemia?

A

echinocandin (i.e. micafungin)

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8
Q

What is the treatment for VRE?

A

daptomycin

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9
Q

Which cephalosporins have anti-pseudomonal coverage?

A

-ceftazidime
-cefepime

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10
Q

Which carbapenems have anti-pseudomonal coverage?

A

-meropenem
-imipenem
-doripenem

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11
Q

Which penicillins have anti-pseudomonal coverage?

A

piperacillin

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12
Q

Which fluoroquinolone has anti-pseudomonal coverage?

A

levofloxacin

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13
Q

Which aminoglycosides have anti-pseudomonal coverage?

A

-gentamycin
-tobramycin
-amikacin

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14
Q

What are the treatment recommendations for PNA from K. pneumoniae?

A

-CAP = 14d course of 3rd of 4th generation cephalosporin (rocephin) monotherapy or quinolone monotherapy or either of those with an aminoglycoside
-for PCN allergic = aztreonam or a respiratory quinolone
-nosocomial = carbapenem
-ESBL = carbapenem

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15
Q

What should a pt be monitored for while taking linezolid?

A

-thrombocytopenia
-anemia
-peripheral neuropathy
-serotonin syndrome

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16
Q

What are examples of beta-lactams?

A
  • penicillin
  • cephalosporins
  • carbapenems
  • monobactams
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17
Q

What is the beta-lactams MOA?

A

Bactericidal
-inhibits cell wall via inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking

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18
Q

Are beta-lactams time or concentration dependent?

A

Time, ideally 100% T>mic
- especially for GN organisms

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19
Q

Are beta-lactams hydrophilic or lipophilic?

A

Hydrophilic

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20
Q

What bacterial species are 1st generation cephalosporins good coverage for?

A

GPC
- does have moderate activity against GNB

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21
Q

What bacterial species are 2nd generation cephalosporins good coverage for?

A

enhanced activity against E. coli K. pneumoniae and some Proteus

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22
Q

What bacterial species are 3rd generation cephalosporins good coverage for?

A

increased potency against GNB

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23
Q

What is unique about cedtriaxone’s metabolism compared to other cephalosporins?

A

hepatically metabolized and excreted

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24
Q

What bacterial species are 4th generation cephalosporins good coverage for?

A

wide spectrum of coverage to include pseudomonas
-cefepime

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25
Q

What bacterial species are 5th generation cephalosporins good coverage for?

A

similar to 3rd generation but only cephalosporin to have MRSA coverage
-ceftaroline

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26
Q

What drug is imipenem co-administered with and why?

A

-cilastatin
-prevents deactivation by dihydropeptidase w/in renal brush boarder

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27
Q

What is the coverage of carbapenems?

A

Inhibit must GPCs, Enterobacteriaceae, and GNR including pseudomonas and anaerobes
-except ertapenem has no pseudomonas coverage

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28
Q

What is the MOA of vancomycin?

A

glycopeptide that bonds w/ peptidoglycan precursors of the cell wall inhibiting its synthesis

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29
Q

What is the activity of vancomycin?

A

-broad spectrum against GP
-choice microbial for MRSA
-Most Streptococcus is susceptible
-good for Enterococcus but more resistance is developing
-has activity against GP anaerobes such as Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Clostridium

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30
Q

What is the dosing for vanco?

A

-loading dose 25-30mg/kg
-maintenance dose 15-20mg/kg q12hr for adults w/ healthy kidneys

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31
Q

What is the best predictor of adequate treatment dosing for vanco?

A

AUC : MIC ratio >/= 400 or a trough of 15-20mcg/mL

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32
Q

On what gene is the VRE resistance encoded?

A

VanA

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33
Q

What is the amino acid substitute that gives bacteria resistance to vancomycin?

A

D-lactate substituted for D-alanine in the peptidoglycan precursor for the cell wall

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34
Q

What are the most common/talked about adverse effects of vanco?

A

-red man syndrome
= rash and pruritis of head, face, neck
- treat by slowing the infusion and/or giving antihistamines
-nephrotoxicity
- risk factors = trough > 15mcg/mL, obesity, critically ill, concomitant use of zosyn

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35
Q

What is the MOA of daptomycin?

A

inserts a lipophilic tail into cell membrane of GP organisms causing membrane depolarization

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36
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of daptomycin?

A

similar to vancomycin (broad spectrum against GP) but reserved for MRSA that fails vanc therapy or for VRE

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37
Q

Is daptomycin concentration or time dependent?

A

concentration

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38
Q

What is the dosing for daptomycin?

A

4-6mg/kg q24hrs or 8-12mg/kg if a deep seated infection

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39
Q

How is daptomycin excreted and how does this change its dosing?

A

-renally cleared
-dosing should be reduced to q48hr dosing if CrCl </= 30mL/min

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40
Q

What is daptomycin not a good choice for GP PNA infections?

A

it is inactivated by surfactant

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41
Q

What are the adverse effects of daptomycin?

A

muscle toxcity with BUE myopathy and increased CPK
-discontinue if CPK > 1000 and myopathy
-discontinue if CPK > 2000 even if no myopathy
can cause a falsely elevated PT

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42
Q

What is the MOA of oxazolindinones?

A

-inhibit 50s ribosome subunit
-bacteriostatic

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43
Q

What are examples of oxazolindinones?

A

-linezolid
-tedizolid

44
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of oxazolindinones?

A

similar to vanc and dapto
-use for vanc and dapto resistant infections
-does have activity against mycobacterium

45
Q

What is the dosing and availability of oxazolindinones?

A

-600mg BID
-100% bioavailability so same dosing for both PO and IV formulas
-no adjustments needed for renal or hepatic failure

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of oxazolindinones?

A

well tolerated, mostly GI upset
-can get hematologic and mitochondrial toxicities w/ prolonged use

47
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

inhibits ribosomal subunits

48
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of clindamycin?

A

-S. aureus
-most Streptococcus species
-anaerobic GP (to include Peptostreptococcus, Peptococcus, Clostridium)
-some GN activity against anaerobes

49
Q

What resistance needs to be considered when prescribing clindamycin?

A

avoid in intra-abd infections d/t B. fragilis resistance

50
Q

What tissue does clindamycin not have good penetration into?

A

CNS
-excellent for all other tissue penetration

51
Q

What are the adverse effects of clindamycin?

A

C. diff colitis

52
Q

What is the MOA for the fluoroquinolones?

A

interfere with DNA gyrase and topoisomerase to inhibit DNA synthesis
-bactericidal

53
Q

What are examples of fluoroquinolones?

A

-ciprofloxacin
-levafloxacin
-moxifloxacin
-ofloxacin

54
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of fluoroquinolones?

A

broad spectrum
-aerobic GN (Enterobacterioceae, Haemophilus, Neisseria, Moraxella catarrhalis)
-cipro/levo have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (cipro most potent)
-levo/moxi are best for respiratory pathogens (i.e. Streptococcus)

55
Q

What are some pharmacology characteristics of fluoroquinolones (bioavailability, dependence, absorption, excretion, metabolism)?

A

-good bioavailability (70-100%)
-concentration dependent
-well absorbed by GI tract
-cipro/levo are renally excreted and require dose adjustments in renal failure
-moxi is hepatically metabolized and excreted in bile

56
Q

When should fluoroquinolones be given in relation to tube feeds and why?

A

-separate by 2hrs from tube feeds
-cations in TF can reduce effectiveness of fluoroquinolones

57
Q

What are the adverse effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

-QT prolongation
-potential arthropathy and tendonitis

58
Q

What is the MOA of aminoglycosides?

A

-inhibit protein synthesis via an unknown mechanism
-bactericidal
-concentration dependent

59
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of aminoglycosides?

A

-GN activity
-primarily for resistant GN bacilli infections (Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter)
-can use w/ a cell wall active agent to get GP coverage
-tobramycin has the best activity against Pseudomonas

60
Q

Do aminoglycosides have anaerobic activity?

A

no- they require aerobic metabolism to work

61
Q

What are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

-tobramycin
-gentamicin
-neomycin
-streptomycin
-amikacin

62
Q

What are some of the common doses of aminoglycosides?

A

work best if concentration is about 10x higher than their MIC
-genamicin/tobramycin 5-7mg/kg/day
-amikacin 15mg/kg/day

63
Q

What are some pharmokinetic characteristics of aminoglycosides (solubility, protein binding, organ failure adjustments)?

A

-highly water soluble
-low protein binding so wide extracellular distribution
-renal impairment needs prolonged dosing
-cystic fibrosis pts can have significant pharmokinetic alterations

64
Q

What are the adverse effects of aminoglycosides?

A

-nephrotoxicity
-injury is to proximal renal tubule
-reversible
-ototoxicity
-injury is to cochlea, vestibule, or both
-irreversible
-risk increases w/ age, renal impairment, or concomitant vanc use
-neuromuscular blockade (rare)
-infusions >30min reduce risk of neuromuscular blockade

65
Q

What is the MOA of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim?

A

-inhibits folic acid synthesis (sulfamthoxazole)
-dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor (trimethoprim)
-bacteriostatic

66
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim?

A

-wide GP and GN activity
-can also use for Stenotrophomonas, Pneumocystis jirovecii

67
Q

What needs to be considered when dosing sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim?

A

-dose based off the trimethoprim component
-can get sputum concentrations higher than those in the serum
-CNS concentrations are generally 25-50% of those in the serum

68
Q

How is sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim metabolized and excreted?

A

-hepatically metabolized
-renally excreted
-adjust dosing in renal dysfunction

69
Q

What are the adverse effects of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim?

A

-can increase bleeding risks in pts on warfarin
-rare: SJS and TENS
-elderly can get hyperkalemia and Na disorders

70
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

-prodrug = must be activated by target pathogen
-inhibits DNA synthesis and causes oxidative DNA structural damage
-bactericidal
-concentration dependent

71
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of metronidazole?

A

-good for anaerobes (Bacteriodes and Clostridium)
-nonspore forming, GP anaerobic bacteria are naturally resistant (Actinomyces, Lactobacillus, Propionibacterium)
-good for Gardnerella bacterial vaginosis
-used in H. pylori regimens

72
Q

What are some pharmokinetic properties of metronidazole (solubility, protein binding, bioavailability, penetration)

A

-lipophilic
-low protein binding
-large volume of distribution
-good bioavailability
-good CNS penetration
-good penetration into abscesses

73
Q

What are the adverse effects of metronidazole?

A

-avoid in pregnancy
-can have a disulfiram like reaction if EtOH consumption within 3 days of medication
-inhibits warfarin metabolism and can increase risk of bleeding
-QT prolongation (rare)

74
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

-reversible binding of 30s ribosomal subunit
-doxycycline can also bind to 70s subunit
-bacteriostatic

75
Q

What are some examples of tetracyclines?

A

-doxcycline
-minocycline
-tigecycline (glycylcycline subclass)

76
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of tetracyclines?

A

-broad GP activity to include MSSA, MRSA, S. pneumoniae, and GP anaerobes
-highly active against atypicals (spirochetes and rickettsial families)
-GN activity only against Neisseria, Moraxella, Haemophilius, and Campylobacter

77
Q

What are some pharmokinetic characteristics of tetracyclines (bioavailability, absorption, penetration, renal adjustments)?

A

-high bioavailability and can mostly use PO dosing
-cations found in TF can decrease absorption by up to 90%
-separate dosing from TF by 3hrs
-poor CSF penetration
-doxycycline doesn’t require dosing adjustments w/ renal dysfunction

78
Q

What is polymixin E?

A

colistin
-bactericidal against GNB
-mostly used for resistant Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, or CRE
-has high rates of nephrotoxicity

79
Q

What is the MOA of azthiromycin (macrolides)?

A

-bind to 50s ribosomal subunit
-bacteriostatic

80
Q

What is the antimicrobial activity of azthiromycin?

A

-good for community acquired upper and lower respiratory infections
-also has some anti-inflammatory activity too
-Streptococcus species
-MSSA
-H. influenzae
-Moraxella
-atypicals
-Chlamydia and Neisseria STIs
-Mycobacterium avium

81
Q

What are some pharmokinetic characteristics of azthiromycin (protein binding, concentrations, bioavailability, metabolism)?

A

-low protein binding
-tissue concentration is > serum concentration
-bioavailability after a single PO dose only ~35%
-hepatically metabolized

82
Q

What are the adverse effects of azthiromycin?

A

-GI upset
-QT prolongation

83
Q

What is the MOA of amphotericin B?

A

-fungicidal
-binds to ergosterol and disrupts membrane function

84
Q

What is the MOA of the azoles (imidazole/triazole)?

A

-CYP450 inhibitors
-inhibit C-14 alpha demthylation and impairs ergosterol synthesis and cell membrane integrity

85
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins (micafungin)?

A

-fungicidal
-disrupts cell wall synthesis via inhibiting 1,3-beta-glucan synthase
-good against all Candida species
-fungistatic against Cryptococcus, Mucormycosis, Fusarium

86
Q

For antibiotics with activity that is a function of both time and concentration how do you monitoring appropriate dosing?

A

look at the area under the curve, or AUC/MIC ratio

87
Q

How are hydrophilic antibiotics typically excreted?

88
Q

How are lipophilic antibiotics typically cleared?

A

hepatically

89
Q

What happens to the volume of distribution of hydrophilic antibiotics during critical illness?

A

Vd is increased
-no change seen in Vd of lipophilic antibiotics

90
Q

What type of antibiotic resistance is seen in tetracycline, macrolide, and aminoglycoside resistance?

A

acquired resistance

91
Q

What type of antibiotic resistance is seen in beta-lactams and vancomycin?

A

both intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms
-intrinsic = altered PCN-binding proteins
-extrinsic = beta-lactamase production

92
Q

What are some mechanisms of resistance in GN bacteria?

A

-beta-lactamase production
-outer membrane impermeability and porins
-efflux pumps
-antibiotic degrading or altering enzymes
-DNA gyrase mutations

93
Q

What are risk factors for developing antibiotic resistance?

A

-hospitalization > 5 days
-high frequency of abx resistance
-recent health care exposure
-hospitalization of 2+ days in the preceding 90 days
-home infusion therapy
-chronic dialysis w/in 30 days
-home wound care
-family member w/ multidrug-resistant pathogen
-immunosuppressed

94
Q

What is the recommended treatment length for VAP?

A

randomized trials support 8 days

95
Q

What is the recommended treatment length for bloodstream infections?

96
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for S. aureus or S. epidermidis?

A

-cefazolin or nafcillin
-vancomycin if MRSA

97
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for E. coli and Klebsiella?

A

-zosyn
-gentamicin
-cefotaxime
-ceftizoxime
-3rd generation cephalosporins (but no ceftriaxone d/t resistance)

98
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for Enterococcus?

A

-zosyn
-unasyn

99
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for bacteroides, clostridia, and anaerobic streptococci?

A

-flagyl
-clindamycin

100
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for Pseudomonas or Serratia?

A

gentamicin or amikacin w/ additional expanded spectrum zosyn

101
Q

What is recommended emperic treatment for SBP?

A

-start abx w/in 48hrs
-cefoxitin or zosyn to start (most commonly E. coli then non-enterococcal streptococci)
-if neutrophil count in the fluid remains high after abx needs ex-lap

102
Q

Triazoles (diflucan/fluconazole) is effective against all candida species except?

A

-glabrata
-krusei

103
Q

What is the treatment for aspergillosis?

A

amphotericin or voriconazole

104
Q

What oragnisms are NOT covered by carbapenems?

A

-MRSA
-Enterococcus
-Pseudomonas

105
Q

Which antibiotics are cleared by the liver and don’t need to be adjusted in renal disease?

A

-nafcillin
-oxacillin
-ceftriaxone

106
Q

What is the emperic treatment for early onset (on vent < 5 days) VAP?

A

early onset is likely E. coli
-2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone 2gm daily; cefuroxime 1.5gm q8h; cefotaxime 2gm q8h)
or
-fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin 750mg daily; moxifloxacin 400mg daily)
or
-zosyn 3gm q8hr
or
-ertapenem 1gm daily

107
Q

What is the emperic treatment for late onset (on vent > 5 days) VAP?

A

most likely pseudomonas:
-cephalosporin (cefepime 1-2gm q8h; ceftazidime 2gm q8h)
or
-carbepenem (imipenem+ cilastin 500mg q6h/1gm q8h; meropenem 1gm q8h)
or
-zosyn 4.5gm q6h + aminoglycoside (amikacin 20mg/kg/d; gentamicin 7mg/kg/day; tobramycin 7mg/kg/day)
or
-fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin 400mg q8h; levofloxacin 750mg daily) + vanc 15mg/kg q12h