Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

Facts about SSI?

A
  • SSI most common healthcare associated infection
  • SSI develop 2-4% of 30 million surgical patient
  • represent 14-16% of all hospital acquired infections annually in use and cost 9.8 bllio dollars/year
  • 3% surgical mortality and lead to
    • increased readmission
    • increased length of stay (7-10 days)
    • increased hospital costs (additional $3000-29k per diagnosis)
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2
Q

What defines a SSI?

A
  • Infection r/t operative procedure that occurs at or near the sx inc within 30 days of procedure
    • purulent exudate draining
    • positive culture obtained from sx site that was closed initially
    • surgeon’s dx of infection
    • sx site that requires reopening d/t at least one of following signs
      • tenderness
      • swelling
      • redness
      • heat
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3
Q

Are SSIs preventable?

A

most are preventable

more difficult in immunosuppressed/ or when vascular supply is decreased

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4
Q

How can anesthesia providers impact SSI prevention?

A
  • Timely and appropriate use abx
  • maintenance of normothermia
    • underestimate; up to 50% prevention
      • colder patient increase ROI
  • Proper syringe/med administration practices
  • perioperative glucose control
    • particularly CT cases and also GI (29–> 14% risk of infection)
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5
Q

What are some surgical risks for devleoping SSI?

A
  • Procedure type (ie GI vs cataract)
  • skill of surgeon (big impact)
  • use of foreign material or implantable device
    • ortho, pacemaker, heart valve, don’t have blood supply
      • risk of infection increase bc can’t treat with abx
  • degree of tissue trauma
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6
Q

What are patient risks for devleoping SSI?

A
  • DM
  • Smoking use
  • obesity
  • malnutrition
  • systemic steroid use (long term)
  • immunosuppressive therapy (chronic)
  • intraoperative hypothermia
  • trauma
  • prosthetic heart valves
  • extremes of age
  • hair removal
  • preop hospitalizations

major underlying theme is good vascular supply

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7
Q

When should antibiotics be timed in OR?

A
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis 1 hour before incision had the lowest rate of SSI
  • 30-60 min before incision is the ideal window for drug admin
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8
Q

What adverse outcomes is hypothermia associated with?

A
  • Increased blood loss
  • increased transfusion requirements
  • prolonged PACU stay
  • post op pain
  • impaired immune function

compromised neutrophil function–> vasoconstriction–> tissue hypoxia and increased incidence of SSI

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9
Q

What are some SCIP measures?

A
  • SCIP -Inf 1- prophylactic abx received within 1 hour sx incision
  • SCIP INf2- prophylactic abx selection for surgical patient
    • making sure it’s appropriate
  • SCIP 3- Prophylactic abx d/c’ed within 24 h after surgery end time
  • SCIP 4- Cardiac sx patient with controlled 6am postop glucose <200
  • SCIP 5- Postop wound infection dx during index hospitalization
  • SCIP 6- Sx patient with appropriate hair removal
  • SCIP 7- Coloretal sx patient with immediate postop normothermia
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10
Q

What is the new delhi metallo- beta lactamas 1 gene?

A
  • Beta lactamase has resistanc eto pretty much every abx except 2
  • Mechanism
    • increase active transport out of bacterial cell and or decrease the active transport into the cell
    • structural changes in drug target (PCN binding protein)
      • changes how PCN binds to bacteria
    • production of drug antibiotic antagonist- beta lactamase
    • enzymatic drug destruction
    • the more abx are used, the more resistance develops (in target bacteria nd normal flora)
      • can share resistance with other bacteria
    • abx are used extensively in hospitals
      • 1.7 mil pt acquire nosocromial infeciton, almsot 10,0000 die
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11
Q

What are some CDC priorities to prevent microbial resistance?

A
  • Flu vaccine
    • protection against sequellae
  • limit invasive catheter and use vigilant infection contorl with placement
  • involve infectious disease experts
  • id and target speicfic microbe
  • quality control mech for abx use
  • use local info about pathogen and sensitivity “antibiogram”
  • treat infection, not contamination or colonization
  • limit vanc use
  • avoid using when infection is cured or not likely present
  • isolation/infectious control procedures
  • hand washing
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12
Q

Antimicrobial therapy and anesthesia implications?

A
  • Prophylaxis before sx
    • anesthesia plays important role in timely admin of ABX
    • reimbursement for quality care
  • Potential for adverse reactions
    • hypersensitivity reaction (dose independent)
      • one drop of medicine will cause anaphylaxis
      • if PCN anaphylaxis, avoid any beta lactams
    • direct organ toxicity (dose related)
    • potential for super infections
    • id patients at risk for complications
  • cross reaction with other meds we give
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13
Q

WHat’s bacteriostatic?

A

Keep bacteria from replicating so we can allow the immune system to work

  • antiobiotic can only do so much without the immune system
  • when used, the duration of therapy must be long enough to allow cellular and humoral defense mechanisms to eradicate the bacteria
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14
Q

What’s bacteriocidal?

A

Drugs that actually kill bacgteria directly

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15
Q

What are some bactericidal drugs?

A
  • PCN and cephalosporins
  • Isoniazid
  • metronidazole
  • polymyxins
  • rifampin
  • vanc
  • aminoglycosides
  • bacitracin
  • quinolones
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16
Q

WHat are some bacteriostatic abx?

A
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Clindamycin
  • Macrolides
  • sulfonamides
  • tetracyclines
  • trimethoprim
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17
Q

Goals and general rules for antimicrobials and anesthesiology?

A
  1. Inhibit microorganisms at concentration that are tolerated by the host
  2. MIC= Minimum inhibitory concentration
  3. seriously ill/immunocompromised select bactericidal
  4. narrow specturm before broad spectrum or combo therapy to preserve normal flora
    • can cause 2nd super infection like c diff
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18
Q

Basic for how antimicrobials work?

A
  • Selective toxicity
    • exploid cellular biological diff between microbes and mammals
  • METHODs:
    • bacterial cell wall- we don’t have cell wall
      • bacterial enzyme inhibition- ex, folic acid formation- those enzymes aren’t present in us. bacteria, however, makes folic acid from PABA
      • bacterial ribosome
        • just different enough that we can target it
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19
Q

What are some beta lactam examples?

A

PCN

Cephalosporin

Carbapenems

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20
Q

MOA of beta lactam abx?

A
  • Weaken bacterial cell wall
    • bind to pcn binding proteins (only expressed during bacterial proliferation)
  • Active autolysins ( decrease inhibition of murein hydrolasw- enzymatic destruction of cell wall)
    • actually inhibit murein hydrolase, this allows autolysins to work
  • Inhibit transpeptidases enzyme- needed for cell wall synthesis and integrity
    • can’t form cross bridges with peptidoglycan strands
    • weakens cell wall
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21
Q

Diff between gram - and +?

A
  • Gram- has extra outer membrane
    • harder for some drugs to penetrate outer membrane
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22
Q

What is basic structure of PCN?

Bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Allergies?

A
  • Basic structure is dicyclic nucleus that consists of thiazolidine ring connected to B-lactam ring
    • several subtypes based on structure, B lactamase activity and spectum
  • Bactericidal
  • Allerigc reactions are principles concern (1-10%)
    • anaphylaxis only 0.004-0.04% patient exposed iwth a 10% mortality
    • laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, severe hypotension
    • may occur on 1st exposure
  • Organisms (don’t need for test…)
    • pneumococcal
    • meningococcal
    • streptococcal
    • actinomycosis
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23
Q

Excretion PCN?

A
  • Renal excretion rapid (PCN G)
    • plasma concentrationd ecreases 50% in 1st hour
    • 10% glomerular filtration
    • 90% tubular secretion
  • Anuria increases elimination half-time by 10 fold
    • adjust dose in renal failure
  • administration of probenecid will reduce renal excreiton and prolong action
    • (used this to advantage in WWII d/t limited supply of PCN)
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24
Q

What are second generation penicillins? Examples?

A
  • Expand spectrum but increased risk of secondary infection from normal flora
    • Gram (-) bacilli–> h influenza
    • e. coli
  • Amoxicillin
  • Ampicillin
    • 50% excreted unchanged by kidney 6 hours after admin
  • Organisms
    • ​pneumococcal
    • meningococcal
    • streptococcal
    • actinomycosis
      *
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25
Q

Third generation PCN? Advese effects?

A
  • Organism
    • same as second + pseudomonas aeruginosa and proteus
  • Example- carbenicillin
    • elimination half time 1 hour (2 hours renal dx)
    • 85% excreted unchanged by kidney
    • high sodium load
    • hypokalemia
    • metabolic alkalosis- concerned especially in anesthsia
    • prolonged bleeding time despite normal PLT count

Not used often. Need risk/benefit analysis. lots of adverse effects

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26
Q

What are beta lactamase resistant PCN?

Agent? How does it work?

A
  • Agents:
    • dicloxacillin
    • Nafcillin
      • penetrates CSF 80% secreted in bil (good renal dys.)
    • Oxacillin
  • Spectrum of activity?
    • Narrow spectrum agents
    • binds irreversibly to b lactamas enzymes
      • large side gorup sterically hinders b lactamase form cleaving b-lactam ring
  • Gram positive activity- streptococci and staphylococci
    • no gram -
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27
Q

What are some b-lactam/b-lactamase inhibitor combo drugs? When do we use them?

A
  • Combo of beta lactam ring with beta lactamase inhibitor
    • Ampicillin/Sulbactam (Unasyn)
    • Amoxicillin/Clavulanic Acid (augmentin)
    • Ticarcillin/Clavulanic acid (Timentin)
    • Pipercillin/Tazobactam (Zosyn)
  • Braod spectrum agnets
    • gram positive
    • gram negative
    • anaerobe

Don’t give zosyn before every case because you knock out native flora (= lots diarrhea/yeast infection)

also want to preserve this combo drugs for when we need it

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28
Q

What are cephalosporins?

static or cidal?

MOA?

A
  • Beta lactam antibiotics
  • favorable therapetuic index
  • Bactericidal
    • MOA- bind to PBP
      • Activate autolysins
      • inhibit transpeptidases enzyme needed for cell wall syntheis and integrity
        • once you disturb cell wall, water rushes in and bacteria bursts
  • Differenct b/w drugs depends on side chains
    • can be expensive and can access diff areas (ie BBB)
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29
Q

What is the activity of 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A
  • More gram positive activity
  • beta-lactamase susceptible
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30
Q

What is activity of 3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins?

A
  • Increase gram negative actiivty
  • increase activity against anaerobes
  • ability to penetrate the BBB into CSF

ID docs like to keep aside for serious infections that aren’t reacting

Can be very expensive

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31
Q

Examples of each generation of cephalosporin?

A
  • First generation
    • cephalexin, cefazolin
  • Second generation
    • cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan
  • Third generation
    • ceftazidime, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime
  • Fourth generation (broadest)
    • cefepime (Neurosurgery use)
  • Fifth gen
    • Ceftaroline (MRSA coverage)
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32
Q

Elimination of cephalosporin?

A
  • Primarily renal (dose reduciton in renal disease)
  • Ceftriaxone is the exception
    • 33-67% excreted unchanged and sig hepatic metabolism
      • longest E1/2 T of 3rd generation
  • Routes of admin
    • 1st and 2nd both have IV and oral
    • Broadest spectrum cephalosporin are generally administered IV
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33
Q

Use for Cefazolin?

Anaphylaxis? Allergic reaction? Cross reactivity?

Excretion?

A
  • Very common for SSI prophylaxis (CV, ortho, biliary, pelvic, intraabdominal)
  • Allergy incidence is 1-10%
  • life threatening anaphylaxis -.02%
    • laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriciton, severe hypotension<– main, first sign
    • get out of beta lactams if anaphylaxis!
  • Cross reactivity with other cephalosporins
  • PCN and cephalosporin cross reactivity only 1% (but when it happens, it’s life threatening!)
  • Renal excretion
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34
Q

Adverse effects cephalosporin?

A
  • Hypersensitivity: cross reactivity in pt with PCN allergy
  • Bleeding
    • cefoperazone, cefotetan, cetraixone
      • inhibits conversion of Vit K to active form
    • typically see this on chronic use
  • Thrombophlebitis (IV site)
  • Hemolytic anemia (rare)
  • Superinfection (c diff)
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35
Q

Drug interactions for cephalosporins?

A
  • Probenecid (prolong DOA by delaying elimination)
  • Alcohol- disulfiram like reaction
    • inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase- acetyl aldehyde build up in blood makes people feel awful
  • Anticoagulants/ anti PLT drugs with cefoperazone, cefetetan, ceftriaxone
  • Calcium and ceftraixone= FATAL precipitates

focus on cephalosporins!

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36
Q

MOA of monobactams?

A
  • Cell wall agent
    • inhibits cell wall synthesis= cell lysis and death occur
    • has high affinity to specific PBP3 in gram negative bacteria only
    • highly resistant to beta-lactimases
37
Q

Spectrum of activity monobactam?

Excretion? Adverse effects?

Example?

A

Example- azteronam (azactam)

  • Narrow spectrum
    • excellent gram negative
    • no activity against gram positive
    • penetrates CSF
  • Excretion- unchanged by kidney
  • Expensive
  • Few adverse effects
    • most sig. risk is super infection (c diff) interesting because narrow spectrum…
    • Good subsititue for pt with PCN allergy- cros s reactiivty unlikely
      • lacks thiazolidine ring and dihydrothiazine ring
38
Q

What are macrolides?

Example?

MOA?

A
  • not beta lactam.
  • Broad spectrum agent usually bacteriostatic (bacteriocidal in high concentrations)
  • Examples
    • erythromycin
    • clarithromycin
    • azithromycin
  • Compound characterized by macrolytic lactone ring containing 14-16 atoms with deoxy sugar attached
    • big bulky molecule
  • MOA
    • Bind to 50 s subunit of the ribosome to block protein syntehsis
  • Spectrum of activity- relatively broad- similar to PCN/useful with PCN allergy
    • activity against gram positive and negative pathogens
    • limited activity against anaerobs
    • very good against atypical pathogens
      • CAP, legionnaire’s, pertussis, acute diphtheria, chlamydial infection
39
Q

Macolide uses?

A

Bowman said not tested….

  • URI
    • Pharyngitis
    • tonsilitis
    • sore throat
  • Otitis media
  • Lower resp tract
    • pneumonia
    • MAC
    • legionnaire’s anthrax
  • Ulcers (H pylori)
  • SRDS
40
Q

Adverse effects erythromycin (macrolide)?

A
  • inhibit p450
  • increase qtc
    • ​prolongs cardiac repolarization
      • reports of torsades
    • CYP3A inhibitor (verapamil, diltiazem, protease inhibitors, azole antifungals) can increase plasma concentration and increase risk of fatal vent. dysrhythmia
      • 5x increase in SCD when erythromycin and cyp3a4 inhibitors are presecribed together
  • IV formulationa ssocaited with tinnitus hearing loss
  • thrombophelbitis
  • N/V/D
  • ABD pain
  • liver toxicity
  • slow gastric emptying
  • cholestasic hepatitis
41
Q

How are macrolides metabolized?

A

cyp 450

  • increase serum concentration of theophylline, warfarin, cyclosporin, methylprednisolone, and digoxin
  • excreted mostly in bile
  • no need to alter in renal dose
42
Q

What do you need at baseline when patient taking erythromycin?

A

baseline EKG

(QT prolongation!)

43
Q

What class is clindamycin? MOA? DOSING? use?

A
  • Class-Linomycins
  • MOA- Blocks protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit
    • usually bacteriostatic agent
  • Similar to erythromycin in antimicrobial activity
    • more active with anerobs
  • Psudomembranous colitis–> severe diarrhea should indicate discontinuation of therapy
  • Dosing
    • 10% of administered dose excrete unchanged
    • decrease dose -severe liver disease
  • Use
    • female GU surgery
44
Q

Side effects clindamycin?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • skin rash/hpersensitivity
  • Blood dyscrasias (eosinophilia, leukopenia, thrmbocytopenia)
    • ask if easily bruising/bleeding
  • prolonged pre and post junction effects at NMJ in the absence of NDMR
    • Concurrent admin with NDMR can produce long lasting, profoudn NMB, NOT antagonized by AChE or Ca
      • get very profound block
      • no data with suggamadex use
45
Q

What class is Vancomycin? MOA? Spectrum of activity?

A
  • Class- glycopeptide
  • MOA
    • inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis= cell lysis and death
    • binds and inactivates cell wall precursors
    • bactericidal “slowly” cidal
  • Spectrum
    • gram positive ONLY
      • SYNERGISTIC effect with aminoglycosides!
        • once vancomycin destorys cell wall, aminoglycosides get in easier and impair ribosome function
    • Narrow but
      • activity against MRSA <– why we don’t want to use it all the time
    • Severe c-diff infection
    • good choice in severe PCN allergy
    • severe staph infection
    • streptococccal, enterococcal endocarditis
    • cardiac/orthopedic procedures using prosthetic devices
    • csf and shunt related infections
46
Q

Administration of vancomycin? Dose adjustment? Interaction?

A
  • Dose 10-15 mg/kg over 60 minutes
    • non negotiable!
    • 12 hours of therapeutic plasma concentation
    • can start up to 2 hours preop
    • 1 gram in 250 mL
    • Can get rapid profound hypotension/cardiac arrest with rapid infusion
  • Only PO for intestinal infection
  • SLOW CSF penetration unless there is meningeal inflammation
  • Dose adjusted for renal insufficiency
    • Renal excretion 90% unchanged
    • elimination 1/2 time is 6 hours
      • up to 9 days in renal pt
  • Interaction
    • other nephrotoxic drug
    • return of NMB?
  • Narrow therapeutic index
47
Q

Vancomycin side effects?

A
  • Thrombophlebitis/phlebosclerotic (irritating to tissue)
  • Nephrotoxicity (renal failure)
    • RARE unless concomitant treatment with other nephrotoxic drugs
  • Ototoxicity when concentration are >30 mcg/mL
    • also if administered with aminoglycosides
  • Hypersensitivity (maculopapular skin rash)
  • Severe hypotension and red man syndrome (flushing d/t histamine relase) if given IV in less than 30 min
    • Admin of diphenhydramine 1mg/kg and cimetidine 4mg/kg 1 hour before induction limits histamine related effects
  • rare: immune mediated thrombocytopenia and bleeding
48
Q

Aminoglycosides MOA?

A
  • Bactericidal
  • MOA
    • bind to 30s ribosome subunt and block the intiiation of protein synthesis in bacterial cells
    • effective for aerobic gram negative and positive bacteria
    • mycobacterium tuberculosis
49
Q

Aminoglycosides elimination?

S

A
  • Extensive renal excretion through glomerular filtration (almost 100%)
  • highly water soluble (polar)
    • Vd= extracellular volume
  • 2-3 hour elimination half time that is increased 20-40 fold with renal failure
50
Q

Aminoglycosides side effects?

A
  • Limited by their toxicity
  • cross the placenta could cause harm
  • ototoxicity
    • esp with diuretics such as furosemid, mannitol
  • Nephrotoxicity
    • esp with amphotericin B, cyclosporin, etacynic acid, vanc, nsaids
  • Skeletal muscle weakness- inhibit the pre-juncitonal release of ACh and decrease post synpatic sensitivity to neurotransmitter (impact on pt with NM pathology ie myasthenia gravis)
    • can even see it if surgeon irrigated with aminoglycosides
    • AChE and Ca can be helpful to prevent weakeness
51
Q

Gentamicin? Class? Use?

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • broader spectrum (pleural, ascitic, synovial infection)
  • toxic level- >9mcg/mL should be monitored
52
Q

Amikacin class? Highlights?

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Derivative of kanamycin with very little antibiotic resistanc
  • useful in gentamicin or tobramycin resistant gram negative bacilli
  • similar side effects as gentamicin
  • do not use with PCN (may antagonize PCN effects)
53
Q

Neomycin? Class? highlights?

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • ropical treatment for skin, eye and mucous membrane infections
  • adjunct therapy to hpeatic coma (decreases ammonia concnetration)
  • administer to decrease bacteria in intestine before GI surgery
    • may have course of abx before sx
  • Most nephrotoxic
    • think twice before admin toradol
54
Q

MOA Linezolid (Zyvox)?

Spectrum?

A
  • Bacteriostatic
  • inhibits baterial protein syntehsis by preventing formation of a functional ribosomal subunit (23s) initiation complex that is essential for the bacterial translation process
  • Spectrum:
    • gram positive
    • not active against gram negative
    • MRSA and VRE
      • preserve for when necessary to avoid resistance
55
Q

Adverse effects linezolid?

A
  • Thombocytopenia, anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia (esp >2 weeks of tx)
    • cbc check!
  • GI effects
  • RARE: optic and peripheral neuropathy
  • formulated with phyenlalanine
    • avoid in PKU
  • Weak MAOI
    • watch for additive NE and serotonergic effects used with other serotonergic agents and/or indirect sympathomimetics
      • risk of serotonin syndrom and HTN crisis
      • ephedrine and SSRI contraindicated
56
Q

Fluroquinolones use, MOA?

A
  • Bactericidal broad spectrum
    • enteric gram - baccilli and mycobacterium
  • Useful in treatment of complicated GI and GU infection. TB, URI and anthrax!
    • Ciprofloxacin
    • Levofloaxacin
    • Moxifloxacin
  • MOA
    • Inhibit DNA gyrase nd topoisomerase which are critical bacterial enzymes used in DNA replication and cell division
      • gyrase- supercoild dna
      • topoisomerase- separates strands during replication
57
Q

Adverse effects fluoroquinolones? Interactions?

A
  • Class warning for QT prolongation
  • Nause CNS disturbances, opportunistic candida, rashes, phototoxicity
  • C. diff super infection
  • muscle weakeness in myasthenia gravis patients
  • Tendinitis and achilles tendon rupture d/t extracellular cartilage matrix weakening
    • highest risk >65 yo, corticosteroid, transplant
    • avoid IV form <18 yo
      • devastating se
  • Interactions:
    • CYP 450 interaction (incrase theophylline, warfarin, tinidazole)
58
Q

Use fluoroquinolones? Excreiton?

A
  • Useful in treatment of variety of systemic infections including anthrax
  • GI absorption rapid and penetration to body fluid and tissues is excellent
  • Renal excretion, through glomerular filtration and renal tubular secretion
    • decrase dose in renal dysfunction
  • E 1/2 time 3-8 hours
59
Q

Sulfonamides MOA? Drug Example?

A

Ex- sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

  • Bacteriostatic
  • MOA- ntimicrobial actiivty due to ability of these drugs to prevent normal use of PABA by bacteria to synthesize folic acid
    • inhibit microbial synthesis of folate production
60
Q

Excretion sulfonamides?

A
  • Portion of drug is acetylated in the liver and other is renall excreted
  • renal dx- dose reduced
61
Q

Sulfonamides clinical uses? S/E?

A
  • Clinical use
    • UTI
    • IBS
    • Burns
  • S/E
    • skin rash to anaphylaxis
    • photosensitivity (sunburn)
    • allergic nephritis
    • drug fever
    • hepatotoxicity
    • acute hemolytic anemia
    • thrombocytopenia
    • increase effect of PO anticoag.
62
Q

MOA Metonidazole? Use?

A
  • Bactericidal
    • anaerobic gram neg bacilli and clostridium
  • Useful wide variety of infection
    • CNS
    • Abdominal and pelvic sepsis
    • pseudomembranous colities
    • endocarditis
  • Well absorbed orally and widely distributed in tissue, including CNS
  • Preop for colorectal sx
63
Q

S/E Metronidazole

A

dry mouth

metallic taste

nausea

avoid alcohol

rare: neuropathy and pancreatitis

64
Q

What are 1st line agents against TB?

A

Antimycobacterial agents

  • Isoniazid- bacteriostatic-cidal if bacteria are dividing
    • hepato-renal toxicity
  • Rifampin- bacteriocidal
    • hepatic enzyme induction
    • hepato renal toxicity, thormbocytopenia, anemia
  • Ethambutol- bacteriostatic
    • optic neuritis
  • Pyrazinamide- bacteriostatic
    • liver toxicity

Used in combo therapy (3 or 4 agents) for 2 mo followed by min 4 months of therapy with 2 agents

65
Q

General lenght of time for TB treatment?

A

Used in combo therapy (3 or 4 agents) for 2 mo followed by min 4 months of therapy with 2 agents

66
Q

Example of antifungal? MOA?

A
  • Amphotericin B
  • MOA: Binds to ergosterol in fungal membrane to form pores
    • altered membrane permeability causes leakage of cellular contents
    • ergosterol is like cholesterol but slightly diff, lots of S/E
  • Given for yeasts and fungi
    • poor po absorption
67
Q

Amphotericin B excretion? side effects?

A
  • Slow renal excretion
    • renal funciton is impaired in 80% of patient treated with this drug
    • most recover after drug is stopped but some resulting permanent decrease in GFR may remain
    • monitor plasma levels
  • S/E
    • fever, chills, dypsnea, hypotension can occur (give benadryl, tylenol prior)
    • impaired hepatic function
    • hypokalemia
    • allergic reaction
    • sz
    • anemia
    • thrombocytopenia
68
Q

Highlights acyclovir?

A
  • used to treat herpes
  • may cause renal damage if infused rapdily
  • thrombophlebitis
  • patient may complain of HA during infusion
69
Q

Interferons highlights?

A
  • Term used to designate glycoproteins produced in response to viral infection
  • bind to receptors on host cell membrane and induce the production of enzymes that inhibit viral replication- degradation of viral mRNA
  • enhance tumoricidal activities of macrophages
  • treatment for chronic hep B and C
  • nasal sprays
70
Q

Interferon s/e?

A
  • Usually feel pretty terrible
    • need plan B for discomfort
  • flu like symptoms
  • hematologic toxicity
  • decreased mental concnetration
  • development of autoimmune conditions
  • depression irritability
  • rashes
  • aloplcia
  • changes in CV, thyroid, hepatic function
71
Q

Steps in HIV replication cycle?

A
  • Fusion of HIV cell to the host cell surface
    • CCR5/CXCR4 proteins
  • HIV RNA, reverse transcriptase, integrase, and other viral proteins enter the host cell
  • Viral DNA is formed by reverse transcription
  • Viral DNA is transported across the nucleus and integrates into host DNA
  • New viral RNA and proteins move to cell surface and a new, immature, HIV virus forms
  • The virus matures by protease releasing individal HIV proteins
72
Q

What is CCR5/CXCR4?

A
  • Expressed on some HIV to help dock onto cell
    • can block these proteins and decrease HIV effectiveness
73
Q

What do reverse transcriptase inhibitors do?

A

block RT of RNA–> DNA

74
Q

What are integrase inhibitors?

A

prevent integration of viral DNA into host DNA

75
Q

What are protease inhibitors?

A

inhibit chopping proteins into functional unit

76
Q

What should CRNA note when patient on antiretroviral?

A
  • existence of adverse effects
  • interactions with other meds
77
Q

Side effects/ interactions of Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors? Drug example?

A

Drug example- Zidovudine (AZT)

  • nausea/diarrhea
  • myalgia
  • increased LFTs
  • pancreatitis
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • renal toxicity
  • bone marrow suppression , anemia,
  • lactic acidosis,

Interaction

  • methadone (co exist)
  • inhibition cyp 450
    • zidovudine+ coritcosteroids can = severe mhyopathy including respiratory muscle dysfunction
78
Q

Protease inhibitor interaction? Drug example?

A

Drug example: (Ritonavir)

  • HLD
  • Glucose intolerance
  • abnormal fat distribution
  • altered LFT
  • inhibition CYP 450 (Decreased fentanyl clearance)
  • AGES CV system: 30 yo with system like 60/70 yo
    • increased HLD, cushing syndrome, abnormal fat
79
Q

Nonnucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor side effects influencing anesthetic? Drug examples?

A
  1. Delavirdine inhibits cytochrome P450. may increase concnetration sedatives, antiarrhythmics, warfarin, Ca channel blockers
  2. Nevirapine induces cyp 450 by 98%!!

just look up the drugs!!

80
Q

Integrase strand transfer inhbitors side effects that impact anesthesia?

A

newer agent- appear well tolerated

S/E may be unknown

81
Q

Chemokine receptor 5 antagonist and entry inhibitors side effects that impact anesthetic?

A
  • Appear well tolerated- newer, may have unknown SE
  • Appears to interact with midazolam altering clearance and drug effect
82
Q

3 anesthetic meds that interact with protease inhibitors (Ritonavir)?

A
  • Midazolam
    • increased effects
    • small and carefully titrate
  • Fentanyl
    • increase effects
    • start low dose and titrate to pain
  • AVOID (pronounced effects- life threatening)
    • meperidine
    • amiodarone
    • diazepam
83
Q

ABX that are safe for pregnancy?

A
  • PCN
  • Cephalosporin
  • Erythromycin
84
Q

Which abx are cautiously used in pregnancy?

A
  • Aminoglycosides (ototoxicity in mom and baby)
  • Clindamycin (colitis in mom)
85
Q

ABX contraindicated in pregnancy?

A
  • Metronidazole (animal studies)
  • Tetracyclines (tooth discoloration)
  • fluroquinolones
  • trimethoprim
    • folic acid pathway
86
Q

Specail consideraitons for parturient patient?

A
  • Most abx cross placenta and enter maternal milk
    • look at pregnancy category group
  • plasma concentration could be 10-50% lower than prediced
    • increased maternal blood volume, GFR, metabolism
  • Teratogenicity
    • concern with any drug
    • immature hepatic and renal clearnace
87
Q

Special consideration for elderly?

A
  • Renal impairment
  • Decrease plasma protein
  • Reduced gastric motility and acidity
    • altered distribution
    • increased total body fat
    • decreased plasma albuin
    • decreased HBF
    • Decreased GFR
88
Q

What abx are safe for elderly if normal Cr? What abx are we cautious with in elderly?

A

PCN and cephalosporin

Caution- aminoglycosides and vanc may require adjustment in dosing

89
Q

Treatment HIV guidelines in labor and delivery?

A

Big takeaway:

  • mother should receive IV AZT and the baby should take AZT every 6 hours for 6 weeks after birth

Whole slide:

  • During the first trimester, women without symptoms HIV disease may consider delaying treatment until after 10-12 weeks into pregnencies
  • after 1st trimester, pregnant women with HIV should receive at least AZT (Zidovudine). The physician can recommend additional meds depending on CD4 count, viral load and drug resistance
    • if pt already on anti HIV meds, the MD may recommend changes to the meds (evavirenz is contraindicated), however, generally recommended Zidovudine (AZT) be a part of regimen
  • Most mother to child HIV transmission occurs around time of labor and delivery, therefore during this time it is very important for protecting baby from HIV infection
    • HAART is recommended even for HIV infected pregnany women who do not need treatment for their own health
    • mother should receive IV AZT and the baby should take AZT every 6 hours for 6 weeks after birth