Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What is MIC?

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

lowest concentration of antibiotic required to prevent growth

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2
Q

What is MBC?

A

Minimum Bactericidal Concentration

Lowest concentration required to kill bacteria

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3
Q

What meds are bacteriostatic?

A
Tetracyclines
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Trimethmprim
  • others are bactericidal.
  • bactericidal not better than bacteriostatic
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4
Q

What are 3 narrow spectrum meds?

A

PCN G
Erythromycin
Clindamycin

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5
Q

Name some broad spectrum meds?

A
Ampicillin
Cephalosporins
aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
chloramphenicol
quinolones
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6
Q

Time-dependent killing

A

clinical efficacy is related to the duration for which these levels are maintained

*continuous infusion has not shown to be more effective than intermittent boluses

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7
Q

Concentration dependent killing

A

some meds increase the rate and extent of bacterial killing with increasing concentrations

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8
Q

What is post-antibiotic effect (PAE)?

A

some antibiotics continue to suppress growth of bacteria even after antibiotic is no longer detectable.

demonstrated for virtually all antimicrobials
decreased in acidic (infected) media

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9
Q

This is the judicious use of antibiotics to reduce resistance development

A

antimicrobial stewardship

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10
Q

What med is frequently used for UTIs that contributes to resistance

A

Cipro –> broad spectrum, not necessary

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11
Q

What is intrinsic resistance

A

natural resistance to antimicrobial

ex: vanco only kills gram positive bacteria

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12
Q

What is acquired resistance?

A

a genetic alteration in the bacteria that renders a once effective antimicrobial ineffective

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13
Q

What are 4 mechanisms of acquired resistance?

A

decreased permeability
increased efflux pumps
inactivation
modification of the antimicrobial target

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14
Q

What is a polymicrobial infection?

A

more than 1 drug may be needed to treat infection with more than 1 organism

*Broad spectrum may be able to cover multiple organism infection with a single agent

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15
Q

Why might you use 2 antibiotics with different mechanisms of action?

A

To inhibit emergence of resistant strains of an organism

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16
Q

T/F: there is evidence showing benefit to using “double coverage” to treat infection

A

FALSE

no proven benefit to giving 2 susceptible antibodies as opposed to just one

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17
Q

Name the different types of synergy;

a. 1+1 = 0.5
b. 1+1 = 1
c. 1+1 = 1.5
d. 1+1 = 2
e. 1+1 = 3

A

a. antagonism
b. indifferent
c. in between
d. additive
e. synergistic

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18
Q

What are 5 instances when bactericidal therapy may be necessary for clinical cure

A
  • CV infection - endocarditis
  • Meningitis and cerebral abscess
  • Invasive bacterial infection in severely neutropenic pt
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Attempted treatment of prosthesis or vascular access related infections w/o removing the device
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19
Q

What can increase a pt’s risk for a specific type of infection?

A
neutropenia
asplenia
malignancy
HIV
immunosuppressant therapy
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20
Q

What 2 things increase a pt’s risk for complications from an infection?

A
  • Prosthesis or foreign body; heart valves, prosthetic joints, vascular grafts *form a biofilm
  • Pregnant pts: pharmacokinetics are altered - increased volume of distribution and GFR
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21
Q

What antibiotics are ok to give to pregnant pts?

A

PCNs - study said to avoid 1st trimester
Cephalosporins
Erythromycin

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22
Q

What antibiotics should you avoid in pregnancy bc will cause injury to fetus?

A

metronidazole, ticarcillin, rifampin, trimethoprim, fluoroquinolones, and tetracyclines

*tetracycline associated with acute fatty necrosis of the liver, pancreatitis, and possible renal injury - it also discolor teeth

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23
Q

what percentage of pts with PCN allergy will have a reaction to cephalosporins?

A

< 2-5%

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24
Q

What 3 devices are highly associated with nosocomial infections?

A

ventilator
vascular access catheter
urethral catheter

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25
Highest rate of central line infection to lowest rate
femoral > IJ > subclavian
26
T/F: Antibiotic impregnated caths may decrease bactemia
FALSE not shown to be true in all studies
27
What percentage of people are natural carriers of c-diff
10%
28
What antibiotic is the #1 cause for c-diff development?
clindamycin Ancef is #2
29
What % of patients relapse after being successfully treated for c diff?
10% Flagyl is no longer recommended due to high reoccurrence rates
30
What is treatment for c diff?
10-14 days oral vanco 99% cure rate with fecal transplants
31
What are 3 risk factors for c diff?
antimicrobial use acid suppressant therapy inappropriate handwashing techniques
32
How many SSIs are preventable using evidence based strategies?
estimated that half are preventable
33
The need for surgical prophylaxis depends on what 5 things?
``` risk of infection (wound classification) pt-related factors (ie immunocompetence) bacterial milieu (potential bacteria) hospital infection rate for various procedures factors relating to the wound itself ```
34
What med is usually used for surgical prophylaxis?
1st generation cephalosporin - cefazolin low cost broad spectrum low incidence of allergic reactions
35
What are the 4 wound classes?
1. clean: atraumatic, no break in sterile technique, respiratory, GI and GU tracts not entered 2. Clean-contaminated: surgery in areas known to harbor bacteria, no spillage of contents 3. contaminated: major break in sterile technique, surgery on traumatic wounds, gross GI spillage, entrance into an infected biliary or GU tract 4. dirty-infected: infection exists before surgery
36
What is most common species in clean wounds?
Staphylococcal no need for prophylaxis for some clean procedures
37
Antibiotics are redosed after _______ half-lives
2 Ancef: 4 hrs clindamycin: 6hrs Vanco: don't redose
38
Beta Lactams are ______ _______ synthesis inhibitors
Cell wall
39
what breaks the bon of the beta lactam ring to disable the molecule - making it resistant to the effects of PCN and other beta lactam antibiotics?
Beta lactamase
40
Sulbactam tazobactam Clavulanic acid all are:
beta lactamase inhibitors there to trick the enzyme --> get broken apart so hopefully the true antibiotic will remain intact
41
Are cephalosporins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal have same MOA as PCNs
42
Cephalosporins gram ____ to gram ____ with each generation
positive | negative
43
Do 1st generation cephalosporins like ancef and Keflex cover MRSA?
NO
44
Carbapenems are the DOC for what?
ESBL broad spectrum, should be used as last resort
45
There is a high risk of _________ with carbapenems
seizures pts with seizure disorder or head injury have a great increase risk of seizure development
46
Is vanco bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
bactericidal
47
Vanco covers gram _____ only
positive
48
What is the vanco dose?
15mgkg concentration dependent
49
What is a vanco alternative and covers MRSA and VRE
Linezolid (Zyvox)
50
Linezolid (Zyvox) has drug interactions with what?
MAO --> potential for serotonin syndrome hold MAOIs and SSRIs
51
Macrolides are bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bacteriostatic
52
What are some fun facts about macrolides like azithromycin (Zithromax), biaxin, and erythromycin
Can treat a lot of respiratory infections May prolong QT interval Lots of drug interactions
53
What antibiotic should be avoided in the elderly?
Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin) May increase morbidity and mortality in elderly pts.
54
what antibiotics permanently deposit in bone and yellows teeth in children?
tetracyclines
55
What antibiotics can contribute to neuromuscular blockade?
aminoglycosides | neomycin and streptomycin have higher rates of this
56
T/F: 2 bacteriostatic = bactericidal
TRUE Trimethoprim/Suflamethoxazole Bactrim/septra
57
T/F: Pts with a sulfa allergy can take bactrim
FALSE
58
What antibiotic can also prolong neuromuscular blockade?
clindamycin (cleocin)
59
This med is used in GI and GU surgeries
Metronidazole (Flagyl) concentration dependent disulfuram like reactions with ETOH coumadin interaction
60
These meds are used for biofilms
rifampin and rifabutin *used mostly for TB and prostheitcs
61
Acyclovir (zovirax) and valacyclovir (Valtrex) are:
Antivirals | Used for Herpes simplex 1 &2, varicella zoster, Epstein-Barr, CMV