antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

Which combination is used for the empiric treatment of infective endocarditis

Penicillin+aminoglycoside
Tetracycline+aminoglycodise
Penicillin+macrolides
Tetracycline+flouroquinolones

A

Penicillin+aminoglycoside

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2
Q

Which drug is commonly used for syphilis

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
Methicillin
Nafcillin

A

Penicillin G

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3
Q

Which drug is used as a Rhuematic fever prophylaxis

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
Methicillin
Nafcillin

A

Penicillin G

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4
Q

Which drug has a higher oral bioavailability than other penicillins

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
ampicillin
amoxicillin

A

amoxicillin

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5
Q

Which penicillin is commonly prescribed to children and pregnant women

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
ampicillin
amoxicillin

A

amoxicillin

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6
Q

Which penicillin is widely used to treat URIs

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
ampicillin
amoxicillin

A

amoxicillin

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7
Q

Which penicillin is used to treat P. aeruginosa

Penicillin G
Carbenicillin
ampicillin
amoxicillin

A

Carbenicillin

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8
Q

Which penicillin is excreted in the bile

Penicillin G
Carbenicillin
Nafcillin
Amoxicillin

A

Nafcillin

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9
Q

Which penicillin may cause pseudomembranous colitis and maculopapular rash

Penicillin G
Carbenicillin
ampicillin
amoxicillin

A

ampicillin

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10
Q

Which cephalosporin is the drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis

cephalexin
cefazolin
cefaclor
cefoxitin

A

cefazolin

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11
Q

Which cephalosporin is the drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea and the empiric treatment of meningitis

cephalexin
cefazolin
cefaclor
ceftriaxone

A

ceftriaxone

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12
Q

Which cephalosporin is effective against MRSA

cephalexin
cefazolin
cefaclor
ceftaroline
ceftriaxone
A

ceftaroline

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13
Q

Which drug is used as a substitute for minor penicillin allergic reactions

cephalosporin
tetracycline
macrolides
flouroquinolones

A

cephalosporins

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14
Q

Which DOES NOT cause disulfiram like reactions

cefamandole
cefoperazone
ceftaroline
cefotetan

A

ceftaroline

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15
Q

Which carbapenem must be combined with cilastatin to prevent the synthesis of a nephrotoxic metabolite

doripenem
ertapenem
imipenem
meropenem

A

imipenem

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16
Q

Which can be used for gram neg infections in pts allergic to penicillin

tetracyline
macrolide
monobactam
imipenem

A

monobactam

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17
Q

Which causes red man or red neck syndrome

daptomycin
vancomycin
imipenem
cefotetan

A

vancomycin

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18
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors inhibit which ribosome

A

70S

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19
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines

A

bind reversibly to 30S subunit, preventing attachment of aminoacyl tRNA

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20
Q

What is the most common use of tetracyclines

A

treatment of severe acne and rosacea

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21
Q

Tetracycline is used as empiric therapy for which infection

  • MRSA
  • community acquired pneumonia
  • hospital acquired pneumonia
  • infective endocarditis
A

-community acquired pneumonia

22
Q

What should be avoided when taking tetracyclines

  • alcohol
  • exercise
  • diary products
  • aspirin
A

-diary products

23
Q

Tetracyclines are contraindicated for which pts

  • pregnant women
  • pregnant women and children under 8
  • pregnant women and children under 18
  • newborns and infants under 2 months
A

-pregnant women and children under 8

24
Q

What is an adverse affect of tetracyclines

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth
  • nephrotoxicity
A

-discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth

25
Q

Aminoglycosides are bactericidal or bacteriostatic

A

bactericidal

26
Q

What is the MOA for aminoglycosides

A

30S ribosomal subunit

irreversible inhibition of initiation complex, misreading to mRNA and blockade of translocation

27
Q

Aminoglycosides antibacterial spectrum

  • aerobic gram neg
  • aerobic gram pos
  • anaerobic gram neg
  • anaerobic gram pos
A

-aerobic gram neg

28
Q

Which combo is the drug of choice for empiric therapy for infective endocarditis

vancomycin+aminoglycosides
tetracycline+aminoglycosides
daptomycin+aminoglycosides
fosfomycin+aminoglycosides

A

vancomycin+aminoglycosides

29
Q

What is the adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides

  • photosensitivity
  • discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone growth
  • ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
  • Rash
A

-ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

30
Q

What is the MOA for lactulose

A

NH4 is trapped in the colon effectively reducing plasma ammonia concentrations

31
Q

Macrolides are mainly used against what type of bacteria

A

gram pos

32
Q

Macrolides bind to which part of the ribosome

  • 30S
  • 70S
  • 23S of 50S
  • 50S
A

-23S of 50S

33
Q

Which is the drug of choice for B. pertussis

azithromycin
clarithromycin
erythromycin
telithromycin

A

erythromycin

34
Q

Which is NOT inhibited by CYP450

azithromycin
clarithromycin
erythromycin
telithromycin

A

azithromycin

35
Q

What is an adverse affect of macrolides

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth
  • nephrotoxicity
A

-QT prolongation

36
Q

Macrolides are contraindicated for people taking what drug

  • aspirin
  • albuterol
  • statins
  • mannitol
A

statins

37
Q

Chloramphenicol binds which ribosomal subunit

  • 30S
  • 70S
  • 23S of 50S
  • 50S
A

50S

38
Q

What are the adverse effects of chloramphenicol

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • grey baby syndrome
  • nephrotoxicity
A

grey baby syndrome

39
Q

Clindamycin is primarily used against

  • aerobic gram neg
  • aerobic gram pos
  • anaerobic gram neg
  • anaerobic gram pos
A

-anaerobic gram pos

40
Q

Which is used as an alternative for prophylaxis in pts with penicillin allergy

chloramphenicol
macrolides
clindamycin
rifampin

A

clindamycin

41
Q

Which is the adverse effect for clindamycin

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • grey baby syndrome
  • pseudomembranous colitis
  • nephrotoxicity
A

-pseudomembranous colitis

42
Q

What is the contraindications for floroquinolones

  • pregnant women
  • pregnant women and children under 8
  • pregnant women and children under 18
  • newborns and infants under 2 months
A

-pregnant women and children under 18

43
Q

What is the MOA for fluoroquinolones

  • dihydropteroate
  • topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)
  • 30S ribosomal subunit
  • 50S ribosomal subunit
A

-topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

44
Q

Which 3 are adverse effects of fluoroquinolones

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • grey baby syndrome
  • pseudomembranous colitis
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • connective tissue problems
A
  • QT prolongation
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • connective tissue problems
45
Q

Which 3 are adverse effects of fluoroquinolones

  • QT prolongation
  • rash
  • grey baby syndrome
  • pseudomembranous colitis
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • connective tissue problems
A
  • QT prolongation
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • connective tissue problems
46
Q

What is the MOA for sulfonamides

  • dihydropteroate
  • inhibit folic acid synthesis
  • topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)
  • 30S ribosomal subunit
  • 50S ribosomal subunit
A

-inhibit folic acid synthesis

47
Q

Which is used for ulcerative colitis and IBD

  • sulfadiazine
  • sulfamethoxazole
  • sulfasalazine
A

-sulfasalazine

48
Q

Sulfonamides are contraindicated for which patients

  • pregnant women
  • pregnant women and children under 8
  • pregnant women and children under 18
  • newborns and infants under 2 months
A

-newborns and infants under 2 months

49
Q

Trimethoprim is contraindicated for

  • pregnant women
  • pregnant women and children under 8
  • pregnant women and children under 18
  • newborns and infants under 2 months
A

-pregnant women

50
Q

Cotrimoxazole is contraindicated for

  • pregnant women
  • pregnant women and children under 8
  • pregnant women and children under 18
  • newborns and infants under 2 months
A

-pregnant women

51
Q

Metronidazole is used for

  • MRSA
  • community acquired pneumonia
  • hospital acquired pneumonia
  • H. pylori
  • infective endocarditis
A

-H. pylori