Antihypertensives & Antianginals Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of minoxidil.

A

Its metabolite activates the ATP-modulated K+ channel in arteriole smooth muscle causing hyperpolarization and relaxation. Little effect on venous and capacitance vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside.

A

It is metabolized by smooth muscle cells into the active metabolite NO. NO activates guanylate cyclase which forms cyclic GMP that then stimulates cyclic GMP-dependent protein kinase which dephosphorylates myosin light chain, reducing the contractile state of smooth muscle and causing vasodilation in arterioles and PARTICULARLY VENULES***.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the overall effect of sodium nitroprusside?

A

It reduces myocardial O2 demand and reduces preload d/t venous dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of prazosin.

A

It is an a1-blocker that reduces arterial resistance and venous capacitance by inhibiting vasoconstriction induced by endogenous catecholamines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of guanethidine.

A

It is an adrenergic inhibitor that inhibits peripheral postganglionic adrenergic neurons by concentrating in neurosecretory vesicles replacing and depleting NE and blocking excitation-secretion coupling in the peripheral neurons.

*Guan takes over vesicles and gets rid of all exciting things because he’s a giant goon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of hydralazine.

A

It is a vasodilator that causes direct relaxation on arterial vascular smooth muscle with minimal effect on venous and capacitance vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which antihypertensive medications cause reflex tachycardia?

A

hydralazine, minoxidil, and amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the clinical indications for sodium nitroprusside?

A

Primarily used for hypertensive emergencies and acute MI. It can only be given IV b/c of light sensitivity so it makes sense that it’s reserved for emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the contraindications for hydralazine?

A

Patients w/ CAD and people over 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the contraindications for minoxidil?

A

Patients w/ CAD and ventricular hypertrophy.

*Minus oxes (they’re big like hypertrophied ventricles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which antihypertensive causes hair growth and is commercially sold in topical form as Rogaine?

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the side effects of prazosin and when is it used?

A

It frequently causes “first dose phenomenon”- orthostatic hypotension, and can also cause Na+ and water retention. It is used as an adjunct since it isn’t usually effective as a solitary tx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the side effects of guanethidine?

A

Sympathetic dysfunction (since it depletes NE). Postural hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and diarrhea.

*Guan the goon gives people PtSD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of methyldopa.

A

Reduces sympathetic activity by depleting NE stores in neurons. It is metabolized into a-methyl NE which is substituted in NE vesicles and it acts as an a2 agonist to reduce sympathetic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is methyldopa commonly used?

A

Often used as an antihypertensive in pregnancy.

*Babies like meth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the side effects of methyldopa?

A

Immunological abnormalities, dizziness, reduced libido, sedation and depression. Sudden d/c can cause rise in BP above pre-tx level.

*Babies love meth and have bad immune systems. Because they’re dopey babies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of clonidine.

A

It is an a2 agonist that reduces sympathetic activity (just like methyldopa).

*Clonidine likes to clobber sympathetic activity to demonstrate its alpha powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the side effects of clonidine?

A

The same as methyldopa (except it does not cause immunological abnormalities). Dizziness, reduced libido, sedation, and depression. Sudden d/c can cause rise of BP above pre-tx levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of propanolol?

A

It is a beta blocker, reducing contractility and CO by blocking endogenous B1 stimulation of the SA node and ventricular muscle. Also reduces renin secretion –> reduced angiotensin II levels.

20
Q

What is propanolol usually used for?

A

Treatment for angina, arrhythmias, and may decrease mortality s/p MI. Also a good combination with nitrates!

21
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of reserpine.

A

It is an adrenergic inhibitor (like guanethidine) that binds to storage vesicles and interferes w/ transmitter uptake system. Nerves lose ability to store NE and DA, and depletes NE in vesicles over time.

22
Q

What is the overall effect of guanethidine and reserpine, both adrenergic inhibitors?

A

They cause a decrease in TPR via relaxation of resistance vessels and decreased sympathetic activity/vasoconstriction.

23
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of amlodipine?

A

It is a Ca++ channel blocker that decreases contractility.

*Amlodipine doesn’t let you load up on Ca++

24
Q

What are the clinical indications for amlodipine?

A

It treats angina and arrhythmias, and are also effective as a monotherapy for htn in low-renin populations (African-Americans, the elderly).

25
Q

What are the contraindications for amlodipine?

A

Patients w/ impaired cardiac fxn like ventricular hypertrophy, ischemic heart disease, and CAD b/c it may increase preload.

26
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of verapamil.

A

Same as amlodipine (Ca++ channel blocker). *Unlike amlodipine, verapamil doesn’t cause tachycardia d/t additional negative chronotropic effect.

27
Q

What are the side effects of verapamil?

A

Constipation.

*“Verap can’t crap”

28
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of HCTZ.

A

It acts on the distal convoluted tubule by inhibiting Na+/Cl- cotransport; diuretic.

29
Q

What are the contraindications for HCTZ?

A

Impaired renal fxn or edema.

30
Q

What are the side effects of HCTZ?

A

Sexual impotence, increased K+ loss/hypokalemia

31
Q

What drug should not be given with HCTZ?

A

Quinidine- this drug prolongs QT interval and when coupled w/ hypokalemia there is big risk of ventricular arrhythmia/fibrillation

32
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of captopril.

A

It is an ACE inhibitor- blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which also means less aldosterone secretion (meaning less Na+ retention).

33
Q

What are the side effects of captopril?

A

Cough (from buildup of bradykinin), decrease in GFR and renal failure in patients w/ b/l renal artery stenosis

34
Q

What are the clinical indications for captopril?

A

Htn, may regress LVH in hypertensive pts and prevent/delay progression of heart failure and MI. *Special advantage in tx of pts w/ diabetes by slowing renal dz progression

35
Q

What are the contraindications for captopril?

A

Pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis

36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of losartan?

A

It is an angiotensin receptor blocker.

*also contraindicated in pregnancy

37
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin.

A

It relaxes smooth muscle in veins (low dose) and arteries (high dose) by activating guanylate cyclase to form cyclic GMP, needed for certain protein kinases that dephosphorylate myosin light chain to reduce contractile state of the smooth muscle

38
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of isosorbide dinitrate.

A

It is an organic nitrate and works like nitroglycerin on cyclic GMP pathway

*longer lasting

39
Q

What are the side effects of nitroglycerin?

A

Headache, dizziness, and weakness.

*do not take within 24h of sildenafil (Viagra) d/t life-threatening hypotension

40
Q

Discuss tolerance and nitroglycerin.

A

Because you can develop tolerance, should give 8-12h break every day as prophylaxis

41
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of diltiazem.

A

It is a Ca++ channel blocker (L-type) that causes arteriolar relaxation w/ same effects as verapamil.

42
Q

What are the contraindications for Ca++ channel blockers?

A

Patients w/ CHF and LV dysfunction

43
Q

What are the clinical indications of diltiazem?

A

Angina, also good for supraventricular reentry tachycardia d/t nonspecific antagonism of sympathetic nervous system (also true of verapamil)

44
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of nifedipine.

A

It blocks dihydropyridine class of L-type Ca++ channels for arteriolar relaxation.

Reduces angina

45
Q

Describe mechanism of action of nimodipine.

A

Same as nifedipine; has high affinity for cerebral vessels and may reduce vasospasm and mortality after SAH