Anticoagulants and Fibrinolytics Flashcards

1
Q

Review the coagulation cascade

A

**see below**

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2
Q

What are the 2 sources of heparin?

A

Pig intestine and cow lung…yuck

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3
Q

Describe the MOA of heparin

A

(Unfractionated) Heparin binds to and potentiates the effects of anti-thrombin (which you will recall inhibits thrombin -factor 2, and factor 10a)

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4
Q

What are the indications of unfractionated heparin? (4)

What value do you use to monitor heparin at therapeutic doses and what is the effect of heparin on this value?

A

Heparin used for DVT prophylaxis (e.g. for hospitalized pts to prevent clotting) and venous TE, a-fib, ACS

Therapeutic doses monitored by aPTT. Heparin increases the aPTT

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5
Q

A unique side effect of heparin is ___

2 other adverse effects of heparin are ___ and ___

A

A unique side effect of heparin is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

2 other adverse effects of heparin are bleeding and injection site pain

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6
Q

Describe how heparin-induced thrombocytopenia occurs

A

HIT is caused by an antibody reaction against heparin:

When heparin is introduced, IgG abs bind to the PF4 proteins on heparin, which causes profound platelet aggregation and activation and excess thrombin formation - induces prothrombotic state

Platelets therefore decrease in HIT because they’re being consumed

***

A characteristic decrease in platelets occurs 5-10 days after exposure (for a first exposure), and is noted by a 50% or more drop in platelets

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7
Q

What is the difference in MOA between unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin?

Which one is IV and which one is not?

A

Recall that the longer molecules wrap around thrombin whereas LMW heparin doesn’t affect thrombin so it mainly has activity for factor 10a

Unfractionated heparin is given IV whereas LMW isn’t

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8
Q

___ is LMW heparin used for DVT prophylaxis, VTE, A-fib (among other conditions), and is given subcutaneously (hint: -parin drugs)

A

Enoxaparin is LMW heparin used for DVT prophylaxis, VTE, A-fib (among other conditions) and is given subcutaneously

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9
Q

___is an ultra LMW heparin that potentiates the effects of antithrombin only to Factor10a, and can be safely used in pts with previous history of HIT

A

Fondaparinux is an ultra LMW heparin that potentiates the effects of antithrombin only to Factor10a, and can be safely used in pts with previous history of HIT

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10
Q

What class of drugs are argatroban and bivalirudin?

A

Argatroban and Bivalirudin are IV direct thrombin inh’s

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11
Q

Name 2 indications of IV direct thrombin inhibitors

A

IV direct thrombin inhibitors are mainly indicated for HIT and ACS

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12
Q

Name the IV anticoagulant therapies (3)

A

Unfractionated heparin

LMW heparin (fondaparinux)

IV direct thrombin inhibitors

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13
Q

Which clotting factors are Vitamin-K dependent?

Briefly describe the Vitamin K cycle. The inhibition of which enzyme will result in decreased Vit K dependent clotting factors?

A

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors: 2, 7, 9 and 10

**see image for cycle**

The inhibition of Vitamin K reductase will result in decreased Vit K dependent clotting factors

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14
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Warfarin

Name 2 reasons why the S isomer of warfarin is important

A

Warfarin blocks Vit K epoxide reductase >> depletion of Vit K-dependent clotting factors

The S isomer works the most on Vitamin K reductase, and is metabolized by CYP2C9 in the liver

***

Note that warfarin is useful for production of clotting factors but is not useful for circulating clotting factors

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15
Q

The anticoagulant effects of warfarin are dependent on ___

T/F: Proteins C and S are generally depleted before the other factors, which could induce a pro-thrombotic state in the initial day of starting warfarin

Name 3 adverse effects of warfarin

A

The anticoagulant effects of warfarin are dependent on the half-life of clotting factors

T/F: Proteins C and S are generally depleted before the other factors, which could induce a pro-thrombotic state in the initial day of starting warfarin - True

3 adverse effects of warfarin: bleeding, rare skin necrosis and rare calciphylaxis

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16
Q

Besides warfarin, name 2 other oral anticoagulants

A

2 other oral anticoag’s: direct oral anticoags and oral direct thrombin inhibitors

17
Q

___ are the 1st line treatment for VTE and a-fib (barring any contraindications for use)

Why are these drugs overall better than warfarin? (3)

A

DOACs are the 1st line treatment for VTE and a-fib (barring any contraindications for use)

DOACs are better than warfarin because they cause less intracranial hemorrhage, have fewer drug interactions and have roughly the same efficacy as warfarin

18
Q

Fill in the blanks (what oral direct drugs have the effects indicated below?)

A

Oral direct anticoagulants:

Direct Thrombin inh: Dabigatran

Direct Factor 10a inh: -xaban drugs

19
Q

___ is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor that is renally eliminated (monitor renal function), causes ___ (adverse effect) and is contraindicated w/ ____

A

Dabigatran is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor that is renally eliminated (monitor renal function), causes dyspepsia and is contraindicated w/ strong P-glycoprotein inhibitors/inducers

****The dyspepsia seen with this drug is caused by the tartaric acid that is in the capsule covering the drug** (one of the inactive ingredients)

****P glycoprotein is an influx pump involved with dabigatran absorption***

20
Q

Which drugs are oral Factor Xa inhibitors? (3) (hint: -xaban drugs)

A

Rivaroxaban

Apixaban

Edoxaban

**note that these drugs are renally eliminated; rivaroxaban and apixaban are also hepatically metabolized; contraindicated w/ strong CYP3A4 or P glycoprotein inducers/inhibitors

21
Q

Why does rivaroxaban have to be taken w/ a large meal?

___ is dose reduced based on age, weight, and serum Cr

___ is contraindicated in pts with good renal function (likely due to faster elimination)

A

Rivaroxaban has to be taken with a large meal because absorption of the drug is much lower with a small meal than with a large meal

Apixaban is dose reduced based on age, weight, and serum Cr

Edoxoban is contraindicated in pts with good renal function (likely due to faster elimination)

22
Q

Why wouldn’t you use DOACs in pts with mechanical valves?

A

People with mechanical valves are at a high risk of thrombosis (related to a whole of factors that you can google if you like. Something about flow, the valve thrombogenicity etc etc)

23
Q

Which class of drugs is referred to as a “clot buster”?

This class of drugs is primarily indicated for ___ (3)

A

Fibrinolytics, aka “clot busters” are primarily indicated for STEMI, acute ischemic stroke, and massive pulmonary embolism

24
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of fibrinolytics

A

**see below**

Basically plasminogen is activated by tissue activator >> plasmin >> breaks down fibrin and fibrinogen to degradation products

Fibrinogen can be freely circulating or it can be bound to fibrin

The fibrin specificity often dictates the risk of bleeding – if plasminogen is bound to fibrin and we activate the plasminogen, fibrin will be broken down (which is the whole point of a clot buster)

25
Q

The main fibrinolytics are ___ and ___. Which one is the most fibrin specific?

A

The main fibrinolytics are alteplase (t-PA) and tenecteplase (TNK)

TNK is the most fibrin specific

26
Q

Name 4 conditions in which fibrinolytics would be contraindicated

A

Active bleeding

Severely uncontrolled hypertension (>185/110; want to reduce risk of intracranial bleeding so need to lower BP first)

Recent surgery or serious head trauma

Active anticoagulation use