Antibiotics 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the gram-stain?

A

Crystal violet stain is used to stain bacteria.
It is then washed with alcohol.
Gram-positives have a thicker peptidoglycan wall so stain darker.
Gram-negatives the stain is washed out more as the peptidoglycan wall is thinner and bacteria appear pink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What bacteria have an inner cell membrane?

A

Gram positives and negatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which bacteria have an outer cell membrane?

A

Gram negatives only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of a bacterial outer cell membrane?

A

Bacterium can control access to the cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What bacteria have a periplasm?

A

Gram-negatives (although through positives have a thin one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a periplasm?

A

A space of gel like matrix.Contains enzymes, protein folding, small molecule trafficking and the bacteria can put enzymes in which degrade antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the advantage against antibiotics of having a periplasm?

A

The bacterium can put enzymes in the periplasmic space which degrade antibiotics. This is more concentrated than putting enzymes out to the neighbouring environment and more likely to protect the bacteria from destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the antibiotic targets of bacteria?

A
  • Cell wall peptidoglycan
  • metabolism
  • degrade DNA or prevent its replication
  • Switch off protein production in the ribosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe bactericidal antibiotic action?

A

Achieves sterilisation of the infected site by directly killing bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the downside of bactericidal antibiotic action?

A

Potentially the lysis of bacteria can lead to the release of toxins and inflammatory material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe bacteriostatic antibiotic action?

A

Suppresses growth but doesn’t sterilise the site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the downside of bacteriostatic antibiotic action?

A

Requires additional factors to clear bacteria e.g. the immune system.
This wouldn’t work in an immunocompromised host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

Effective against a wide range of bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is good about broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

Treat a wide range of causes of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is bad about broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

Can also target colonising bacteria which is good e.g. in the gut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

Active against a limited range of bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When would narrow spectrum antibiotics be used?

A

Only when the cause is well defined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is guided antibiotic therapy?

A

Where you identify the cause of infection and select an antibiotic based on sensitivity testing.
Use a narrow spectrum antibiotic.
Try limit drug to the site of infection.
Try have as little impact on colonisation and resistance as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is empirical therapy?

A

Have an educated guessed based on clinical findings/epidemiology.
Used when therapy cannot wait for culture.
Use a broad spectrum antibiotic.
This must penetrate throughout the body.
Accept there will be an impact on colonisation and resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is prophylactic therapy?

A

Used before an infection begins to prevent it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List some ways antibiotic associated harm can occur?

A

Disruption of bacterial flora leading to overgrowth of yeasts (e.g. thrush) and overgrowth of bowel (e.g. diarrhoea).
Antibiotic use is also associated with c. diff colitis causing diarrhoea.
Host may get future colonisation and infection with resistant organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the 4 classes of B-lactum antibiotics?

A

Penicillians
Cephalosporins
Catbapenems
Monobactams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which B-lactam antibiotic is the more narrow spectrum?

A

Penicillians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of B-lactams?

A

Bind to transpeptidase enzymes which constructs the bacterial cell walls and interferes with crosslinking of peptidoglycan.
This causes lysis of bacteria (bacteriostatic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a B-lacamase? How does it work?

A

Enzymes that lyse and inactivate beta-lactam drugs by hydrolysing the beta-lactam ring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What bacteria secrete beta-lacatamases?

A

Gram negatives and S. aureus.

27
Q

How are B-lactam drugs administered?

A

Normally poor GI aborption so given IV.

Amoxicillian and fluoxacillin are effective orally.

28
Q

What is the major side effect of B-lactamdrugs which limits their dosage?

A

vomiting.

29
Q

How are B-lactam drugs excreted?

A

Unchanged in the urine

30
Q

What is the half-life of benzylpenicillin (B-lactam)?

A

1 hour

31
Q

What is the half life of ceftiaxone (B-lactam)?

A

8 hours

32
Q

List GI adverse effects to B-lactam antibiotics?

A
  • nausea and vomiting
  • diarrhoea
  • cholestasis
33
Q

List hypersensitivity adverse effects to B-lactams?

A
  • type 1: Utricaria, anaphylaxis
  • type 4: mild-severe dermatology
  • Interstitial nephritis
34
Q

List infection adverse effects to B-lactams?

A
  • Candidiasis: Oral, vulvovaginal
  • C. diff infection
  • selection of resistant bacteria
35
Q

List other rare reactions to B-lactams?

A
  • seizure
  • haemolysis
  • leukopenia
36
Q

If someone is allergic to a type of penicillin, what B-lactams could be given?

A

Probably not other penicillins, but may be okay with other B-lactams.

37
Q

Give 3 examples of penicillins?

A

Benzyloenicillin
Amoxicillin
Flucoxacillin

38
Q

How is benzyloenicillin administered?

A

Iv route.

The oral agent (penicillin V) is not often used.

39
Q

What antibiotic is first choice for a serious steptococcal infection e.g. erysipelas (facial soft tissue infection)?

A

Benzyloenicillin

40
Q

What bacteria is benzyloenicillin effective against?

A

Streptococcus and neisseria.

41
Q

What is amoxicillin used for?

A

Streptococcus, enterococcus and neisseria.

Useful in respiratory tract infections.

42
Q

Which penicillin is resistant against B-lactamase produced by staphylococci?

A

Flucoxacillin

43
Q

What bacteria is flucoxacillin used for?

A

Staph. aureus (not MRSA) and streptococci.

No activity against gram negatives.

44
Q

What is co-amoxiclav?

A

A combination antibiotic of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which acts as a beta-lactamase inhibitor.

45
Q

Which bacteria is co-amoxiclav not effective against?

A

Pseudomonas.

Effective against most others so is broad spectrum.

46
Q

What is Tazocin?

A

A combination of piperacillin and tazobactam.
Is a beta lactamase inhibitor.
Very broad spectrum and effective against all bacteria.

47
Q

How were cephalosporins discovered?

A

Initially isolated from sardianian sewage outflow.

48
Q

What bacteria are cephalosporin effective against?

A

Both gram positive and negatives.

49
Q

Cephalosporins are less susceptible to beta-lactamses. Why is this?

A

Due to its side chains.

50
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins is most commonly used?

A

3rd/4th.

51
Q

Are later generations of cephalosporins better from gram positive or gram negative activity?

A

better for attacking gram negatives, and not as good at attacking gram positives.

52
Q

Give an example of a cephalosporin antibiotic and what it is used for?

A

Ceftriaxone

Good for staphylococcus, Ecolu, Streptococus, neisseri and haemophillus.

53
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone.

54
Q

What class of B-lactam antibiotics are resistant against beta-lactamases?

A

Carbipenems.

55
Q

Give an example of a carbipenem and what bacteria it is effective against?

A

Meropenum.
Effective against all bacteria except MRSA.
New beta-lactamases are emerging which can lyse carbipenems so meropenum is held back for patients who really need it.

56
Q

Name the only monobactam?
How is it administered?
What bacteria is it effective against?

A

Aztreonam
IV
Ecoli, coliforms, neisseria, haemophilius, pseudamonas.

57
Q

How does Vancomycin work?

A

Inhibits cell wall formation in gram positives only.

58
Q

How is vancomycin effective in resistant bacteria?

A

It doesn’t rely on PBP binding.

59
Q

How is vancomycin usually administered?

A

IV route.

60
Q

Why is vancomycin sometimes administered orally?

A

To target C. diff as it lives in the bowel.

61
Q

Describe the dosing of vancomycin?

A

Has a long half life so normally loading dose given then smaller maintenance dose.

62
Q

List problems with vancomycin toxicity.

A
  • Nephrotoxicity in high doses.
  • Red-man syndrome if injected too fast.
  • Anaphylactic reaction.
  • Ototoxicity: rare.
63
Q

Why is vancomycin drug monitored?

A

Has a narrow therapeutic index.