Antibiotic portion Flashcards

1
Q

what is it called when you use a drug that is most likely to treat an organism BEFORE you have the lab results back?

A

empiric therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of antibiotic susceptibility (bacteriostatic/bacteriocidal) is defined as STOPPING the growth of bacteria, limiting its spread until the body’s immune system can attack the pathogen?

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which type of susceptibility is defined as KILLING the bacteria directly, and preferred only for very ill patients?

A

Bacteriocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the enzyme released by bacteria that can lyse the activity of penicillin?

A

Beta lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the coverage for Natural penicillins?

A

gram positive cocci, gram negative cocci, gram positibe bacilli, spirochetes, gas gangrene, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the drug of choice for gram (+) bacilli LISTERIA?

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin, what is now covered?

A

MSSA, more gram negative, and some anaerobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the extended spectrum penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which cephalosporin is best to give to someone with renal dysfunction?

A

Ceftriaxone - it is not renally eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or false: Dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and Nafcillin are antistaphylococcals, so they cover MRSA

A

FALSE - the antistaphylococcal penicillins do NOT cover MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which cephalosporin is typically used pre-surgery due to its long half life?

A

Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cephalosporin can penetrate bone?

A

Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Which of these does NOT have a B-lactam ring?
Carbapenems
Monobactams
Penicillin
Vancomycin
A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is extremely important to monitor when administering Vancomycin?

A

serum drug concentrations (aka Troughs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organisms does Vancomycin cover?

A

gram positive, MRSA, MRSE, enterococcus, C.diff (only PO!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why shouldn’t you administer daptomycin to a patient with a pneumonia infection?

A

It is inactivated by pulmonary surfactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This medication is a good choice for treating UTIs (bacteria), as it distributes well to the kidneys/bladder

A

Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which Carbapenem does NOT cover pseudomonas?

A

Ertapeneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Coverage of carbapanems?

A

gram negative
gram positive
pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coverage of Amoxicillin/Ampicillin

A

gram positive
gram negative
(ampicillin drug of choice for LISTERIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

coverage antistaphylococcals?

A

gram positive, but

NOT MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

coverage natural penicillins

A

gram positive

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

coverage antipseudomonals

A

pseudomonas

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which cephalosporin covers MRSA?

A

5th gen - ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
which cephalosporins have pseudomonas coverage?
3rd generation CEFTAZIDIME 4th generation Cefepime 5th generation Ceftaroline
26
monobactam med name and its coverage?
Aztreonam, covers gram negative and PSEUDOMONAS
27
vanco coverage
gram positive (b-lactam resistant) MRSA (treatment of choice) C.diff (po only)
28
Daptomycin coverage
gram positive MRSA VRE
29
When do you NEVER use Daptomycin and why?
pneumonia, the surfactant inactivates it. Use telavancin
30
Telavancin converage
gram positive MRSA VRE (last choice for hospital acquired pneumonia)
31
Fosfomycin coverage
bacteria; e. coli and e. faecalis
32
Polymixin coverage
gram negative pseudomonas LAST CHOICE DRUG!!!!
33
which tetracycline is best to use in renal impairment?
doxycycline
34
tetracycline coverage
``` gram positive gram negative anaerobes atypicals (almost everything.....EXCEPT MRSA and VRE) ```
35
you are supposed to take the tetracyclines on an empty stomach, EXCEPT for ______, which you take with food.
tetracycline
36
are tetracyclines safe for pregnancy?
NO - crosses placenta and breast milk
37
Glycylcycline (Tigecycline) coverage
MRSA | VRE
38
which 4 bacterium does tigecycline NOT cover?
Morganella, proteus, providencia, pseudomonas
39
is Tigecycline good for a bloodstream infection?
no - it has high volume of distribution
40
Aminoglycosides coverage
gram negative | pseudomonas
41
are aminoglycosides (tobramycin, gentamycin, streptomycin) safe for pregnancy?
no - crosses placenta
42
Macrolides/ketolides coverage
gram positive and atypicals
43
which macrolide is often used for urethritis?
azithromycin
44
metronidazole coverage
anaerobic only - C. Diff treatment of choice
45
quinupristin/dalfopristin coverage
gram positive VRE e. faecium
46
what does quinupristin/dalfopristin NOT cover?
E. faecalis
47
Linezolid coverage
MRSA VRE gram positive....the BIG GUNS! save for high need
48
Fidaxomicin coverage
NARROW! | gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
49
Chloramphenicol coverage
BROAD! | spirochetes, chlamydia, anaerobes
50
what happens with high doses of chloramphenicol?
binds mitochondrial ribosome, causing bone marrow toxicity
51
Clindamycin
gram positive MRSA anaerobes
52
Do you use clindamycin for UTI infections?
NO - it doesn't distribute there
53
which class of antibiotics have a large PAE?
aminoglycosides
54
what is a benefit of high doses of erythromycin?
gastric smooth muscle contractions, may help move food (therapeutic)
55
gray baby syndrome is associated with what antibiotic?
chloramphenicol
56
fluoroquinolone coverage
gram negative gram positive atypicals
57
which fluoroquinolone has the best pseudomonas coverage?
ciprofloxacin
58
which fluoroquinolones are considered the "respiratory" ones?
Lexofloxacin | Moxifloxacin
59
fluoroquinolones do not cover...
syphilis | gonorrhea
60
what can happen if you administer fluoroquinolones with pregnancy?
can cause cartilage erosion (also risk of tendon rupture in adults)
61
what do you need to be careful of when prescribing fluoroquinolones; another concern for collateral infection
c. diff
62
all of the fluoroquinolones are renally eliminated except which one?
Moxifloxacin - eliminated by the liver