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Antibiotic Exam > Antibiotic portion > Flashcards

Antibiotic portion Flashcards

1
Q

what is it called when you use a drug that is most likely to treat an organism BEFORE you have the lab results back?

A

empiric therapy

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2
Q

Which type of antibiotic susceptibility (bacteriostatic/bacteriocidal) is defined as STOPPING the growth of bacteria, limiting its spread until the body’s immune system can attack the pathogen?

A

Bacteriostatic

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3
Q

which type of susceptibility is defined as KILLING the bacteria directly, and preferred only for very ill patients?

A

Bacteriocidal

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4
Q

what is the enzyme released by bacteria that can lyse the activity of penicillin?

A

Beta lactamase

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5
Q

What is the coverage for Natural penicillins?

A

gram positive cocci, gram negative cocci, gram positibe bacilli, spirochetes, gas gangrene, syphilis

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6
Q

What is the drug of choice for gram (+) bacilli LISTERIA?

A

Ampicillin

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7
Q

When clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin, what is now covered?

A

MSSA, more gram negative, and some anaerobes.

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8
Q

What are the extended spectrum penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin

Ampicillin

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9
Q

Which cephalosporin is best to give to someone with renal dysfunction?

A

Ceftriaxone - it is not renally eliminated

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10
Q

True or false: Dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and Nafcillin are antistaphylococcals, so they cover MRSA

A

FALSE - the antistaphylococcal penicillins do NOT cover MRSA

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11
Q

Which cephalosporin is typically used pre-surgery due to its long half life?

A

Cefazolin

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12
Q

Which cephalosporin can penetrate bone?

A

Cefazolin

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13
Q 
Which of these does NOT have a B-lactam ring?
Carbapenems
Monobactams
Penicillin
Vancomycin
A

Vancomycin

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14
Q

What is extremely important to monitor when administering Vancomycin?

A

serum drug concentrations (aka Troughs)

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15
Q

What organisms does Vancomycin cover?

A

gram positive, MRSA, MRSE, enterococcus, C.diff (only PO!)

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16
Q

Why shouldn’t you administer daptomycin to a patient with a pneumonia infection?

A

It is inactivated by pulmonary surfactants

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17
Q

This medication is a good choice for treating UTIs (bacteria), as it distributes well to the kidneys/bladder

A

Fosfomycin

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18
Q

Which Carbapenem does NOT cover pseudomonas?

A

Ertapeneum

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19
Q

Coverage of carbapanems?

A

gram negative
gram positive
pseudomonas

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20
Q

Coverage of Amoxicillin/Ampicillin

A

gram positive
gram negative
(ampicillin drug of choice for LISTERIA)

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21
Q

coverage antistaphylococcals?

A

gram positive, but

NOT MRSA

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22
Q

coverage natural penicillins

A

gram positive

gram negative

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23
Q

coverage antipseudomonals

A

pseudomonas

gram negative

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24
Q

Which cephalosporin covers MRSA?

A

5th gen - ceftaroline

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25
Q

which cephalosporins have pseudomonas coverage?

A

3rd generation CEFTAZIDIME
4th generation Cefepime
5th generation Ceftaroline

26
Q

monobactam med name and its coverage?

A

Aztreonam, covers gram negative and PSEUDOMONAS

27
Q

vanco coverage

A

gram positive (b-lactam resistant)
MRSA (treatment of choice)
C.diff (po only)

28
Q

Daptomycin coverage

A

gram positive
MRSA
VRE

29
Q

When do you NEVER use Daptomycin and why?

A

pneumonia, the surfactant inactivates it. Use telavancin

30
Q

Telavancin converage

A

gram positive
MRSA
VRE
(last choice for hospital acquired pneumonia)

31
Q

Fosfomycin coverage

A

bacteria; e. coli and e. faecalis

32
Q

Polymixin coverage

A

gram negative
pseudomonas
LAST CHOICE DRUG!!!!

33
Q

which tetracycline is best to use in renal impairment?

A

doxycycline

34
Q

tetracycline coverage

A 
gram positive
gram negative
anaerobes
atypicals
(almost everything.....EXCEPT MRSA and VRE)
35
Q

you are supposed to take the tetracyclines on an empty stomach, EXCEPT for ______, which you take with food.

A

tetracycline

36
Q

are tetracyclines safe for pregnancy?

A

NO - crosses placenta and breast milk

37
Q

Glycylcycline (Tigecycline) coverage

A

MRSA

VRE

38
Q

which 4 bacterium does tigecycline NOT cover?

A

Morganella, proteus, providencia, pseudomonas

39
Q

is Tigecycline good for a bloodstream infection?

A

no - it has high volume of distribution

40
Q

Aminoglycosides coverage

A

gram negative

pseudomonas

41
Q

are aminoglycosides (tobramycin, gentamycin, streptomycin) safe for pregnancy?

A

no - crosses placenta

42
Q

Macrolides/ketolides coverage

A

gram positive and atypicals

43
Q

which macrolide is often used for urethritis?

A

azithromycin

44
Q

metronidazole coverage

A

anaerobic only - C. Diff treatment of choice

45
Q

quinupristin/dalfopristin coverage

A

gram positive
VRE
e. faecium

46
Q

what does quinupristin/dalfopristin NOT cover?

A

E. faecalis

47
Q

Linezolid coverage

A

MRSA
VRE
gram positive….the BIG GUNS! save for high need

48
Q

Fidaxomicin coverage

A

NARROW!

gram positive aerobes and anaerobes

49
Q

Chloramphenicol coverage

A

BROAD!

spirochetes, chlamydia, anaerobes

50
Q

what happens with high doses of chloramphenicol?

A

binds mitochondrial ribosome, causing bone marrow toxicity

51
Q

Clindamycin

A

gram positive
MRSA
anaerobes

52
Q

Do you use clindamycin for UTI infections?

A

NO - it doesn’t distribute there

53
Q

which class of antibiotics have a large PAE?

A

aminoglycosides

54
Q

what is a benefit of high doses of erythromycin?

A

gastric smooth muscle contractions, may help move food (therapeutic)

55
Q

gray baby syndrome is associated with what antibiotic?

A

chloramphenicol

56
Q

fluoroquinolone coverage

A

gram negative
gram positive
atypicals

57
Q

which fluoroquinolone has the best pseudomonas coverage?

A

ciprofloxacin

58
Q

which fluoroquinolones are considered the “respiratory” ones?

A

Lexofloxacin

Moxifloxacin

59
Q

fluoroquinolones do not cover…

A

syphilis

gonorrhea

60
Q

what can happen if you administer fluoroquinolones with pregnancy?

A

can cause cartilage erosion (also risk of tendon rupture in adults)

61
Q

what do you need to be careful of when prescribing fluoroquinolones; another concern for collateral infection

A

c. diff

62
Q

all of the fluoroquinolones are renally eliminated except which one?

A

Moxifloxacin - eliminated by the liver

Antibiotic Exam (1 decks)

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