Anti-Epileptic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of epilepsy?

A

Episodic discharge of abnormal high frequency electrical activity in brain leading to seizure
Diagnosis requires evidence of recurrent seizures unprovoked by other identifiable causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes epilepsy?

A

Increased excitatory activity
Decreased inhibitory activity
Loss of homeostatic control
Spread of neuronal hyperactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two major categories of seizures?

A

Partial

General

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe what is meant by a partial seizure.

A

Partial (or focal) seizures

Simple (conscious)
Complex partial seizures (impaired consciousness)
Secondary generalised seizures

Loss of LOCAL excitatory/inhibitory homeostasis
Increased discharges in focal cortical area

Symptoms reflect are affected:

  • Involuntary motor disturbances
  • Behavioural change
  • Impending focal spread accompanied by ‘Aura’
  • May become secondarily generalised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe what is meant by generalised seizures.

A

Generated centrally, spread through both hemispheres with loss of consciousness
Tonic-clonic seizures
Absence seizures

Many other types/sub-types recognised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Most seizures are short lived (up to 5 mins)
Some seizures prolonged beyond this or experienced as a series of seizures without a recovery interval
These are known as Status Epilepticus

Treated as a Medical Emergency
Untreated Status Epilepticus can lead to brain damage or death (SUDEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the dangers of epilepsy?

A

Uncontrolled epilepsy is not a benign condition

Physical injury relating to fall/crash
Hypoxia
SUDEP - sudden death in epilepsy

Varying degrees of brain dysfunction/damage
Cognitive impairment
Serious psychiatric disease

Significant adverse reactions to medication
Stigma/Loss of livelihood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is epilepsy caused?

A

Primary
No identifiable cause - idiopathic

Secondary
Medical conditions affecting brain
Vascular disease
Tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some precipitants of epilepsy?

A
Sensory stimuli
- Flashing lights, strobes
Brain Disease/Trauma
- Brain injury, stroke, drugs/alcohol, lesion
Metabolic disturbances
- Hypo - glycaemia/calcaemia/natraemia
Infections
- Febrile convulsions in infants
Therapeutics
- Some drugs can lower fit threshold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the therapeutic targets for AEDs?

A

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel Blockers

Enhancing GABA Mediated Inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of VGSC Blockers?

A

It only gets access to binding site during depolarisation
This prolongs the inactivation state and when there is abnormal firing it blocks those channels and prevents them from over firing
Then the VGSC blocker detaches from the binding site once the membrane potential is back to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tell me about carbamazepine.

A

VGSC blocker

\well absorbed, 75% protein bound
Initial t1/2 = 30 hrs BUT strong inducer of CYP450
Affects it’s own phase I metabolism
Repeated use t1/2 = 15 hrs

Treats:

  • Generalised Tonic-Clonic
  • Partial - All
  • NOT absence seizures

Drug monitoring

  • Dosing to effect and adjust dosing as t1/2 decreases
  • Check BNF with any other drugs given
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the ADRs and DDIs of carbamazepine?

A

ADRs
CNS - dizziness drowsy ataxia motor disturbances numbness tingling
GI - upset vomiting
CV - can cause variation in BP
Contraindicated with AV conduction problems
Others: Rashes Hyponatraemia

DDIs
Due to the CYP450 inducing
Phenytoin (AED) \/
Warfarin \/
Systemic corticosteroids \/
Oral contraceptives \/
Antidepressants - SSRIs, MAOIs, TCAs interfere with action of carbamazepine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tell me about phenytoin.

A

VGSC blocker

Well absorbed BUT 90% bound in plasma
Also CYP450 inducer
Very variable t1/2 = 6-24hrs

Treats:
Generalised Tonic-Clonic
Partial - All
NOT absence seizures

Drug monitoring
Close monitoring of free conc. plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the ADRs and DDIs of phenytoin?

A
ADRs
CNS - dizziness ataxia headache nystagmus nervousness
Gingival hyperplasia (20%)
Rashes - hypersensitivity
\+ Stevens Johnson (2-5%)
DDIs
Competitive binding with:
- Valproate (AED)
- NSAIDS
- Salicylate
Increases plasma levels
Exacerbates Non-Linear PKs
Very wide range of interactions
Oral contraceptives \/
Cimetidine - phenytoin /\
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tell me about lamotrigine.

A

VGSC blocker
May also be a Ca2+ channel blocker and decrease Glu release

Well absorbed
Linear PK
t1/2=24hrs (Phase II)
No CYP450 induction > fewer DDIs

Treats:
Partial Seizures
Generalised - Tonic-Clonic and Absence Seizures
And other subtypes

Not first line in paediatric use
May be safer in pregnancy

17
Q

What are some of the ADRs and DDIs of lamotrigine?

A

ADRs
CNS - dizziness ataxia somnolence nausea (less then other VGSCs)
Some mild and serious skin rashes

DDIs
Adjunct therapy with other AEDs
Oral contraceptives reduce LTG plasma level
Valproate /\ LTG in plasma (competitive binding)

18
Q

What is the mechanism of GABA agonists in anti epileptic drugs?

A

Increased chloride current into neurone
- Increases threshold for action potential generation

Reduces likelihood of epileptic neuronal hyperactivity

Makes memb. potential more negative

19
Q

How can drugs enhance GABA action?

A

By agonising either the benzodiazepine site or the barbiturate site

Inhibition of GABA inactivation
Inhibition of GABA re-uptake
Increase rate of GABA synthesis

20
Q

How does valproate work?

A

Mixed sites of action (pleiotropic)

Weak inhibition of GABA inactivation enzymes
Weak stimulus of GABA synthesising enzymes
VGSC blocker
Weak Ca2+ channel blocker

21
Q

Tell me about valproate.

A

Absorbed 100%
90% plasma bound

Linear PKs
t1/2=15hrs

Treats:
Partial Seizures
Generalised: Tonic-clonic + Absence Seizures

Drug monitoring:
Plasma valproate not closely associated with efficacy
Monitor for blood, metabolic and hepatic disorder

22
Q

What are the ADRs and DDIs of valproate?

A

ADRs
Generally less severe than with other AEDs
CNS sedation ataxia tremor - weight gain
Hepatic function transaminases /\ in 40% patients
Rarely - hepatic failure

DDIs
Adjunct therapy with other AEDs
Care with adjunct therapy
Antidepressants - inhibit action of valproate
Antipsychotics - antagonise valproate
Aspirin - competitive binding in plasma valproate

23
Q

Tell me about benzodiapines.

A

GABA antagonism

Well absorbed
Plasma bound 85-100%
Linear PK
t1/2 vary=15-45hrs

Treats:
Lorazepam/Diazepam - Status Epilepticus
Clonazepam - Absence seizure short term use

24
Q

What are the ADRs and DDIs of benzodiazepines?

A
Sedation
Tolerance with chronic use
Confusion impaired co-ordination
Aggression
Dependence/withdrawal with chronic use
Abrupt withdrawal seizure trigger
Respiratory and CNS depression
25
Q

What treatments are used in Status Epilepticus?

A

Benzodiazepines
Lorazepam preferred
IV route

Phenytoin
Zero order kinetics
Rapidly reaches therapeutic levels IV
Cardiac monitoring - arrhythmia + hypotension

Other drugs
Midazolam pentobarbital Propofol