Anti-angiogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

Activation of which transciptional complex is considered a critical step in initiating the “angiogenic switch”?

A

hypoxia inducible factor -1

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2
Q

What endopeptidases are involved in the degradation of extracellular matrix components (ECM)?

A

matric metalloproteinases (MMPs)

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3
Q

Which pathways are activated by VEGFR

A

MAPK and PI3K/Akt

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4
Q

Which cell surface receptors are implicated in cell fate, differentiation, and proliferation and what are their ligands?

A

The notch receptor
the ligands are transmembrane receptors from neighbouring cells - jagged and delta-like ligand (Dll)

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5
Q

What’s the MOA of currently approved drugs that target VEGF pathways?

A

VEGFR inhibitors

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6
Q

What are the most frequent and/or severe toxicities of VEGFR inhibitors?

A
  • hypertension = most frequent
  • proteinuria
  • thrombosis, hemorrhage
  • GI fistula/ perforation
  • poor wound healing
  • and reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy
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7
Q

What’s the MOA of bevavizumab?

A

it’s recombinant humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin G that binds and neutralizes the VEGFR

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8
Q

What are some advantage/ disadvantage of TKI for anti-angiogenesis?

A

TKI = oral, shorter T 1/2, may target other TKI that are involved in tumour pathogenesis or resistance

Disadvantage: lower target affinity, more promiscuous activity

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9
Q

What’s the MOA of sorafenib?

A
  • targets the ATP binding site of multiple VEGF
  • can also target Raf kinase, PDGFR, c-kit, etc
  • important for tumour angiogenesis, proliferation, and metastasis
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10
Q

What are some mechanisms of resistance of VEGF inhibition?

A
  • not necessarily a mutation in the target
  • can be upregulation of VEGFR, alternative activation of angiogenesis, or adaptation to live in hypoxic environment
  • can still have persistent VEGFR dependence despite progression (ie. change to another class of angiogenesis inhibitor can may still work)
  • antianiogenesis –> increases hypoxia –> upregulation of HIF 1A –> induction of proangiogenic pathways (VEGF, FGFR, MET, and AXL)
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11
Q

How is sorafenib metabolized?

A

primarily by the liver and excreted in the feces

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12
Q

Which angiogenetic inhibitor has shown efficacy as a single agent - Moab or TKI?

A

TKI, but has toxicities of both VEGFR and TKI inhibition

Moab can’t be used alone, so will also need to consider chemo toxicities

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13
Q

What’s the MOA of sunitinib?

A

TKI, of various receptors
play a key role in tumor growth, angiogenesis, and metastatic progression

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14
Q

What’s the metabolism of sunitinib?

A

Hepatic, predominately on CYP450 and CYP3A4
majority is eliminated in the feces
watch when used concurrently with drugs that also use CYP3A4

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15
Q

What are some inhibitors of P450?

A

clarithromycin, erythromycin, diltiazem, itraconazole, ketoconazole, ritonavir, verapamil, goldenseal, and grapefruit

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16
Q

What are some inducers of P450?

A

Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Rifampicin, St. John’s Wort, Glucocorticoids, Carbamazepine, Dexamethasone, and Taxol.

17
Q

What is vascular normalization?

A

small, tortuous, inefficient and leaky tumour vessels are selectively destroy  improved blood flow through the tumour as a whole

18
Q

What’s an example of a veterinary TKI that has anti-angiogenetic activity?

A

Palladia/ toceranib (VEGFR, PDGFR, Kit, CSF-1, and Flt-3)
- masitinib doesn’t target VEGFR, but does target PDGFR

19
Q

What’s the outcome of PDGFR inhibition?

A

Disruption of signaling pathway for blood vessel support structures  ex. stromal pericyte component of larger vessel

20
Q

Does that drug need to target a angiogenetic pathways to disrupt angiogenesis?

21
Q

What are some common angiogenic inhibitor supplementations?

A

Dogs: thrombospondin-1 mimetics- ABT-526 & ABT-510

has shown some efficacy

22
Q

What’s the outcome of a phage vector delivering tumour necrosis factor (RGD-A-TNF) to αV intergrin on tumour endothelium?

A

Partial remission in 2/14 and stable disease in 6/14 dogs with tumour

23
Q

What was the outcome of inhibitors of matric metalloproteinase (MMP) for canine OSA after doxorubicin?

A

did not see improvement in overall survival

24
Q

How does piroxicam help with anti-angiogenesis in canine iUC?

A

it’s associated with reduced urinary concentrations of the proangiogenic growth factor basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) and induction of apoptosis

25
What's the MOA of metronomic chemotherapy?
- upregulate thrombospondin (shown with cyclophosphamide) - decreased tumour cell production of pro-angiogenic factors (ex. decreased VEGF) - endothelial cell populations appear to be more sensitive compared to other cell types
26
How does MTD vs metronomic therapy change carboxyethylpyrroles (CEPs) levels?
- Carboxyethylpyrroles (CEPs) promote tumor angiogenesis and growth. - it decreases with MTD chemo but rapidly rebounds during break period. - with metronomic, it's more sustained - no CEP surge
27
How does metronomic cyclophosphamide modulate the immune response?
it influences the T lymphocytes by decreasing levels of CD4+ and CD25+ Tregs
28
What are some outcome of metronomic cyclophosphamide in dogs?
- Incompletely removed STS: 10mg/m2 PO, well tolerated, 1 dog had grade 4 SHC. Significantly prolonged DFI. - other studies have showed improvement in QoL scores
29
What other alkylators have been used for metronomic chemotherapy?
- Chlorambucil - 4mg/m2 --> MCT, low grade LSA, MCTs, and as cyclophosphamide replacement - Lomustine - 2.84mg/m2 PO 22/81 dogs had to d/c due to toxicity: Hepatotoxicosis was observed at a median of 265 days in 11 dogs. Thrombocytopenia was identified at a median of 432 days of administration
30
Which TKI may lead to metastatic conditioning?
Sunitinib metastatic conditioning = increased invasion and metastasis as a result of antiangiogenic drug treatment
31
What are some side effects of Palladia?
- GI upset (dose dependent) - myelosuppression - hypertension - bleeding - azotemia - anemia - lethargy - lameness
32
What are some side effects of masitinib?
- GI upset - regenerative/ non regenerative anemia - PLN
33
What's the reported incidence of SHC with metronomic cyclophosphamide?
0-22% (mostly 10-15mg/m2 daily or EOD) arata's paper was 32% (but also a high dose 25mg/m2 EOD)
34
Was metronomic temozolomide able to modulate Tregs?
No, not at 6.6mg/m2 PO q24h