Antenatal Screening Flashcards

1
Q

What is screening?

A

Screening is the process of identifying apparently healthy people who may have an increased chance of a disease or condition.

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2
Q

What do the UK national screening committee do?

A

Advises the govt on introducing and amending screening programmes

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3
Q

What do the Dept of Health and Social Care do?

A

Sets health screening policy for England and provides funding and holds other health bodies to account for their performance

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4
Q

What do NHS England do?

A

Commissions screening services
Implements agreed changed to screening programmes

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5
Q

What is the criteria for a screening programme?

A

The condition - important health problem
Test- simple, safe, precise - acceptable to target population
Intervention - effective intervention with evidence of better outcomes
Screening programme - evidence from RCT’s that programme is effecting in reducinging morbidity and mortality
Implementation criteria -

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6
Q

What are some antenatal and newborn screening?

A

Sickle cell and Thalassemia
Infectious diseases screening
Down’s Edwards’ and Patau’s syndrome screening
Fetal anomaly scan
Diabetic eye screening

Newborn infant physical examination
Newborn hearing screen
Newborn blood spot

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7
Q

What are the key objectives of Screening?

A

Identify the eligible population
Provide information
Explain the conditions, purpose of screening, the test, limitations, results pathways, treatment options
Document the decision to accept/decline
Perform the test
Communicate the results and document in notes/maternity system
Ensure timely transition into appropriate follow-up and treatment for those that screen positive
Optimise health outcomes

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8
Q

What is the aim of offering screening?

A

The aim is to offer screening to the people who are most likely to benefit from it.
The eligible cohort will be different for each programme.
Pathway including numerous health and allied professionals has the potential for errors in screening if key steps are missed.

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9
Q

What is the overview of haemoglobinopathies? (Sickle cell and thalassaemia)

A

Haemoglobinopathies > 1.Genes affect quality and structure of haemoglobin + 2. Genes affect quantity of haemoglobin > 1. Haemoglobin variants (HbS, HbO, HbE) + 2. Thalassaemia such as alpha or beta

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10
Q

What inheritance are haemoglobin disorders

A

Recessive

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11
Q

What is an overview of sickle cell disease

A

Affect haemoglobin - RBC is sickle shaped
Main symptoms - anaemia + severe pain (sickle cell crisis)
Risk of stroke, ACS, blindness, bone damage, chronic organ damage, death
Cure= bone marrow transplant
Coloured people disease

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12
Q

How does pain occur in sickle cell disease?

A

Pain occurs when the cells change shape when the oxygen is released causing blockages in capillaries – treated with strong pain killers or Hydroxyurea to reduce frequency

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13
Q

Overview of B Thalassaemia

A

β found in people originating from Mediterranean, Middle East, Africa or Asia may carry some form of thalassaemia
β thalassaemias are a group of hereditary disorders that result in reduced or absent synthesis of β globin chains
β thalassaemia major patients require lifelong transfusion therapy and chelation therapy to treat complications of resulting iron overload

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14
Q

Overview of A Thalassaemia

A

α zero thalassaemia is most commonly found in those of Southeast Asian origin and East Mediterranean and in low frequencies in some Middle Eastern countries
α thalassaemia major invariably fatal without treatment resulting in hydrops fetalis due to severe fetal anaemia
The mother is at risk of obstetric complications, such as pre-eclampsia, particularly in the third trimester of pregnancy

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15
Q

What is a major problem in alpha thalassaemia?

A

The lack of a specific biomarker for the detection of α thalassaemia carriers creates problems, particularly in the context of a screening programme. In this context α+ thalassaemia is not regarded as significant and policies are designed to detect only couples at risk of hydrops fetalis.

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16
Q

What is the Sickle cell and thalassaemia screening pathway>

A
  • Offered to all pregnant women ideally by 8-10 weeks, biological father of the baby if mother is a genetic carrier, un-booked women in labour
  • High prevalence Trust – universal screening
  • Family Origin Questionnaire accompanies the blood sample and assists laboratory to interpret results and request appropriate testing
  • Egg donor pregnancy – need to test biological father
  • Egg donor and sperm donor – potentially at risk pregnancy unless donors tested by fertility centre and status known
  • If the woman and biological father are identified/known to be carriers – offered counselling and prenatal diagnosis by 12+0 weeks
  • Prenatal diagnosis by 12+6 and results within 5 days
  • Can be offered termination of pregnancy for an affected fetus
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17
Q

What are family origin questionnaires used for?

A

Family origin questionnaire (FOQ) used to assist laboratories to interpret results. The requester indicates the family origins of both the mother and the biological father of the baby.

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18
Q

What is the process for infectious disease screening?

A
  • Screening for HIV, Hepatitis B and Syphilis offered and recommended to all women in early pregnancy and unbooked women in labour
  • Early detection and treatment to reduce mother to child transmission
  • Re-offered by 20 weeks by the screening team to any woman who initially declines
  • Positive/known positive women are contacted and informed by the screening team within 10 days of the result
  • Cared for by a defined MDT for appropriate specialist care
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19
Q

What should all babies born to mothers with an infectious disease have ?

A

MDT plan of care and/or neonatal alert process in place for babies requiring assessment and treatment at birth in line with clinical guidance from the professional bodies

Babies born to mothers with Hepatitis B should be vaccinated within 24 hours of birth and at 4, 8, 12 and 16 weeks then at 12 months

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20
Q

Syphilis overview

A

Caused by the bacteria-like spirochete Treponema Pallidum transmitted primarily through sexual contact with an infectious lesion (chancre)
Can be transmitted transplacentally at any stage in pregnancy and may result in miscarriage, pre-term labour, stillbirth and congenital syphilis.

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21
Q

HIV overview

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retro-virus which leads to immunosuppression and eventually to acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) if left untreated.
Present in all body fluids passed on through sexual intercourse, direct contact with blood of an infected person, sharing needles and mother to child in pregnancy

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22
Q

Hep B overview

A

An infectious inflammatory illness of the liver caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV)
Very infectious, present in all bodily fluids and transmitted in the same way as HIV

23
Q

What does Hep B mean for the baby?

A
  • Mother to child transmission dependent on phase of maternal infection and her level of infectivity
  • Higher infectivity p 70-90% vertical transmission risk without intervention
  • Lower infectivity - 10% risk vertical transmission without intervention
  • Chronic infection occurs in 90% of babies infected perinatally
24
Q

Screening for Down’s (T21), Edwards (T18) and Patau (T13) ?

A
  • Testing for T21/T18/T13 offered to all pregnant women
  • Combined test recommended 11+2–14+1 weeks
  • Quadruple testing for Down’s syndrome offered 14+2 – 20+0 if NT not possible after 2 attempts or too late
  • The screening strategy for T18/T13 after quadruple testing is the 18+0 – 20+6 scan
    Combined and quadruple offered in twin pregnancies
  • Low chance results by letter
  • Higher chance results by screening and offer of PND
  • Close pathway by documenting results or checking has declined and documenting decline
25
Q

What is down syndrome?

A

People with Down’s syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21 in each cell of their body
Affects about 1 in every 1000 births - incidence increases with maternal age
Distinctive facial features but do not all look the same
A person with Down’s syndrome will have some level of learning disability
Most children with Down’s syndrome attend mainstream primary schools
Increased incidence of childhood leukaemia, epilepsy, thyroid disorders, heart conditions and problems with hearing and vision
People with Down’s syndrome can have a good quality of life, and with support are able to get jobs, have relationships and live semi-independently

26
Q

Causes of down syndrome?

A

95% are caused by a trisomy where there are 3 separate copies of chromosome 21
4% are caused by a translocation where an extra copy of the genetic material of chromosome 21 is attached to another chromosome.
1% of cases are mosaic

27
Q

Edwards syndrome

A

Babies with Edwards syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 18 in all or some cells
T18 affects about 3 of every 10,000 births
Incidence increases with maternal age
Survival rates are low and of those babies born alive only around 10% live past their first birthday.
All babies born with T18 will have a severe learning disability and a wide range of extremely serious physical problems
Babies affected by T18 can have heart defects, problems with respiratory system, kidneys and digestive system

28
Q

What is Patau syndrome?

A

Babies with Patau’s syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 13 in some or all cells
Incidence increases with maternal age
T13 affects about 2 of every 10 000 live births
Most babies with T13 will die before they are born, be stillborn or die shortly after birth
Associated with multiple severe fetal abnormalities
80% have congenital heart defects
Holoprosencephaly
Midline facial defects
Abdominal wall defects
Urogenital malformations
Abnormalities of hands and feet

29
Q

What are the congenital heart defects that occur in someone with Patau syndrome?

A

Congenital heart defects: these occur in 80%; they include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, dextrocardia.
Holoprosencephaly: the brain doesn’t divide into two halves; this can present with midline facial defects including:
Cleft lip and palate
Theres more check the PPT

30
Q

What are the screening tests for T21, T18, T13?

A

Uses a combination of maternal age, ultrasound measurement of crown rump length and nuchal translucency, two biochemical markers to calculate the chance of affected pregnancy
The optimum time to perform the test is 11+2 & 14+1 weeks -crown-rump length of 45 - 84 mm
Blood sample same day or later – can be taken 10+0 to 14+1
Serum levels of PAPP-A & Free Beta HCG
Detection Rate 85%, Screen Positive Rate <3%
Produces two risk results – one for T21 and another for T18/T13
Can be offered in twin pregnancies

31
Q

What are the purposes of an early pregnancy scan?

A
  • Confirm viability
  • Ascertain if it is a singleton or multiple pregnancy
  • Estimate gestational age
  • Detect major structural anomalies that may be identified in early pregnancy, e.g. anencephaly
  • If the woman accepts screening for T21 and/or T18/T13 syndromes, the scan is one component of the screening test – CRL and NT
  • Ultrasound scanning in pregnancy should, in the first instance, be performed trans abdominally
32
Q

What do we do if we want to achieve national standards and ensure high quality testing?

A

Each Trust must have a Screening Support Sonographer and Deputy responsible for quality assurance including regular review of images and providing on-going support to sonographers to improve performance. Sonographers have an individual code and their images are submitted by the laboratory to the Down’s Syndrome Quality Assurance Support Service (DQASS)

33
Q

What is the Quadruple tests for T21, T18, T13?

A

Offered if combined screening not possible - late booker, NT not obtained
Uses serum markers only - Alpha Feto Protein, total Beta HCG, Oestriol & Inhibin A
Quadruple test offered when head circumference 101mm - 172mm or gestational age from CRL = 14+2 - 20+0 weeks
Produces a result for Down’s syndrome only
>80% detection rate & screen positive of <3.5%
Cut off threshold for offer of diagnostic testing is 1 in 150

34
Q

How do we calculate the result?

A

Scan measurements of CRL to calculate gestational age and NT measurement
Mother’s date of birth including age of donor if donor egg – chance of aneuploidy increases with age
Serum markers - reported as Multiples of the Median (MoM)
Levels of serum markers affected by number of fetuses, gestation, maternal weight, ethnicity, IVF pregnancy, smoking, diabetes and previously affected pregnancy - these are taken into account in calculation

35
Q

What are some special circumstances for screening?

A

Dichorionic twins
Monochorionic twins
Vanished twin
IVF
Egg donation

36
Q

What happens if the screen shows positive results?

A

Telephoned to Screening midwives by laboratory
Woman contacted within 3 working days to discuss options and offered face to face appointment
Options :-
No further testing – await anomaly scan (not diagnostic)
Non Invasive Prenatal Testing in private sector (screening)
Invasive diagnostic test – CVS or Amniocentesis (carries 0.5 – 1% risk of miscarriage)

37
Q

What is non invasive prenatal testing?

A

Currently only available in private sector
New screening test that analyses fragments of fetal DNA in maternal blood
Can be done from 10 weeks of pregnancy
Predicts the risk of T21, T13, T18 and fetal gender
Up to 99% detection rate
0.1% false positive rate
Not considered diagnostic as fetal DNA derived from placenta – small risk of confined placental mosaicism

38
Q

Overview of fetal anomaly screening - US

A

All woman should be offered a minimum of two ultrasound scans during pregnancy (NICE 2003 Updated March 2016)
Early Ultrasound Scan usually between 10 to 14 weeks gestation used mainly for dating the pregnancy and confirming viability
Ultrasound to screen for structural anomalies ideally between 18+0 weeks 20+6 weeks gestation
The timing of the scans allows for further diagnostic tests if required and ensures women have time to consider decisions about continuing their pregnancy.

39
Q

What is the mid pregnancy or anomaly scan?

A

to identify major abnormalities which indicate the baby may die shortly after birth
to identify conditions that may benefit from treatment before birth
to plan delivery in an appropriate hospital/centre
to optimise treatment after the baby is born
to provide choices for the woman and her family about continuance or termination of the pregnancy

40
Q

What is the fetal anomaly scan?

A

Offered to all women at 18+0 – 20+6 weeks to screen for fetal structural anomalies (11 auditable conditions)
One further scan offered before 23 weeks if not complete
Women should be made aware of the limitations of fetal anomaly screening – detection rates differ for each condition
Normal scan results given by sonographer
Abnormal findings reported and women referred to be seen in Fetal Medicine within 3 working days
Reported to National Congenital Anomalies and Rare Diseases Register (NCARDRS)

41
Q

What is the National congenital anomalies and Rare diseases Register

A

a service to support clinicians and patients, service delivery, commissioning and public health. Incorporates 7 historical regional congenital anomaly registers

42
Q

What is diabetic eye screening?

A

Offered to existing diabetics who become pregnant
Referred for early booking appointment and scan
Diabetic midwives refer on to DES service
Tested at least twice in pregnancy
DES service send list of pregnant women each week to maternity indicating who has had screening
Maternity diabetic team can access screening results

43
Q

What happens in the Newborn infant physical examination?

A

Screening is offered in the newborn and infant periods: first within 72 hours of birth and then at 6-8 weeks
Early detection of congenital defects/clinical concerns leading to prompt referral to expert
Screening of eyes, heart, hips and testes as part of a holistic examination
Performed by appropriately trained professionals
Newborn examination either in hospital or in community by NIPE trained midwives
Results given by examiner – report supplied

44
Q

What are some of the things that are involved in the Newborn infant physical examination?

A

Eyes for cataracts, heart for serious cardiac conditions not detected on anomaly scan, hips for Developmental Dysplasia of the hips and bilateral undescended testes.

45
Q

What are the NIPE referral pathways?

A

Eyes –to be seen by Opthalmologist within 2 weeks
Heart – any suspected cardiac abnormality to be seen as soon as possible by senior neonatologist/paediatrician – no standard for this
Testes – bilateral undescended to be seen within 24 hours by Consultant Neonatologist. Unilateral by GP at 6 weeks of age.
Hips – referred for scan at 2 weeks of age if DDH suspected or by 6 weeks for risk factors

46
Q

How do we test for newborn hearing?

A

Newborn hearing screening always involves the automated otoacoustic emission (AOAE) test
Some babies also need a second test, the automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) test

47
Q

What is the AOAE test?

A

placing a small soft-tipped earpiece in the baby’s ear, after which gentle clicking sounds are played. The ear response is picked up by the screening equipment. The AOAE test takes just a few minutes

48
Q

What is the AABR test?

A

placing 3 small sensors on the baby’s forehead, nape of neck and shoulder. Soft headphones are placed over the baby’s ears and gentle clicking sounds are played. The AABR test takes between 5 and 15 minutes

49
Q

What are some new born blood spot conditions?

A

Sickle cell disease (SCD)
Cystic fibrosis (CF)
Congenital hypothyroidism (CHT)
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
Isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
Glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
Homocystinuria (HCU)

50
Q

Newborn blood spot incidence?

A

SCD - 1 in 2 800 – affects structure of haemoglobin
CF 1 - in 2 500 – affects the lungs and digestive system
CHT - 1 in 2 000 – reduced production of thyroxine essential for growth and development
PKU – 1 in 10 000
MCADD – 1 in 10 000.
MSUD – 1 in 150 000
IVA - 1 in 150 000
GA1 – 1 in 300 000
HCU – 1 in 300 000

51
Q

What is the screening for newborn bloodspot?

A

Screening is offered and recommended because it can improve health and prevent severe disability or death through early treatment
Parents can decline all testing; SCD, CF, CHT individually or all IMD’s
Screening Day 5 (birth is day 0)
Residual blood spots stored for
5 years – part of consent process
Good quality spots and fully completed cards prevent avoidable repeats
National newborn blood spot failsafe system to account for each baby
Parents informed of normal results by 6 weeks by Child Health

52
Q

What are the consequences of local pathway failures?

A

FOQ not annotated as donor egg – testing of biological father not requested. Pregnancy potentially at risk
Failure to act on missing ID screen, woman Hepatitis B positive, baby does not receive programme of vaccination at birth
Clerk incorrectly appoints woman at a gestation too late for combined screening
Incorrect weight and previous history leads to incorrect low chance Down’s result - high chance on recalculation

53
Q

What is horizon scanning?

A

Newborn blood spot - new pilot commencing September 2020 testing for Severe Combined Immuno - Deficiency Syndrome (SCID)
FASP T21/T18/T13 - NIPT to be introduced as second line screening test to all women who screen positive on initial testing. Delayed as NHS England re-procure lab services
Syphilis; PHE Action Plan published June 2019 – vigilance for syphilis throughout antenatal care. Encourages further offer of ID screen at any stage to women whose risk of acquiring an STI has changed during the pregnancy due increased incidence of syphilis infections