Antenatal care Flashcards

1
Q

How is pregnancy diagnosed

A

CF: secondary amenorrhoea, N+V (commonly within 2w of missing period, morning or any time), frequent micturition, excessive lassitude (for T1), breast tenderness (progesterone + water retention), maternal perception of fetal movements (~20w in first preg or 18w in other pregs), pica (wanting particular food)

Beta-hCG in urine/serum after ~10d post-conception

  • False positives
  • positive hCG without pregnancy - trophoblastic neoplasms
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2
Q

How is pregnancy dated?

A
  • First day of the LMP - some idea of age but often inaccurate
  • US in T1 to confirm gestational age
  • EDD: 9m + 7d added to the first day of the LMP, or subtract 3m from the first day of the LMP and add 7d (Naegele’s rule) – not that accurate as women often dont know LMP, relies on a regular 28d cycle, assumes conception happened at point of ovulation
  • 40% deliver within 5d of the EDD, and 2/3 within 10d so is a rough guide
  • If normal cycle is >28d subtract/add appropriate number to the EDD
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3
Q

What is pseudocyesis?

A

Sx of pregnancy in a woman who isn’t pregnant - often due to fear/desire of pregnancy resulting in hypothalamic amenorrhoea

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4
Q

How many appointments should a woman with uncomplicated pregnancy have? What should be done at each?

A
  • Nulliparous - 10
  • Parous - 7

Check BP + urine for protein, and from 24w measure the symphysis-fundal height on growth charts

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5
Q

What is the booking appointment?

A
  • Done before 12w
  • Full history
  • Maternal bloods: FBC, blood grouping + Rh, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies (if at risk/at risk area), hep B, syphilis, rubella, HIV
  • Explanation of screening tests
  • Adv about diet, ensuring enough vitamin D, avoiding alcohol + certain foods
  • General info about stages of pregnancy, antenatal classes
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6
Q

When is the combined test offered?

A

11-14w

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7
Q

When is the quadruple test offered?

A

15-20w, if they missed the combined one

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8
Q

What scans are routinely done for an uncomplicated pregnancy?

A
  • Early pregnancy scan between 10-13w : confirm viability, singleton/multiple, estimate gestational age, detect major abnormalities like anencephaly (often combine with combined test as can check nuchal translucency)
  • Fetal anomaly scan 18-20w
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9
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for pregnant women?

A
  • Influenza

* Pertussis

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10
Q

What is tested at 28w?

A

FBC for anaemia
Red cell antibodies again
OGTT if they have RF

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11
Q

What is the rationale behind the NHS Fetal Anomaly Screening Programme?

A

Identify fetal problems in asymptomatic women, that may result in incompatibility with life/severe disability or benefit from early paed/antenatal treatment

Allows parents to be offered further tests, prepare for otherwise unexpected neonatal needs, have a TOP, manage birth in a specialist centre

They don’t have to have it

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12
Q

What does high risk screening result mean?

A

A greater than 1/150 chance of having the condition

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13
Q

What conditions does the FASP screen for?

A
  • Chromosomal abnormalities - these are higher risk with maternal age. Down’s syndrome T21, Edward’s syndrome T18 and Patau’s syndrome T13
  • Structural abnormalities - may benefit from antenatal treatment, or help with plans for delivery/postnatal, or indicate baby might die
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14
Q

What are the limitations to screening?

A
  • False positives + false negatives
  • Varying sensitivity + specificity
  • Scan quality can be compromised by a high BMI, abdominal scars or a sub-optimal fetal position
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15
Q

What biochemical markers are used in screening?

A
  • Beta-hCG: made by SCTB then placenta; high in T21, low in T18+13
  • PAPP-A: made by placenta, if low in T1 is a/w T21+18+13
  • Alpha fetoprotein: made by yolk sac+liver, high in NTD, low in T21 (in T2)
  • Unconjugated estriol: made by placenta, low in T21 (in T2)
  • Inhibin A: made by CL+placenta, high in T21 (in T2)
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16
Q

What is done in the combined test and what does it screen for?

A
  • Maternal age
  • Biochemistry: beta-hCG + PAPP-A
  • Nuchal translucency measurement (thickness of SC fluid in fetal neck, if increased can indicate chromosomal abnormalities as collagen defect means tissue more elastic [may also be normal])

Screens for low/high risk of Down’s, Edward’s or Patau’s

17
Q

What is the eligibility for the combined test?

A

11+1 to 14+1 W

CRL must be 45-84mm

18
Q

Why is nuchal translucency not measured after 14w?

A

The fetal lymphatic system is more developed, so the excess fluid in the neck will drain away

19
Q

What is the quadruple test?

A
  • Done if miss T1 test/can’t obtain NT measurement
  • Between 14+2 to 20+0 weeks
  • Combines maternal age, AFP, beta-hCG, uE3 and inhibin-A
  • Gives risk of Down’s syndrome only
20
Q

When is fetal anomaly scan done and what does it look for?

A
  • 18+0 to 20+6w, better to do it closer to 20w as structures more likely to develop
  • Screens for 11 conditions that indicate baby may die/antenatal interventions/planning for delivery
  • Looks at HC, AC, femur length, spine (vertebrae + skin covering), heart, kidneys, brain + face
  • Only gives a side view of the fetus
  • Conditions: anencephaly, spina bifida, cleft lip, CDH, gastroschisis, exomphalos, serious cardiac anomalies, renal agenesis, skeletal dysplasia, T18, T13
21
Q

What is NIPT?

A

Non-invasive prenatal testing

Is a blood test done from 10w which measures cell-free fetal DNA in the mothers blood, if any DNA is over-represented for the chromosomes 21/18/13 it means a trisomy is higher risk

Not currently on NHS but has been recommended

Has a higher accuracy of diagnosis, as either positive (still need invasive test to confirm), negative (highly unlikely) or inconclusive (4% chance, when there’s not enough DNA)

22
Q

What is done when a screening test picks up a higher risk pregnancy?

A
  • Explain risks + benefits
  • Appropriately trained person
  • Anti-D prophylaxis if woman RhD-negative
  • CVS or amnio
23
Q

Chorionic villus sampling

A
  • From 11-13+6w, biopsy the placental villi either through abdomen or cervix with US guidance
  • Ind: high risk screen, prev child with chromosomal abnormality, carrier status, US evidence
  • Accuracy slightly lower than amnio cos of mosaicism
  • Pros: done earlier on so earlier management decisions
  • Comps: 1% miscarriage, 10% PV bleed, pain, infection, rhesus sensitisation, mosaic result (normla+abnormal cells found so then need amnio)
24
Q

Amniocentesis

A
  • Done from 15w
  • US guidance through abdo into amniotic sac, get fluid, send cells for karyotyping + PCR
  • Ind: high risk on screening or a previously affected pregnancy
  • Comps: miscarriage 1%, false negatives, infection, pain, Rh sensitisation, higher risk of club foot
25
Q

Haematology screening

A
  • Anaemia: FBC at booking + 28w (iron def most common)
  • Blood group, Rh status + red cell alloantibodies: booking and 28w (G+S)
  • Haemoglobinopathies: in high risk areas screen all for SCD + thalassaemia, in low risk areas test if at risk using RBC indices, at risk determined by Family Origin Questionnaire
26
Q

Infection screening at booking

A
  • HIV
  • Hep B
  • Syphilis - test with VRDL
  • Asymptomatic bacteruria - as at higher risk of pyelo
27
Q

What infections are not screened for?

A

Rubella

Chlamydia (if they are <25 inform re national chlamydia screening programme)

28
Q

Screening for GDM?

A
  • 24-28w OGTT if they have RF
  • OGTT >7.8 or FPG >5.6 indicates diabetes (not HbA1c as lowered in preg)
  • Test earlier if previous GDM
29
Q

When would you screen for zika virus?

A

Travelled to affected area during current pregnancy and symptoms (flu like, rash)
Blood test

30
Q

How is fetal health screened for?

A
  • Maternal vigilance for fetal movements
  • Fundal symphysis height on growth chart to detect restriction/excess
  • Auscultation of FHB
31
Q

Mental health screening

A
  • At booking ask about MH esp depression history
  • RF for AND + PND - bio, psycho + social
  • Similar CF but added worries about childbirth, looking after baby, esp if lacking support
  • R/v postnatally
  • Urgent referral if suicide/self harm/self neglect/psychotic/manic
32
Q

What monitoring is done where there are concerns about the fetus?

A
  • Umbilical artery blood doppler
  • Serial US measurements of HC+AC
  • Amniotic fluid volume on USS
  • Biophysical parameters: CTG to record FHR, fetal movements, the tone (flexion-extension cycle)
33
Q

Why are twins more complicated?

A
  • Growth restriction from uteroplacental vascular disease
  • Twin to twin transfusion syndrome -in monochorionic, as placental circulation shared so risk of one fetus being ‘donor’ and one being ‘recipient’
  • Twins need more growth scans + to check amniotic fluid volumes and UA doppler
34
Q

What adv would you give regarding folic acid?

A
  • Diet rich in green leafy veg
  • Want to keep levels up as otherwise can cause anaemia or neural tube defects
  • All women should take 400 micrograms folic acid until 12w (and ideally for 3m pre-conceptually)
  • Higher risk take 5mg: previous child or FH of NTD in them or partner, woman on AED/coeliac disease/thalassaemia trait/sickle cell, DM, co-trimoxazole, HIV, or obese mother