Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is gravidity?

A
  • how many times a woman has been pregnant
  • includes miscarriage, ectopic, termination, live birth, stillbirth, molar pregnancies

Example: Mrs X currently 12/40, two miscarriages at 8/49 and 20/40, one son born at 38/40 → G4P1+2

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2
Q

What is parity?

A
  • how many babies a woman has delivered at 24+ weeks gestation, alive or dead
  • pregnancies delivering at <24/40 are denoted by a suffix eg P3+2

  • Example 1: Ms Y not pregnant, has twins born at 34/40 → G1P2 or G1P1 (twins)*
  • Example 2: Miss Z currently 28/40, one prev ectopic, two terminations both at 6/40, one stillbirth due to abruption at 25/40 → G5P1+3*
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3
Q

What do the terms primigravid, nulliparous and multiparous refer to?

A
  • primigravid → first ever pregnancy ie. G1P0
  • nulliparous → has had no delivery of a baby >24/40
  • multiparous → has had one or more deliveries of babies >24/40
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4
Q

What is the most accurate way to calculate a woman’s gestation?

A
  • all women should now be offered a first timester USS at 11-13/40
  • crown rump length (CRL) most accurate way to date a pregnancy
  • dating by USS is less accurate beyond this gestation, particularly >20/40
  • after this, head circumference and biparietal diameter are used instead of CRL

NB: Nagele’s rule (for 28 day cycle) = LMP - 3months + 1 year+7days

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5
Q

NICE issued guidelines on routine care for the healthy pregnant woman in March 2008. They recommend:

  • 10 antenatal visits in the first pregnancy if uncomplicated
  • 7 antenatal visits in subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated
  • women do not need to be seen by a consultant if the pregnancy is uncomplicated

When is the booking visit and what is its purpose?

A
  • 8-12 weeks (ideally <10)
  • general info → diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vit D, antenatal classes
  • obs → BP, urine dip, check BMI
  • FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies
  • hepatitis B, syphilis, rubella
  • HIV test offered to all women
  • urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria
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6
Q

When is the dating scan?

A
  • 11-13 weeks
  • confirm dates + exclude multiple pregnancy
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7
Q

When is the combined screening test for Down’s syndrome?

A
  • 11-13 weeks
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8
Q

When is the anomaly scan?

A
  • 18-20+6 weeks
  • looks for 11 conditions
  • info about anomaly scan given prior at 16 weeks, when blood results also given and iron supplementation considered
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9
Q

When is anti-D prophylaxis given to rhesus negative women?

A
  • 1st dose: 28 weeks
  • 2nd dose: 34 weeks

the evidence base suggests that there is little difference in the efficacy of single-dose (at 28 weeks) and double-dose regimes (at 28 & 34 weeks). For this reason the RCOG in 2011 advised that either regime could be used ‘depending on local factors’​

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10
Q

At 36 weeks, on top of routine care what else should be checked?

A
  • check presentation - offer external cephalic version if indicated
  • information on breast feeding, vitamin K, baby-blues
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11
Q

What is the relationship between maternal age and Down’s syndrome?

A
  • is a major risk factor for Down’s syndrome
  • risk is 2-3% for women over 45 years
  • but there are many more pregnancies in younger women
  • the risk for an individual is less, but there are more affected babies in younger women
  • age alone is ineffective as a screening method
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12
Q

What is the combined test for Down’s?

A
  • done @ 11-13+6 weeks
  • recommended for those booking in 1st trimester
  • combines ultrasound (nuchal translucency) and 2 serum markers:
    • hCG
    • PAPP-A
  • advantages → early result, detection rate (85%), false +ve rate (2.2%)
  • if women book later in pregnancy either the triple or quadruple test should be offered
  • this tests for Down’s (21), Edward’s (18) + Patau’s (13)

The results of combined test and age of mother are all used by software to calculate high or low risk of having a baby with one of the conditions. Can choose to be screened for just Down’s or all 3; it does NOT tell you if you have it, just the risk. If screening test says you’re low-risk, should be told within 2wks. If high-risk, told within 3 working days.

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13
Q

What is the quadruple test and when is it done?

A
  • 14-20 weeks
  • 15% of women present after first trimester
  • NT unreliable at this stage
  • offered serum testing but has lower detection rate (80%) and a higher false positive rate (3.5%) than combined test
  • it cheks alpha-fetalprotein (AFP), hCG, unconjugated oestriol and inhibin-A
  • combined w/ maternal age to provide individualised risk
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14
Q

What does a positive/high-chance combined test result mean?

A
  • risk of 1 in 150 or greater regarded as “positive
  • 1 in 9 turn out to have affected fetus after positive combined screening test
  • that means 8 false positives for every 1 true positive
  • screen positive women offered CVS or amniocentesis
  • CVS performed early (11-14wks) but miscarriage rate 1-2%
  • amniocentesis possible from 15wks so later result but miscarriage rate lower at 0.5-1%
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15
Q

What happens during chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?

A
  • involves removing + testing sample of cells from placenta
  • carried out under guidance of USS
  • transabdominal CVS (predominantly) → through tummy, cleaned + local anaesthetic injected into skin; needle inserted through skin into womb + guided to placenta using USS; syringe attached to needle to take small sample of cells
  • transcervical CVS → sample of cells collected via cervix; thin tube attached to syringe or small forceps inserted through vagina + cervix and guided towards placenta using USS
  • usually takes 10 mins, monitored afterwards for up to an hour, arrange for someone to drive pt home
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16
Q

What advice should be given after CVS (as well as amniocentesis), to the woman?

A
  • described as being uncomfortable (rather than painful), may have slightly sore tummy after
  • normal to have cramps after, similar to period pain + light PV bleeding (spotting) for a day or two
  • can take painkillers such as paracetamol (but NOT iboprufen or aspirin), may wish to avoid strenuous activity for rest of day
  • contact midwife or hospital if any of the following develop:
    • persistent/severe pain, high temp, chills, shivering, heavy PV bleeding, contractions

This advice is the same as for recovery for amniocentesis too

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17
Q

What are the associated risks of having CVS?

A
  • MISCARRIAGE → 1-2% ie. 1-2 women out of a 100 will have a miscarriage after having CVS
    • difficult to determine which miscarriages would have happened anyway + which are result of CVS procedure
    • most miscarriages that happen after CVS occur within 3 days of procedure
  • INADEQUATE SAMPLE → in around 1% of procedures; may need to be carried out again, or wait to have amniocentesis
  • INFECTION → rare; occurs in less than 1/1000
  • RHESUS SENSITISATION → if mothers blood type is Rhesus negative but baby’s is RhD positive, it is possible for sensitisation to occur
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18
Q

Amniocentesis is similar to CVS but is carried out between the 15th and 20th week.

What happens in amniocentesis?

A
  • take small sample of amniotic fluid so cells can be tested
  • USS before + during, allows to check position of baby + find best place to remove some fluid and ensure needle can pass safely through walls of belly + womb
  • area cleaned w/ antiseptic solution + local anaesthetic injected into skin to numb area
  • using USS, needle passed into amniotic sac + syringe used to remove small sample of fluid:
    • in 8/100 women, not enough fluid removed first time so needle inserted again
    • isn’t painful but may feel uncomfortable
  • takes around 10 mins + monitored for up to an hour afterwards for SE
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19
Q

What are the important risks associated with amniocentesis?

A
  • MISCARRIAGE → estimated to be 0.5-1%; higher risk if carried out before 15wks; most occur within 3days of procedure
  • INJURY FROM NEEDLE → placenta may be punctured by needle; sometimes necessary for needle to go through placenta to access amniotic fluid; usually heals without any problems
  • INFECTION → lower than 1 in 1000
  • RHESUS SENSITISATION → if mother’s blood type RhD negative but baby’s RhD positive
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20
Q

What happens if the condition is found (Down’s) following CVS or amniocentesis?

A
  • can speak to specalists → midwife, consultant paediatrician + geneticist
    • able to give detailed info about condition, symptoms child may have, treatment + support
  • main options are → CONTINUE with pregnancy or TERMINATION
  • difficult decision but never alone
  • several charities can also offer support + information
    • Antenatal Results + Choices (ARC)
    • Down’s Syndrome Association
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21
Q

What is non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)?

A
  • expensive - costs around £700 privately
  • being introduced as second line screen under NHS
  • non-invasive: detects cell-free foetal DNA in maternal circulation
  • sensitivity 99% for Down’s + 97% for Edward’s
  • occasionally no free DNA detected + test repeated
  • remains a screening test
  • higher sensitivity + specificity reduced need for CVS/amniocentesis
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22
Q

What are common teratogenic drugs?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • acne meds: isotretinoin/accutane
  • alcohol
  • androgens
  • tetracyclines + doxycycline
  • warfarin
  • anticonvulsants
  • lithium
  • methotrexate
  • carbimazole
  • cocaine
  • thalidomide
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23
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of specific anticonvulsants in pregnancy?

A
  • sodium valproate → neural tube defects
  • carbamazepine → least teratogenic of older antiepileptics
  • phenytoin → cleft palate
  • lamotrigine → safe?
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24
Q

What happens in a rhesus negative pregnancy?

A
  • along w/ ABO system, the rhesus system is the most important antigen found on RBCs
  • the D antigen is the most important antigen of the rhesus system
  • around 15% of mothers are rhesus negative (Rh -ve)
  • if a Rh -ve mother delivers a Rh +ve child, a leak of foetal red blood cells may occur
  • this causes anti-D IgG antibodies to form in mother
  • in later pregnancies, these can cross placent and cause haemolysis
  • this can also occur in first pregnancy due to leaks
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25
Q

What is the prevention for Rhesus disease?

A
  • test for D antibodies in all Rh -ve mothers at booking
  • NICE (2008) advise giving anti-D to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks
  • anti-D prophylaxis (prevents sensitisation) - once sensitisation has occured it is irreversible
  • the exogenous anti-D ‘mops up’ foetal RhD and prevents sensitisation; only used if mother not already producing antigens
  • if event is in 2nd/3rd trimester give large dose of anti-D + perform Kleihauer test → determines proportion of foetal RBCs present
26
Q

What is the management of Rhesus iso-immunisation?

A
  • identification → screen for unsensitised women at 28; antibody testing + obstetric history
  • assess severity of foetal anaemia → done using doppler USS
  • treatment in utero → transfusion into umbilical vein if severe, or if >36 weeks deliver
  • monitor → neonatal FBC + LFTs

All babies born to Rh -ve mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group + direct Coombs test. Coomb’s test: direct antiglobulin - will demonstrate antibodies on RBCs of baby.

27
Q

In what situations should anti-D immunoglobulin be given as soon as possible (/always <72hrs)?

A
  • delivery of Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn
  • any ToP
  • miscarriage if gestation >12wks
  • ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate then anti-D not required)
  • external cephalic version
  • antepartum haemorrhage
  • amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, foetal blood sampling
  • abdominal trauma

Anti-D needs to be given because these are all sensitising events!

28
Q

Rhesus: How will the affected foetus present?

A
  • oedematous (hydrops fetalis, as liver devoted to RBC production albumin falls)
  • jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly
  • heart failure
  • kernicterus

Rx → transfusions + UV therapy

29
Q

How is polyhydramnios detected?

A
  • increased symphysiofundal height
  • tense cystic uterus; foetal parts hard to feel
  • amniotic fluid index (AFI)
  • ultrasound 4 quadrants: for each measure depth of deepest unobstructed pool; sum of 4 measurements
  • total of 8-18cm is normal; >24cm is polyhydramnios
  • or single pool of more than 8cm
30
Q

What are the causes of polyhdramnios?

A

DITCH

  • Diabetes
  • Idiopathic (60%)
  • Twins
  • Congenital abnormalities
  • Heart failure
31
Q

What are the risks of polyhydramnios?

A

Ps

  • Placental abruption
  • Pretty unusual lie
  • Premature labour
  • Prolapse of cord
  • Post-partum haemorrhage
  • Perinatal mortality
32
Q

NICE published guidance in 2010 on the management of hypertension in pregnancy. They also made recommendations on reducing the risk of hypertensive disorders developing in the first place.

Who are the women at risk of developing pre-eclampsia and what should they take?

A
  • Existing chronic hypertension
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Lupus (SLE)
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Maternal diabetes (pre-existing, not GD)
  • Previous pregnancy w/ HTN
  • Obesity

Give aspirin 75mg od from 12/40

33
Q

The classification of hypertension in pregnancy is complicated and varies.

How does the pattern of blood pressure change in the first trimester (of a normal pregnancy)?

A
  • BP usually falls in first trimester (particularly diastolic)
  • continues to fall until 20-24 weeks
  • after this, BP usually increases to pre-pregnancy levels by term
34
Q

What are the three categories of hypertension in pregnancy?

A
35
Q

What is the treatment for hypertension in pregnancy?

A
  • prevents development of severe HTN >160/100
  • reduces risk of stroke
  • labetalol first line
  • nifedipine, hydralazine or methyldopa second line
  • not ACEI (risk of congenital malformations) + not diuretics (reduce maternal plasma volume)
36
Q

What is pre-eclampsia (PET)?

A
  • pre-eclampsic toxaemia
  • disease of placenta: resolves after delivery
  • affects 5% of pregnancies
  • onset after 20 weeks
  • hypertension** + **proteinuria ⇒ gestational proteinuric hypertension
  • non-dependent oedema (variable oedema of hands, face, ankles)
37
Q

How is a diagnosis of pre-eclampsia made?

A
  • hypertension >140/90 on more than one occasion
  • AND proteinuria >0.3g / 24hrs
  • equiv to protein creatinine ratio of 30mg/mmol
  • approx equivalent to 2+ on urine dip
  • in absence of urinary tract infection

Other features that may indicate severe PET: headache, visual disturbance, papilloedema, RUQ/epigastric pain, hyperreflexia, low platelets, abnormal LFTs, HELLP syndrome

38
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia?

A
39
Q

What are foetal complications of PET?

A
  • foetal growth restriction
  • intra-uterine death
  • premature delivery (iatrogenic)
40
Q

What are maternal complications of PET?

A
  • Stroke
  • HELLP syndrome
  • Abruption of placenta
  • Multi-organ failure (+/- DIC +/- Death)
  • Eclampsia
41
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A
  • Haemolysis
  • Elevated Liver enzymes
  • Low Platelets
42
Q

What is the treatment for pre-eclampsia (as prev mentioned as well)?

A
  • antihypertensives → labetalol
  • admit to hospital for monitoring
  • VTE prevention
  • delivery is only definitive cure for PET
43
Q

What are the key red flag signs and symptoms to ask about for pre-eclampsia?

A
  • headache
  • visual disturbance
  • epigastric/RUQ pain (hepatic capsule distension or infarcts)
  • breathlessness (pulm oedema due to ARDS)
  • peri-orbital oedema
  • hyper-reflexia
  • clonus
44
Q

What needs to be monitored in a pre-eclamptic woman?

A
  • symptoms + BP
  • ultrasound for foetal growth
  • umbilical artery blood flow (correlates w/ placental resistance)
  • pre-eclampsia bloods
    • FBC → low platelets?
    • low Hb due to haemolysis in HELLP
    • U+Es → raised urea + creatinine
    • LFTs → raised AST + ALT (“transaminitis”); raised bilirubin if haemolysis
45
Q

What is the timing of delivery in pre-eclampsia?

A
  • aim for best chance of foetal survival ie. 34 weeks or later if possible
  • use maternal steroids up to 36 weeks
  • delay delivery by 24hrs for maternal steroid injection reduces foetal mortality by 50%
  • reduces risk of foetal: intraventricular haemorrhage, resp distress and necrotising enterocolitis
  • high BP, impaired renal or hepatic function and foetal distress may prompt early delivery
46
Q

What is the emergency management for eclampsia?

A
  • ABC - may need oxygen, intubation
  • manual uterine displacement (MUD) or turn patient onto her side (to reduce risk of aspiration + prevent aorto-caval compression)
  • control fits → IV magnesium sulphate
  • control HTN → IV labetalol or hydralazine
47
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy can lead to significant maternal and foetal morbidity and mortality. The risks can be significantly reduced by optimising control. Pregnancies need to be treated as high risk and closely monitored.

What are the diabetic risks in pregnancy?

A
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • Macrosomia
  • Amniotic fluid XS
  • Stillbirth
  • Hypertension + neonatal hypoglycaemia

*Plus congenital abnormaltiies and miscarriages in pre-existing diabetes but NOT gestational diabetes!

48
Q

What is the pre-conception advice for pre-existing diabetes for pregnancy?

A
  • impact on pregnancy starts from pre-conception
  • high dose folic acid (5mg daily) from pre-conception
  • don’t stop contraception until good control achieved (ideally HbA1c _<_48mmol/mol)
  • avoid pregnancy if poor control (HbA1c >86mmol/mol) as v high risk of congenital malformations
  • monitor eyes + renal fxn carefully before and during pregnancy
  • diagnosis will usually be already made
  • suspect if persistent glycosuria in first trimester + high random blood sugars on testing
  • confirmed w/ oral glucose tolerance test
  • first trimester presentation suggests pre-existing diabetes
49
Q

What are the effects of pregnancy on pre-existing diabetes?

A
  • increased insulin requirement (insulin resistance increases in pregnancy)
  • acceleration of retinopathy
  • deterioration in renal fxn if pre-existing nephropathy - can manifest as HTN
  • maternal hypoglycaemia in early pregnancy
50
Q

What are the principles of management in pre-existing diabetes?

A
  • pre-conceptual counselling - improved control reduces risk
  • manage w/ diabetes team - alter meds to optimise control
    • stop metformin, commence insulin
  • stop ACEi + statins
  • screen for + monitor vascular complications
  • aspirin 75mg/day from 12wks to birth
  • early viability scan at 8 weeks + detailed anomaly scan + regular growth scans
51
Q

Gestational diabetes is diabetes with onset during pregnancy. Unlikely to impact on pregnancy until 2nd trimester. No macro- or microvascular complications. Increased glucose load combined with increased insulin resistance pushes body into a temporary diabetic state. There is increased risk of subsequent GD + T2DM.

What are risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A
  • BMI of > 30 kg/m2
  • prev macrosomic baby weighing 4.5kg+
  • prev gestational diabetes
  • first-degree relative w/ diabetes
  • family origin w/ high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, Black, Caribbean, Middle Eastern)

*These are also factors for screening

52
Q

What is the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?

A

Pregnancy is a diabetogenic state

53
Q

What is the screening for gestational diabetes?

A
  • Women who’ve previously had gestational diabetes → OGTT ASAP after booking + at 24-28 weeks if first test normal. NICE also recommend that early self-monitoring of blood glucose is an alternative to OGTTs
  • Women w/ any of other risk factors should be offered OGTT @ 24-28weeks

OGTT: fasting venous plasma glucose measured → 75g oral glucose load administered → venous plasma glucose measured at 2hrs

NB. HbA1c not used for diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy

54
Q

What are the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes?

A
55
Q

What is the management of gestational diabetes?

A
  • newly diagnosed women to be seen in joint diabetes + antenatal clinic within a week
  • target cap glucose <5.3 mmol/l fasting and <7.8mmol/l 1hr after food
  • check targets every 2wks
  • if fasting plasma glucose <7mmol/l a trial of diet + exercise offered
  • if glucose targets not met within 1-2ws of altering diet/exercise → add metformin → then add insulin
  • if at time of diagnosis fasting glucose > 7mmol/linsulin straight away
  • if plasma glucose between 6-6.9mmol/l + complications (macrosomia, hydramnios) → insulin straight away
  • glibenclamide only for those who cannot tolerate metformin + those who fail to meet glucose targets w/ metformin but decline insulin
  • treatment discontinued after delivery
  • if large for gestational age → consider C-section
  • if not, plan induction for 38-40wks
  • be alert for possible shoulder dystocia
  • fasting glucose @ 6wks postpartum to exclude underlying DM
56
Q

What is antepartum haemorrhage?

A
  • bleeding in pregnancy after 24weeks gestation
  • bleeding at <24weeks is known as threatened miscarriage
57
Q

What are causes of antepartum haemorrhage?

A
  • UTERINE:
    • placental abruption (premature separation)
    • placenta praevia
    • vasa praevia (rare)
    • marginal bleed (bleeding from placental edge)
  • CERVICAL:
    • ‘show’ → loss of mucus plug from cervix
    • cervical cancer
    • cervical polyp or ectropion
  • VAGINAL:
    • trauma or infection
58
Q

Placental abruption is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus. Occurs in approx 1% of pregnancies. Risk factors include smoking, prev abruption, hypertensive disorders, thrombophilias, cocaine and trauma.

What are the clinical features of placental abruption?

A
  • vaginal bleeding (often present but not always, can be concealed)
  • blood can be altered/dark red as takes time to track out of vagina
  • abdominal pain
  • uterine contractions
  • shock (in severe cases)
  • uterine tenderness + ‘woody’ hard uterus
  • foetal distress
59
Q

Placenta praevia is a placenta that is wholly or partially implanted in the lower segment of the uterus. It affects 0.5% of pregnancies at term.

What are the features of placenta praevia and what should be avoided?

A
  • typically causes painless bright red vaginal bleeding
  • blood on toes (usually indicates significant blood loss)
  • severe bleeds ⇒ hypovolaemic shock
  • foetus relatively unaffected unless massive haemorrhage
  • women w/ placenta praevias who bleed often advised to remain inpatient until delivery
  • major placenta praevias: delivery by C-section @ 39wks (or before if significant bleed)
  • avoid internal examination until placental site has been determined - may precipitate heavier bleed in placenta praevia
60
Q

What is the general management of antepartum haemorrhage?

A
  • consideration of foetal wellbeing is secondary to maternal resuscitation
  • CTG may be appropriate
  • if baby is of viable gestation continous monitoring recommended once mother is stable
  • delivery to save mother’s life is also sometimes considered → emptying womb improves maternal condition