Antenatal care Flashcards

1
Q

Downs screening:

a) Test before 13 weeks
b) Test after 13 weeks
c) If risk > 1 in 150…?
d) Who should be offered?

A

a) Combined test: Nuchal translucency (see below) and two pregnancy hormones (PB: Papp-A and Beta-hCG)
b) Quadruple test (Beta-hCG, AFP, UE3 and inhibin-A)
c) Offer CVS (11 - 13 weeks) or amniocentesis (> 15 wk)
d) All women, with counsel about risk (increase with age)

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2
Q

Interpreting Downs screening results:

a) Hormones (which go up and which go down: mnemonic - two are raised BI down’s)
b) Nuchal translucency
c) Follow-up diagnostic tests

A

a) PAPP-A: produced by placental syncytiotrophoblasts; (reduced in Down’s)
Beta-hCG: produced by placental syncytiotrophoblasts; (raised in Down’s syndrome).
AFP: produced by fetal yolk sac and liver;
(reduced in Down’s syndrome)
uE3: produced by placenta and fetal adrenals;
(reduced levels in Down’s syndrome).
Inhibin-A: produced by placenta;
(raised in Down’s syndrome)

b) Increased nuchal translucency (size of the nuchal pad at nape of the neck - ?oedema) reflects fetal heart failure; it is typically seen in any serious anomaly of the heart and great arteries and strongly associated with a chromosomal abnormality
c) CVS if less than 13 weeks of gestation or amniocentesis if beyond 15 weeks of gestation

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3
Q

CVS and amniocentesis:

a) risks
b) what should be given before (if indicated)
c) Conditions it can diagnose

A

a) Miscarriage, Discomfort, Sepsi, Amnionitis, Amniotic fluid leakage
b) Anti-D Ig
c) Trisomies (13, 18, 21), Sex chromosome abnormalities (Turners, Klinefelters, etc.)

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4
Q

Pre-eclampsia.

a) define
b) pathogenesis

A

a) - Pregnancy-induced HYPERTENSION (>140/90) with onset after 20 weeks of gestation and PROTEINURIA
b) Spiral arteries become fibrous, reducing foetal blood flow, leading to inflammation

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5
Q

Severe pre-eclampsia:

a) BP level
b) Or what symptoms/signs?
c) Or what biochemical results?
d) Or what foetal features?

A

a) BP > 160/110
b) Symptoms: HEADACHE, EPIGASTRIC PAIN, sudden swelling of face, hands and feet, RUQ tenderness, visual disturbance (e.g, blurring or flashing lights in front of the eyes) and vomiting. Signs: clonus, papilloedema
c) Low platelets, raised liver enzymes
d) IUGR, distress (reduced movements)

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6
Q

Pre-eclampsia: risk factors

a) Patient details
b) Obstetric
c) Pre-existing comorbidities
d) Who should be screened?

A

a) Age > 40, BMI > 35
b) 1st pregnancy, 10 years or more since the last pregnancy. Family history of pre-eclampsia (in mother or sister). Multiple pregnancy
c) HTN, DM, CKD, SLE
d) Screen anyone with RFs and all nulliparous women at 24 weeks

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7
Q

Pre-eclampsia: complications

  • DRCOG
  • others?
A
D	Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) leading to HELLP
R	Renal failure
C	Cerebral haemorrhage
O	Oligohydramnios
G	Growth retardation (IUGR)

Eclampsia

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8
Q

Pre-eclampsia: investigations

a) Initial bedside
b) Bloods
c) Special tests
d) If neurological symptoms

A

a) BP and proteinuria measurement, fundoscopy, neurological examination
b) LFTs, clotting screen, FBC
c) Foetal USS, CTG, arterial Doppler
d) Fundoscopy, CT head

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9
Q

Pre-eclampsia: management

a) All patients with suspected pre-eclampsia should be…?
b) Pregnancy management including tests
c) Ask about what 2 symptoms at every recording of BP ?
d) Treat above what level? 1st line? 2nd line?
e) If risk of seizures - prophylaxis
f) Prevention in at-risk patients from 12 weeks gestation
g) Delivery of baby when?

A

a) Admitted for assessment
b) Obstetrician led care; FBC, UEs, creatinine, LFTs, clotting
c) Headache, epigastric pain
d) 150/100 - labetalol, 2nd line: methyldopa, nifedipine
e) MgSO4
f) Aspirin
g) Between 34 and 36 weeks

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10
Q

Management of eclampsia

a) Initial
b) Control of seizures
c) Once seizures are controlled, severe hypertension treated and hypoxia corrected…?
d) Woman still at risk of seizures for how long?

A
a) A-E (airway, oxygen, intubation, ventilation, etc.), 
Lie mother in left lateral position
Reduce BP (IV labetalol)

b) MgSO4
c) Deliver foetus (definitive treatment)
d) 6 weeks

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11
Q

GDM: risk factors

A
  • BMI >30.
  • Previous gestational diabetes.
  • Previous baby with a weight ≥4.5 kg.
  • First-degree relative with diabetes.
  • Afro-Caribbean/ South Asian /Middle Eastern origin.
  • Glycosuria 2+ on one occasion or 1+ on two occasions during routine antenatal care
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12
Q

GDM: screening

a) Who?
b) When?
c) How?

A

a) Anyone with risk factors
b) At 24-28 weeks
c) OGTT (7.8 or above at 2h post- 75g glucose)

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13
Q

GDM: antenatal management

a) Additional antenatal monitoring
b) If fasting glucose < 7, first line? Second line?
c) If fasting glucose > 7 or complications (e.g. macrosomia) - ?
d) If metformin/insulin not tolerated/contraindicated - ?

A

a) Glucose monitoring, USS at 28, 32 and 36 weeks to assess foetal growth and amniotic fluid volume
b) Lifestyle - weight loss (‘weight neutral pregnancy’), diet, exercise. If this fails (1 - 2 weeks), offer metformin
c) Insulin
d) Glibenclamide

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14
Q

GDM: intrapartum care

a) If preterm labour occurs…?
b) Delivery
c) If patient carries to 40+6…?

A

a) Offer maternal corticosteroids and tocolysis (e.g. terbutaline)
b) Can deliver PV but need to know the risks (especially if macrosomic)
c) Offer induction (do not let them carry past 40+6 !)

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15
Q

GDM: complications

a) Foetal
b) Maternal

A

a) Foetal - LGA, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, neonatal hypoglycaemia. Later: obesity, intellectual impairment
b) Maternal - pre-eclampsia, birth trauma (e.g. perineal tear, complications of CS)

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16
Q

CS:

a) Elective indications
b) Emergency indications
c) Categories
d) Risks/complications

A

a) Multiple pregnancy, macrosomia/CPD, placenta praevia, malpresentation, maternal infection, SGA/IUGR, preterm birth
b) Maternal compromise, foetal distress, cord prolapse, failure to progress

c) Categories of CS:
- Cat 1 (immediate risk to life: within 30 mins),
- Cat 2 (maternal/foetal compromise but not immediate risk to life: within 75 mins)
- Cat 3 (no compromise but early delivery recommended)
- Cat 4 (planned CS)

d) Infection, longer hospital stay, neonatal ICU higher, scarring and future placenta accreta

17
Q

Routine antenatal care:

a) advice at booking
b) discuss by 36 weeks
c) scans

A

a) Smoking, alcohol, teratogens (including OTC meds), diet, folic acid, exercise, antenatal classes, schedule (scans, bloods, etc.), Downs screening, maternal rights (e.g. paid leave)
b) Breastfeeding, birth plan, baby blues, baby screening (heel prick) and vitamin K supplement

c) - Dating/Downs screen (week 10 - 13),
- Anomaly scan (20 weeks)

18
Q

Antenatal care: lifestyle advice

a) Dangers of what 2 diseases from diet
b) Dietary contraindications
c) Supplements
d) Other lifestyle risks

A

a) Listeriosis, toxoplasmosis
b) Raw eggs, unpasteurised milk or cheese, uncooked meat, swordfish/shark, unwashed fruit & veg, pate, raw shellfish
c) Folic acid (while trying to conceive and up to 12 weeks gestation), vitamin D (if dark-skinned, housebound, pre-eclampsia, BMI >30), iron (if anaemic)
d) Alcohol (FAS), smoking (IUGR, miscarriage, preterm birth, pre-eclampsia), recreational drugs

19
Q

Antenatal care: symptom management

a) Nausea and vomiting - conservative? Medical?
b) Heartburn
c) Constipation

A

a) Should resolve by 12 - 20 weeks, take small and frequent meals low in fat and high in carbs. If unresponsive, take cyclizine
b) Gaviscon
c) High fibre diet and plenty of fluids

20
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum:

a) vs. morning sickness (4 differences)
b) Risk factors
c) Presentation: what weeks?
d) DDx (lots!) - GI, neuro, infectious, drugs, metabolic, etc., other pregnancy associated
e) Ix - if HG suspected? To exclude serious DDx?
f) Management - general + 3 drugs
g) Complications - maternal? foetal?

A

a) Persistent and severe vomiting leading to fluid and electrolyte disturbance, marked ketonuria, nutritional deficiency and weight loss
b) First pregnancy, multiple pregnancy, molar pregnancy, previous HG
c) From around 4-6 weeks till around 16 weeks (if onset after first trimester, unlikely to be HG - look for alternative diagnosis!)
d) Pregnancy associated: molar pregnancy, pre-eclampsia
e) UEs, creatinine, urinalysis (ketones, infection), beta-hCG and USS if worried about molar pregnancy. Blood gas if worried about acidosis, frequent monitoring of fluid and electrolytes.

f) ABC, especially IV fluid (NaCl) and electrolyte (K+) replacement and nutritional support if necessary.
Also, give: thiamine, antiemetic (cyclizine), VTE

g) Maternal - dehydration, hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, ketoacidosis, thiamine deficiency, Mallory-Weiss tear.
Foetal - SGA, preterm birth

21
Q

Antenatal appointments:

a) Number (nullip vs multip)
b) At all appointments, check …?
c) Screening tests at booking appointment (8-12 weeks), and offer what other test?
d) Rh negative women - treatment at what dates? When else may you offer anti-D?
e) If at 36 weeks, baby is breech - offer what?
f) From 28 weeks, all appointments should involve…?
g) What vaccination is offered at 28 - 32 weeks?

A

a) 10 (nulli), 7 (multi)
b) BP, urinalysis (protein especially)
c) Anaemia, HIV, syphilis, Hep B, GDM (if risk factors), SCD/thalassaemia (if risk factors), Down’s prenatal
d) 28 and 36 weeks: anti-D prophylactic injection. Also offered for amniocentesis, if any bleeding or abdominal injury, and 72h post-partum if baby is Rh positive
e) ECV
f) Symphysis-fundal height (SFH) measurement
g) Pertussis

22
Q

GDM: define

A

Diabetes (fasting >5.6 or 2-hour post OGTT >7.8) with onset in pregnancy and resolution post-delivery