Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum

A
  • Intractable nausea + vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Electrolyte disturbance (low sodium and sometimes low potassium)
  • Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic acidosis.
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2
Q

Identify the key elements in the treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum

A
  • slow IV hydration (start off with normal Saline) - pregnancy is a thymine-deficient state
  • Correct electrolyte disturbance - thymine, sodium, potassium
  • Anti-emetic
    B6 and doxylamine - work together to combat nausea and vomiting
    other anti-emetic drugs
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3
Q

List the anti-emetic medications used in hyperemesis gravidarum and recognize the adverse effects of these medications

A

Odansteron - prevent nausea and vomiting, side effect - constipation

Metoclopramide - adr: extrapyramidal movements (anxious feeling, weird uncontrolled movements) - Benadryl given to reverse side effects.

Phenegron

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4
Q

Name the screening tests for Down syndrome

A
  • Free fetal DNA
  • Integrated, sequential, and contingency screening
  • Quad screening - 15wks + 22 wks + 6 days
    (mom’s blood is drawn to check foe hCG, estradiol, inhibin A, alpha fetoprotein)
  • 81%
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5
Q

Compare the timing, advantages, and disadvantages of the screening tests

A

Free fetal DNA - 99% accuracy
- 10 wks #- test mom’s blood -> baby’s DNA in moms blood -> karyotype

Integrated, Sequential, and contingency screening - 96% accuracy
- 11 wks - 13wks+6 days
- US to check fetal nuchal translucency (measure the skin fold behind the baby’s neck) + do maternal hormone blood work to check hCG + PAPPA

INTEGRATED
- take results from 1st-trimester test (nuchal translucency and blood work) and blood work from 2nd trimester (quad screening) - integrate them together to give picture of whether the baby is at risk for Down Syndrome
- Don’t get results till 2nd trimester

SEQUENTIAL
- take 1st trimester results
take 2nd-trimester result s
- overall result

CONTINGENCY
- 1st trimester results - if risk is low then don’t perform 2nd trimester tests

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6
Q

List the invasive testing techniques used to confirm the diagnosis of Down syndrome

A

If screening tests are abnormal - perform invasive testing

  • Chorionic villi Sampling
  • Aminocentesis
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7
Q

Compare the timing and potential complications of amniocentesis and chorionic sampling villi

A

CHORIONIC VILLI SAMPLING
- 10-14 wks
- needle inserted into the mom’s belly and a sample of chorionic villi is taken
- Karyotype performed
- Can be performed in early gestation
Risk: loss of pregnancy

AMNIOCENTESIS
- 15 wks
- Needle inserted and a sample of amniotic fluid is drawn.
- Karyotype performed
- Risk: bleeding, fetal loss, placental rupture, infection

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8
Q

Recognize the purpose of antenatal testing

A
  • To ensure fetal well being
  • Make sure there is no fetal asphyxia
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9
Q

Identify the role of the non-stress test in the assessment of fetal well-being

A

Performed by doing external fetal heart rate monitoring
- Results: Reactive or Non-reactive
- Reactive - 2 accelerations of greater than 15 bpm lasting at least 15s over 20 min period.
- If positive, well being of fetus is assured.

  • Non-reactive:
  • need additional testing to assure well-being.
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10
Q

Recall the criteria for a reactive non-stress test

A

2 accelerations of greater than 15 bpm lasting at least 15s over a 20 min period.

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11
Q

List the components of the biophysical profile

A

1) Fetal movement - 3 gross movements in 30 mins
2) Fetal tone - fine movements of fingers, hands, closing and opening of palms
3) Fetal Breathing - sustained breathing for 30 s
4) Amniotic fluid volume - maximal vertical pocket - greater than 2 cm
5) Non-stress test

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12
Q

Describe how to assess fetal movement, tone, and breathing

A

1) Fetal movement - 3 gross movements in 30 mins
2) Fetal tone - fine movements of fingers, hands, closing and opening of palms
3) Fetal Breathing - sustained breathing for 30 s

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13
Q

Name the parameter used to determine the amniotic fluid volume

A

> 2cm maximal vertical pocket

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14
Q

Recall the management guidelines for biophysical profile testing

A

greater than or equal to 8 = doing well, no signs of asphyxia
6 = equivocal, if pregnancy is at term - delivery is warranted
less than or equal to 4 = concerning for asphyxia
BPP can be used when NST is non-reactive
A modified BPP is a NST + amniotic fluid volume

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15
Q

Describe the procedure of the contraction stress test and recall the interpretation of its results

A

Procedure - induce contractions (nipple stimulation or by giving Pitocin)
- Observe contractions over 10 min time frame

We do not want the test to be positive

+ test result = >50% of contractions are to do with late deceleration
Equivocal test results = there are late decelerations but < 50%
- test results = < 50% contractions are associated with late decelerations

Late deceleration is defined as a visually apparent, gradual decrease in the fetal heart rate typically following the uterine contraction. The gradual decrease is defined as, from onset to nadir taking 30 seconds or more.8

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16
Q

State the indications of umbilical artery doppler

A

If suspected fetal growth restriction
- As resistance in the placenta increases, the flow can be absent during diastole or reversed.

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17
Q

Recognize the abnormal findings of placental insufficiency on umbilical artery doppler

A
  • As resistance in the placenta increases, the flow can be absent during diastole or reversed.
18
Q

Identify the tests used in the initial evaluation of a pregnant woman with first trimester bleeding

A

1) Blood type and Rh factor of the mother
- If mom is Rh-, Rhogam must be given (no matter the cause of bleeding)

2) Quantitative bhCG
- Serum bhCG
- > 2000 mcg/dL = can see fetus in the uterus

3) US to document the location and viability of the pregnancy

4) CBC
- to ensure that mom is hemodynamically stable

19
Q

Differentiate between the types of abortion

A
  • Threatened
  • Incomplete
  • Inevitable
  • Missed
  • Complete/Spontaneous
20
Q

Describe the management of the different types of abortion

A
  • Threatened
  • Incomplete
  • Inevitable
  • Missed
  • Complete/Spontaneous
21
Q

When is it an abortion in the first trimester?

A

Bleeding in pregnancy prior to 20 weeks of gestation with a documented intrauterine pregnancy is a type of abortion

22
Q

Threatened abortion

A
  • Documented intrauterine pregnancy
  • Heavy vaginal bleeding
  • Products of conception remain in the uterus
  • Cervix is closed

MANAGEMENT:
- Expectant = may continue on as a normal pregnancy
- Medical care if vaginal bleeding continues or if thereis pelvic pain

23
Q

Incomplete abortion

A
  • Some products of conception are expelled
  • Some remain in the uterus
  • Bleeding

MANAGEMENT:
- Expectant management - wait for the body to naturally complete the process of expulsion of the products of conception
- Medical - give misoprostol to help expedite the process
- Surgical - D & C (especially if the mother is hemodynamically unstable)

24
Q

Inevitable abortion

A
  • Cervix is already dilated
  • Mom will lose the pregnancy

MANAGEMENT:
- expectant - wait for products to be expelled
- Medical - misoprostol
- Surgical - D&C (if hemodu=ynamically unstable)

25
Q

MIssed abortion

A
  • No bleeding
  • No symptoms of abortion
  • Diagnosis made at office, no fetal heart tones

MANAGEMENT
- Expectant - tell mom to come back in a week - products should be naturally expelled = monitor weekly or else if products remain, it can become a septic abortion
- Medical - Misoprostol
- Surgical - D&C

26
Q

Complete/spontaneous abortion

A
  • mom has passed all the products of conception

MANAGEMENT
- confirm with US
- perform serial b hCG - levels return to prepregnancy levels
< 5 mcg/dL

27
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of fetal hemolytic disease

A
  • Rh factor of mom and baby
  • Rh - mom and Rh + baby
  • Antigens on the baby’s blood cause an immune response and the mom’s blood creates antibodies against these antigens.
  • Sensitised mom has antibodies against the Rh + antigen
  • Subsequent pregnancies with Rh+ babies will be affected
28
Q

Identify the pregnancies affected by fetal hemolytic disease

A
  • Subsequent pregnancies
  • Sensitised mom from 1st pregnancy
  • antibodies attack Rh+ baby
29
Q

List the complications of fetal hemolytic disease

A
  • Hydrops fetalis
  • Hypoxia
  • Death of baby
30
Q

Identify the treatment for prevention of fetal hemolytic disease

A
  • Anti-D immunoglobin
    Rhogam

Given to mothers in their first pregnancy
- Administration of Anti-D
- Binds to Rh + antigens on circulating fetal RBCs in maternal blood
- Prevents the formation of antibodies in the mother’s blood

31
Q

Recall the indications for anti-D immunoglobulin

A

Given:
- 28 weeks gestation
- Bleeding at any stage during the pregnancy
- After birth, if baby is Rh +

32
Q

Identify the types of chorionicity

A

4 main types based on the day that the division takes place
- Type 1- 0-4 days - Dichroinic, diamniotic
- Type 2 - 4-8 days - Monochorionic, diamniotic
- Type 3 - 8-14 days - Monochorionic, monoamniotic
- Type 4 - > 14 days - conjoined twins

33
Q

Explain how the types of chorionicity are determined

A
  • Type 1- 0-4 days - Dichroinic, diamniotic
  • Type 2 - 4-8 days - Monochorionic, diamniotic
  • Type 3 - 8-14 days - Monochorionic, monoamniotic
  • Type 4 - > 14 days - conjoined twins
34
Q

Describe the ultrasound findings that help determine the chorionicity

A
  • Us in the first trimester
  • Three ultrasound findings can help in the detection of chorionicity: These are (1) the number of observable gestational sacs, (2) the number of amniotic sacs within the chorionic cavity, and (3) the number of yolk sacs
35
Q

List the complications associated with multifetal gestations

A
  • The complication arises with the number of multiples - twins, triplets etc.
    1) preterm labor
    2) Twin-twin transfusion (monochorionic, diamniotic)
  • Recipient twin (larger twin) gets more blood flow from the smaller twin (donor)
  • Recipient - Polyhydraminos -> increased cardiac output, maybe even cardiac failure
  • Donor- oligohydramnios -> growth restriction
    3) Fetal growth restriction (not enough room in the uterus)
    4) Hypertensive disorders
  • Gestational hypertension
  • Preeclampsia

Others: anemia, Gestational diabetes, postpartum hemorrhage and thromboembolism

36
Q

Describe the clinical features of twin-twin transfusion

A

Twin-twin transfusion (monochorionic, diamniotic)
- Recipient twin (larger twin) gets more blood flow from the smaller twin (donor)
- Recipient - Polyhydraminos -> increased cardiac output, maybe even cardiac failure
- Donor- oligohydramnios -> growth restriction

37
Q

Identify the screening test for gestational diabetes and recognize when it should be performed

A
38
Q

List the maternal and fetal complications associated with gestational diabetes

A
39
Q

Name the confirmatory test for gestational diabetes

A
40
Q

Recall the abnormal blood sugar values for the screening and confirmatory tests for gestational diabetes

A
41
Q

List the management options for gestational diabetes

A
42
Q

Describe the postpartum management of gestational diabetes

A