Ant-HTN Pharmacotherapeutics Flashcards

1
Q

Define the following terms:

  • Adrenergic
  • Antagonist
  • Agonist
  • Afterload
  • Preload
A
  • Relating to nerve cells in which epinephrine (adrenaline) or norepinephrine (noradrenaline) acts as a neurotransmitter
  • A drug that blocks or reduces the effect of a neurotransmitter.
  • A drug that combines with the receptor to mimic or enhance the effect of a neurotransmitter.
  • The tension or stress developed in the wall of the LVduring ejection (pressure the LV must overcome to eject blood)
  • The initial stretching of the myocardium prior to contraction
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2
Q

More definitions:
-End Diastolic Volume (EDV) “preload” (not really preload, but terms are used interchangeably)

  • End Systolic Volume (ESV)
  • End Diastolic Pressure (EDP)
  • End Systolic Pressure (ESP)
A
  • The volume of blood in the RV or LV at the end of diastole. An increase in EDV increases preload on the heart and (through the Frank-Starling mechanism) increases the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle during systole (SV)
  • The volume of blood in the V at the end of contraction and the beginning of diastole. It is the lowest volume of blood in the V at any point during the cardiac cycle. The main factors that affect ESB are afterload and contractility of the heart
  • The pressure in the ventricles at the end of diastole; an approximation of EDV (preload) or systole
  • The pressure in the ventricles at the end of systole
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3
Q

More definitions:

  • Ionotropy
  • Lusitropy
  • Chronotropy
  • Dromotrope
  • Bathmotropy
  • What are compelling indications?
A

-Contractility
-Relaxation
-Rate
-Conduction
-Excitability/irritability
(Positives agents increase, negative agents decrease)
-Things that compel the use of certain types of drugs to treat HTN due to comorbidities (e.g. someone with HTN and DM, the DM will dictate to some extent which drugs can be used to treat the HTN)

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4
Q
  • What are some potential factors that can effect BP and lead to HTN?
  • What are the 5 lifestyle modifications recommended by the JNC 7 for reducing BP?
A

-Diet (Na, K, maybe Vit D), age, sedentary lifestyle, race, family history, tobacco use, stress, chronic conditions, obesity, alcohol
-Reducing sodium intake
Increasing exercise
Moderating alcohol consumption
Following DASH diet eating plan
Losing weight

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5
Q
  • What are the DHP CCBs?
  • Which DHP CCB is IV only?
  • What are the non-DHP CCBs?
A
-The -dipines!!
 Amlodipine
 Felodipine
 Nicardipine
 Nifedipine
-Clevidipine (IV only)
-Memorize these ones!!!
 Diltiazem
 Verapamil
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6
Q
  • DHP CCBs are selective for which tissue?
  • When you think DHPs, what else should you think?
  • Non-DHP CCBs are selective for which tissue?
A
  • Arteriolar beds (vascular channels)
  • Vasodilation!!
  • AV node (cardiac channels)
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7
Q
  • What is the MOA of Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?
  • What is the significance about the fact that DHPs do NOT work on VENOUS smooth muscle?
A
  • Block calcium ion influx into VASCULAR smooth muscle; they are potent vasodilators
  • There is no significant reduction in preload
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8
Q
  • What are the indications for DHP CCBs?
  • What are the contraindications?
  • What are the side effects of DHP CCbs?
  • Why do they cause dizziness?
  • Headache?
  • Why are patients often taken off of DHPs?
  • What is reflex tachycardia?
A
  • HTN, Prinzmetal (vasospastic) angina, prevention of cerebral artery spasm after brain hemorrhage, Raynaud’s sydrome, migraine HA prophylaxis
  • Pregnancy cat. C, conditions in which tachycardia is harmful (CAD, aortic stenosis, mitral stenosis
  • Vasodilation-related symptoms: flushing, HA, dizziness, REFLEX TACHYCARDIA, peripheral edema
  • Decrease BP leads to decreased cerebral perfusion which causes the dizziness
  • Cerebral vasodilation
  • Because of the peripheral edema
  • The CV system compensates for decreased BP by increasing CO, primarily by increasing HR and contractility via SNS stimulation
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9
Q

-What is the MOA of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?

A
  • They block calcium influx into the myocardium with minimal vascular effects
  • They are negative inotropes, dromotropes, and chronotropes
  • By slowing down the conduction of electrical activity in the AV node, they decrease HR which leads to increased diastolic filling time and increased myocardial O2 supply which decreases the demand and workload of the heart
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10
Q
  • What are the indications for non-DHP CCBs?
  • Contraindications?
  • Side effects?
A
  • Stable angina (in combo with BB), tachycardias, HTN (diltiazem)
  • Hypotension, acute CHF/cardiomyopathy, heart blocks, sick sinus syndrome, Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
  • Bradychardia/heart block (from SA and AV node suppression), HF and hypotension (from reduced contractility), constipation (especially with verapamil in the elderly)
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11
Q

-What is Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A

In WPW, transport of electricity goes through an accessory pathway called the Bundle of Kent rather than through the AV node. It is not blocked by CCB, but the AV node is. So, the use of CCB promote conduction through the accessory pathway, and because it does not have a conduction delay (like the AV node), heart rates can reach very high rates

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12
Q
  • Which population are CCBs especially effective in?
  • When are they preferred over BB and ACEI?
  • Why should you use caution when combining non-DHPs with BB?
  • What type of interaction deo CCBs have with simvastatin?
  • Where are CCBs metabolized?
  • How does grapefruit juice effect bioavailability?
  • Which DHP CCB has a 40 hour half life which helps to mitigate the reflex tachy commonly seen with CCBs?
A
  • Blacks
  • In the elderly
  • There is potential for depressing AV conduction and sinus node automaticity as well as contractility
  • Combo can lead increase blood levels of simvastatin which increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis
  • Liver, CYP450
  • Increases it
  • Amlodipine
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13
Q
  • What is the MOA of peripheral vasodilators?
  • Indications?
  • Contraindications?
  • Side effects?
A
  • They relax vascular smooth muscle, which decreases PVR and afterload which leads to peripheral vasodilation
  • Resistant HTN! Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP)??, alopecia (hair loss)
  • Conditions in which tachycardia is harmful (CAD, aortic/mitral stenosis)
  • Hypotension; can stimulate reflex tachy, increase myocardial contractility, cause HA, palpitations and fluid retention if given alone (give with BBs); also Vasodilation-related symptoms: flushing, dizziness, HA, reflex tachycardia, peripheral edema
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14
Q
  • What are the three drugs we learned about that are peripheral vasodilators?
  • What is a potential side effect specific to Hydralazine?
  • Why should you use Minoxidil with a loop diuretic?
  • What is the potential side effect specific to Sodium nitroprusside?
A
  • Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Sodium notroprusside
  • Immunologic effect (lupus-like syndrome), GI disturbances
  • Because it can cause marked fluid retention and pericardial effusion which can lead to tamponade (BLACK BOX WARNING) Also can cause hirsutism
  • Cyanide poisoning
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15
Q
  • What is the suffix used with Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACE-I)?
  • What are a few of these drugs?
  • What is their MOA?
  • How are they cardio protective?
  • How are they renal protective?
A
  • (-pril)
  • Lisinopril, enalapril, captopril, ramipril, benazepril etc…
  • Inhibition of RAAS decreases the amount of angiotensin II (strong vasoconstrictor) in the blood, and increases the amount of bradykinin (potent vasodilator)
  • Slow progression of LVH after an MI, reduce incidence of a 2nd MI, reduce CV complications in patients with risk factors
  • Reduce intraglomerular pressure through relaxation of the efferent ateriole and overall reduction in BP
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16
Q
  • What are the indications for -prils?

- Contraindications?

A
  • HTN, post MI CAD, CHF (drug of choice for combined CHF and HTN, and HF if EF <45 even without HTN), DM (with or without HTN due to real protection
  • Pregnancy D (black box: teratogenic during 2nd and 3rd trimesters), acute renal dysfunction, bilateral renal stenosis (ok in unilateral)
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17
Q

-What kinds of side effets do -prils have?

A

-Dry “annoying” cough from increased bradykinin occurs in 5-20% of patients is not dose related and occurs more in women than men; hypotension, hyperkalemia, acute renal failure, angioedema

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18
Q
  • What is angioedema?

- How high must the dose be in order for this to occur?

A
  • Angioedema is associated with a deficiency of C1 esterase, the enzyme that cleaves bradykinin. Bradykinin is a potent vasodilator that increases permeability and allows the accumulation of fluid within the interstitial space. ACE is one of the main ways that bradykinin is degraded. When ACE is inhibited, bradykinin can’t be broken down and ends up with a run-away amount and subsequent swelling.
  • Dose does not matter, and it occurs within one week of beginning therapy
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19
Q
  • ACE inhibitors are increasingly used as the DOC for which type of HTN?
  • Which population are these meds more effective in?
  • Which populations are these less effective in?
  • What are the benefits of combining an ACE and an ARB?
  • Why must you consider renal dosing in patients with renal impairment?
A
  • Mild to moderat
  • Younger white patients
  • Blacks, elderly and patients with predominantly systolic HTN
  • There are none
  • Most -prils are cleared by the kidneys
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20
Q
  • Which suffix is used with Angiotensin II receptor blockers?
  • What is their MOA?
A
  • (-artan)
  • Block the angiotensin II receptors on cells which inhibits vasoconstriction; they do not interfere with bradykinin metabolism so patients don’t get the dry cough
21
Q
  • What are the indications for -artans?

- Contraindications?

A
  • HTN, chronic CHF, renal insufficiency, DM, patients who require but can’t take an ACEI
  • Pregnancy D (Black box warning!!), patients who have experienced angioedema with ACEI (why??), acute renal failure
  • Usually well tolerated, dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia when combined with potassium supplements or potassium sparing diuretics, renal failure
22
Q
  • What is the downfall of renin inhibitors?
  • Which drugs are found in this class?
  • MOA?
  • What is the half life?
  • What type of diets inhibits the absorption of renin inhibitors?
  • Indications?
  • Contraindications?
  • Side effects?
A
  • EXTREMELY expensive
  • Aliskiren and Aliskiren/HCTZ
  • Directly inhibit renin, thus providing the most efficient inactivation of the RAA system
  • 40 hrs
  • High fat diets
  • HTN
  • Pregnancy C, combo therapy with ACEI and ARBs in patients with DM due to reis of worsening renal impairment, hypotension and hyperkalemia
  • Diarrhea, hypotension, hyperkalemia, angioedema
23
Q
  • What is the suffix used with beta blockers?
  • Name the nonselective beta blockers?
  • Name the cardioselective beta blockers?
  • What happens with cardioselective BBs at high doses?
  • Which non-selective BBs act on both alpha and beta receptors?
A
  • (-olol, -lol)
    -Carvedilol
    Labetalol
    Nadolol
    Pindolol (ISA)
    Propranolol
    Sotalol
-Acebutolol (ISA)
 Atenolol
 Bisoprolol
 Esmolol
 Metoprolol
  • They become non-selective
  • Carvedilol and labetalol
24
Q
  • Where are Beta 1 receptors located and what are their normal effects (before medication)?
  • Beta 2?
  • Beta 3?
A
  • Heart (+chronotropic, +inotropic, +dromotropic effects), kidneys (renin release to conserve water), fat cells (release fat for energy via lipolysis)
  • Lungs (bronchodilation), blood vessels in muscles (vasodilation), uterus (uterine relaxation), GI (relaxation), bladder (relaxation), liver (liberate glucose via glycogenolysis)
  • Lipolysis

Beta blocking (beta adrenergic antagonists) have the opposite effect!

25
Q
  • What is the MOA of beta adrenergic antagonists on the heart?
  • Kidneys?
  • Why would it be a good idea to combine BBs with peripheral vasodilators and dihydropyridines?
A
  • Block beta receptor sites and decrease myocardial O2 demand and increase O2 supply (negative inotropic, chronotropic and dromotropic effects)
  • Decrease renin release which leads to vasodilation
  • BBs will neutralize the reflex tachycardia caused by those drugs
26
Q
  • What are beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)?
  • What is this activity dependent on?
  • When are these agents useful?
  • Why are these agents not recommended?
A
  • BBs that show both agonism and antagonism at a given beta receptor
  • The concentration of the drug and the concentration of the antagonized agent (i.e. norepi)
  • In patients exhibiting excessive bradycardia with sustained BB therapy
  • They have not been shown to be beneficial post-MI, and may be less effective in the management of angina and tachyarrhythmias
27
Q

-What are the cardiac indications for BBs?

A

-HTN (not first line without compelling indications
Angina: antianginal effects from negative chronotropic and inotropic effects which decrease cardiac workload and O2 demand
-Myocardial ischemia and Infarct/post MI: not BB with ISA
-Stable HF
-Tachyarrhythmias: effects from blockad of SNS (sinus node, AV node, prolonged atrial refratory periods)
-Mitral valve prolapse

28
Q

-What are the non-cardiac indications for -olols?

A
  • Glaucoma
  • Prevention of variceal bleeding in portal HTN
  • Migraine prophylaxis (propranolol)
  • Somatic manifestations of anxiety (propranolol, atenolol
  • Essential tremor
29
Q

-What are the contraindications for beta adrenergic antagonists?

A
  • Obstructive lung disease (asthma/COPD): stimulation of B2 receptors causes bronchodilation so blocking B2 receptors can lead to bronchoconstriction
  • 2nd degree heart block: BBs can cause conversion to 3rd degree heart block
  • Pregnancy: category C and D
  • Bradycardia: BBs can make an already slow HR so slow that CO and BP fall below levels required for perfusion
  • Cocaine abuse: cocaine affects both alpha and beta receptors, by giving a BB the effects of alpha blockade on the heart may become uopposed
  • Acute/uncompensated HF:
30
Q

-Side effects of BBs?

A
  • Bronchospasm
  • Bradycardia or heart block: from SN dysfunction and AV conduction depression
  • Hypotension
  • CNS symptoms: nightmares, excitement, depression, confusion
  • Fatigue/lethargy
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Adverse effects on lipid and glucose metabolism: except carvedilol and nebivolol, use BBs with caution in patients with DM and hyperlipidemia
  • Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
31
Q

-What is the black box warning associated with BBs?

A

-DO NOT stop abruptly. Taper over two weeks to prevent acute coronary events and severe increases in BP.

32
Q

-What is the MOA of alpha1 (peripheral) blockers?

A

-Block peripheral alpha1 adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle to inhibit norepinephrine which leads to vasodilation (venous and arterial) which decreases PVR and BP; also block a1 adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle of the urinary sphincter with leads to relaxation and reduced bladder outlet obstruction which leads to improved urine flow

33
Q

-What is the MOA of centrally acting alpha2 blockers?

A

-Work in the brain (agonist) to stimulate a2 adrenergic receptors in the CNS, stopping the signals that increase HR and narrow blood vessels

34
Q
  • What are the indications for alpha1 blockers?
  • Alpha2 blockers?
  • Contraindications?
  • Which alpha2 blocker is the DOC in pregnancy?
  • Which alpha2 blocker is indicated for hypertensive urgency and resistant HTN?
A
  • HTN (not first line without compelling indications), BPH, PTSD/GAD
  • HTN (not 1st line d/t high frequency of side effects), sedation in peds, glaucoma, dysmenorrhea, ADHD, Menopausal flushing
  • Methydopa
  • Clonidine
35
Q

What are the side effects of alpha blockers?

A
  • 1st dose phenomenon (sudden and severe drop in BP that can occur when changing from lying down to standing up)
  • Rebound HTN
  • Dizziness, palpitations, HA, weakness, drowsiness/fatigue, sexual dysfunction, anticholinergic effects, urinary incontinence
36
Q

-What side effects can Methyldopa have?

A

-Causes hepatitis and hemolytic anemia. Avoid except in pregnancy and in patients who have already tolerated long-term therapy

37
Q

-What side effects can doxazosin have?

A

-Shown to significantly increase HF, hospitalizations and higher incidence of stroke (ALLHAT study). Do not use as singular therapy or dual tx of BPH and HTN.

38
Q

-What are the three types of diuretics?

A

-Thiazide, Loop and potassium sparing

39
Q
  • Where do thiazide diuretics work?

- What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A
  • Early distal convoluted tubule
  • Block the chloride pump, inhibiting the active pumping of chloride out of the tubule and the associated passive movement of sodium back into circulation; in long-term therapy their major hemodynamic effect is reduction of PVR which leads to vasodilation (this is independent of their diuretic action)
40
Q
  • Where do loop diuretics work?

- What is their MOA?

A
  • Thick ascending loop of Henle

- Block chloride pump, inhibiting sodium reabsorption, thought to act as vasodilators too

41
Q
  • Where do potassium sparing diuretics work?

- MOA?

A
  • Distal convoluted tubule
  • Aldosterone receptor antagonists; when given with thiazides they counteract the increase in blood glucose and uric acid levels associated with thiazides; useful in those at risk for hypokalemia
42
Q

-What is the MOA of Aldosterone blockers?

A

-Block the action of aldosterone in sodium reabsorption, causing sodium and fluid excretion

43
Q
  • Name the thiazide diuretic?
  • Name the loop diuretics?
  • Name the potassium sparing diuretic?
  • Name the aldosterone blockers?
A
  • Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
  • Furosemide, torseide, bemetanide
  • Spironolactone
  • Eplernone, triameterene
44
Q
  • Which diuretic is firstline for HTN?
  • For HF?
  • For edema?
A
  • Thizides
  • Loops, and spirinolactone
  • Loops
45
Q

-What are the contraindications for diuretics?

A
  • Known electrolyte imbalances
  • Use cautiously in anyone with renal dysfunction
  • Use caution in DM and hyperlipidemia
  • Use caution in patients with liver disease, which may interfere with drug metabolism and lead to toxicity.
  • The elderly may be more susceptible to the side-effects, and lower doses are advised initially.
  • Thiazides and loops cross the placenta and are not recommended in pregnancy unless benefits to the mother outweigh the potential effects on the fetus.
46
Q
  • What are the general side effects of diuretics?
  • What side effects are specific to thiazide diuretics?
  • Loop diuretics?
  • Spironolactone?
A
  • Hyperlipidemia, dizziness, increased thirst, muscle cramps, HA, menstrual irregularities, hyperuricemia and gout
  • Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia
  • Increased urination, hypokalemia
  • Hyperkalemia, impotence, gynecomastia
47
Q

-What should the initial HTN therapy in a black patient be?

A

-Diuretic, or diuretic-CCB combo

48
Q
  • What are -olols?
  • What are -dipines?
  • What are -zosins?
  • What are sartans?
  • What are -prils?
A
  • Beta adrenergic antagonists (beta blockers)
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Alpha1 blockers
  • Angiotensin II receptor blockers
  • Agiotensin I converting enzyme inhibitors
49
Q

What are the initial therapy options for HTN with the following compelling indications?

  • HTN+HF?
  • HTN+post MI?
  • HTN+high CAD risk?
  • HTN+DM?
  • HTN+CKD?
  • HTN+recurrent stroke prevention?
A
  • D, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist
  • BB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist
  • D, BB, ACEI, CCB
  • C, BB, ACEI, ARB, CCB
  • ACEI, ARB
  • D, ACEI