ANS Flashcards
1
Q
Benzos are ______ agonists.
A
GABA A
2
Q
Which benzo acts more as an anticonvulsant than anything?
A
Clonazepam
3
Q
Long acting benzos like diazepam and chlordiazepoxide are converted to a long–lasting active metabolite _____________
A
Nordiazepam
4
Q
Similar drug to benzos used as a hypnotic?
A
Ambien (Zolpidem)
5
Q
Experimental benzo with an ester linkage that allows for rapid metabolism to inactive metabolites, administered as a continuous infusion, and has a short duration for induction?
A
Remimazolam
6
Q
How many benzo antagonists are there?
A
1
7
Q
Flumazenil is a ____ antagonist
A
Competitive
8
Q
Flumazenil doses? Max ose?
A
0.2mg
1mg
9
Q
DOA for flumazenil?
A
45–90 minutes
10
Q
Which alpha 2 receptor is associated with N2O, HTN, and Placenta angiogenesis?
A
Alpha 2B
11
Q
____ is more alpha 2 selective than clonidine and has 2:1 specificity of 1600:1
A
Dex
12
Q
Alpha 2 activation _________ calcium channels and __________ potassium channels.
A
Inhibits
Activates
13
Q
Alpha 2 causes exocytosis of __________
A
Protein
14
Q
The inhibitory effects of the alpha 2 receptor is due to ____________ of the cell.
A
Hyperpolarization
15
Q
Dex works in the Pontine Noradrenergic Nucleus, AKA the :
A
Locus Coeruleus
16
Q
What class of alpha 2 blocker are clonidine, dex, and mivazerol?
A
Imidazolines
17
Q
What class of alpha 2 blocker are methyldopa and guanabenz?
A
Phenylethylates
18
Q
What class of drugs are oxaloazepines?
A
Alpha 2 agonists
19
Q
Dex loading dose
A
1mcg/kg
20
Q
Dex binds to these 2 proteins
A
Albumin
Alpha 1 Acid
21
Q
How is dex sedation different than other GABA agonists?
A
Resembles sleep
22
Q
True or false: Dex is a good choice for neuro monitoring, awake craniotomy, deep brain stimulator with remi?
A
TRUE
23
Q
What effect does dex have on temp?
A
Hypothermia
24
Q
Main side effects of dex (2)
A
Hypotension and Bradycardia
25
Transient ______ has been seen with loading doses of dex
Hypertension
26
Transient hypertension has been seen when using ____ to treat dex related bradycardia
Hypertension
27
True or False: Dex as an antianginal effect
TRUE
28
What is the asher phenomenon?
Oculocardiac reflex
29
Bainbridge decreases and increases which 2 hormones?
Decrease ADH
Increase ANP
30
The vasomotor becomes ischemic when MAP is less than _______
50mmHg
31
The chemoreceptors in the medulla detect _______
Increased PaCO2
32
The peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries and aortic arch detect _________
Decreased PaO2
33
Secretion of _____ can increase 5–10 fold under severe stress (surgery, trauma, infection
Cortisol
34
```
IV hydrocortisone should be considered if persons underwent:
____mg Prednisone
____mg Methylprednisolone
____mg Hydrocortisone
____mg Dexamethasone
```
For ____ weeks within the last _____.
20
16
80
3
3
Last year
35
Stress dose steroids for superficial surgery?
None
36
Stress dose steroids for minor surgery?
25mg Hydrocortisone before induction
37
Hydrocortisone dose for moderate surgery (TAH, resection, total joint)?
50–75mg
| Taper for 1–2 days
38
Hydrocortisone dose for major surgery (cardiac, thoracic, liver)?
100–150mg
| Taper over 1–2 days
39
What do neuroectodermal cells become?
Adrenal Medulla
40
Paraganglia _____ cells cluster outside of the adrenal medulla on either side of the aorta.
Chromaffin
41
The largest paraganglia of chromaffin cells which is the major source of catecholamines during 1st year of life?
Organ of Zuckerkandl
42
True or false: Preganglionic cholinergic fibers bypass the paravertebral ganglia on their way to the adrenal medulla
TRUE
43
Phenylethanolamine–N–methyltransferase activity is _____ by glucocorticoids causing ______ conversion of Epi to NE?
Increased
Increased
44
What does COMT convert epi to?
Metanephrine
45
What does COMT convert NE to?
Normetanephrine
46
What converts metanephrine and normetanephrine to VMA?
Monoamine Oxidation
47
Dopamine is metabolized by MAO and COMT into _________
Homovanillic Acid (HVA)
48
PCC primarily secretes this catecholamine
NE
49
True or false: SNS neural stimulation stimulates hormone release
False (they're denervated)
50
What is the rule of ten for PCC?
10% are bilateral
10% are extra–adrenal
10% are malignant
51
Extra–adrenal metastatic PCCs metastasize through venous and lymphatic channels to the ____
Liver
52
Fractionated Epi, NE, Dopamine, Metanephrine, normetanephrine, or VMA in the urine diagnose _____?
PCC
53
Von Hippel–Lindau, MEN 2A/2B, Neurofibromatosis, familial paraganglioma syndrome are linked to _____
PCC
54
MEN Type 2A/2B PCC are unique in that 50% of them are ______ dominant.
Epi
55
Most common age for PCC
30–50 (men and women equal
56
PCC triad?
Diaphoresis
Tachycardia
HA
57
Spontaneous or triggered by abdominal palpation, exercise, change in posture, lifting, defecation, increased abdominal P, (micturition if PCC is in bladder) suddent increase in HTN related to PCC?
Catecholamine–Mediated Paroxysm (PCC spell)
58
Due to PCC NE predominance, PCC spells are mostly ______ agonism.
Alpha
59
Most common symptom of PCC spell
HTN
60
What two things decrease mortality rate in pre–op PCC treatment?
Antihypertensives
| Volume resuscitation
61
Noneselective alpha blocker?
Phenoxybenzamine
62
2 selective a–1 antagonists?
Doxazosin
Prazosin
63
What is the mnemonic for knowing the selective beta 1 antagonist
MABE AB
64
What CCB is used for preop PCC treatment
Nicardipine
65
What drug is used for PCC patient unamenable to surgery and inhibits the biosynthesis of catecholamines
Alpha=Methyltyrosine
66
Phenoxybenzamine DOA/length of time you should stop it before surgery?
24–48 hours
67
It typically takes _____ days until normotension, volume restoration, and dcreased symptoms from phenoxybenzamine
10–14
68
Normotension is evident after stopping phenoxybezamine when there is a 5% decrease in ______
Hematocrit
69
Induction and surgical manipulation of tumors cause HTN in PCC. What cause hypotension
Ligation of tumor's venous drainage
70
What volatile agent to avoid during PCC surgery
Des
71
2 NMBs to avoid in PCC
Panc, atracurium
72
Peri–op nonselective IV alpha blocker for PCC
Phentolamine
73
3 drugs that treat PCC tachydysrhythmias
Esmolol
Labetalol
Lido
74
Oral labetolol beta:alpha ratio
3:1
75
____________glycemia is common before PCC removal and vice versa
Hypo common before
76
Most common postop adverse event in PCC
Sustained HTN
77
Sympathomimetic amines contain a substituted ____ ring and a _______ side chain
Benzene
Ethylamine
78
Beta 2 stimulation __________ insulin secretion
Inhibits
79
What receptors does dopamine hit at less than 2 mcg/kg?
Dopaminergic
80
What receptors does dopamine hit at doses greater than 10mcg/kg?
Alpha
81
Dopamine's indirect sympathomimetic effect is by stimulating NE via ____ stimulation.
Beta 1
82
Dopamine inhibits ______, leading to increased sodium excretion.
Aldosterone
83
What metabolizes dopamine
MAO
84
True or false: Isoproterenol causes vasodilation through B2 agonism
TRUE
85
Dobutamine _______ ventricular stroke work index.
Increases
86
Nagelhout recommends against using this inotrope during cardiac surgery?
Dobutamine
87
Phenylephrine has what effect on the pupil?
Mydriasis
88
What produces and releases vasopressin? What type of neurons release it?
Hypothalamus
Magnocellular
89
Where is vasopressin stored?
Posterior Pituitary
90
Vasopressin release is stimulated by _____ osmolality and hypovolemia.
Increased
91
GI ischemia, cardiac arrest, decreased CO, digit/skin necrosis are side effects of this hormone?
Vasopressin
92
Name 2 vasopressin agonists?
Teripressin
| Desmopressin
93
What type of agonist would be helpful for bleeding reduction, DI, and enuresis (bedwetting)?
Vasopressin
94
What does phosphodiesterase breakdown?
cAMP
| cGMP
95
In smooth muscle, cAMP causes efflux of ______, leading to vasodilation (decreased preload and after load).
Calcium
96
True or False: Phosphodiesterase cause increased O2 consumption by myocardium
FALSE
97
What type of drugs are viagra and revadio?
PDE–5 Inhibitors
98
What type of drug is milrinon?
PDE–3 Inhibitor
99
What drug is commonly referred to as an inodilator
Milrinone
100
Milrinone prevents breakdown of cAMP, which in the heart improves LV function by ______ calcium uptake by the SR.
Accelerates/Increases
101
True or false: PDEIs have no effect on adrenergic receptors
TRUE
102
Milrinone loading dose?
50mcg/kg over 10 minutes
103
What organ eliminates milrinone, meaning you need to use with caution if organ dysfunction
Kidney
104
True or false: Ephedrine is mostly metabolized by MAO
False, it resists it
105
True or false: Ephedrine should be used with caution when there is questionable coronary perfusion
TRUE
106
What adrenergic agonists have a tocolytic effect, meaning you can relax the uterus with increased cAMP and decreased intracellular Ca?
Beta–2 Agonists
107
True or false: All Beta 2 agonists are completely selective
False (none are)
108
B2 agonists have a long DOA due to resistance to ______
COMT
109
Beta 2 agonists result in tachyphylaxis due to ______regulation of beta receptors and hyperactivity of the airway
Down
110
Why did the long acting Beta–2 agonists salmeterol and formoterol receive a black box warning?
Increased risk of asthma–related death
111
Clonidine decreases BP at which two A–2 receptors?
Presynaptic
| Central
112
Which alpha 2 stimulation causes inhibition of catecholamine release and subsequent vasodilation?
Presynaptic
113
The main antihypertensive mechanism of clonidine is though CENTRAL A2 receptors decreasing ______ outflow.
Sympathetic
114
Which agonist causes rebound hypertension when dc'd?
Clonidine
115
Giving epi after phenoxybenzamene cause cause worsened hypotension and tachycardia due to what receptor being unopposed?
Beta–2
116
2 primary side effects of phenoxybenzamine
Orthostatic Hotn
| Nasal Congestion
117
Which alpha antagonist is a halo alkyl amine?
Phenoxybenzamine
118
Which alpha antagonist is an imidazole?
Phentolamine
119
Prazosin, doxazosin, and terazosin are selective for what receptor? What are they used to treat besides HTN?
Alpha 1
BPH
120
Why does prazosin have no effect on NE levels, leading to less NE induced tachycardia?
Leaves Alpha–2 receptors alone, which leaves inhibitory effect in place
121
What type of drug are tamsuoosin, alfuzosin, and silodosin?
Alpha 1 antagonists
122
Alpha 1 antagonists receive obstruct urinary symptoms due to relaxation of these 2 things
Prostate
| Bladder neck
123
What type of drugs are finasteride and dutasteride? What are they used with?
5–Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
Alpha antagonists
124
What type of drugs can cause lobby iris syndrome during cataract surgery?
Alpha 1 antagonists (tamsulosin)
125
Why are beta 2 antagonists harmful in DM patients?
1. Masks hypoglycemia
| 2. Impaired ability to increase glucose levels on their own
126
Beta–2 antagonists potentiate vasoconstriction in patients with these 2 dz?
PVD
| Raynaud
127
Beta blockers that are partial agonists have ISA and ______ risk of bronchoconstriction in patients with RAD?
Decreased
128
What do pindolol, acebutolol, penbutolol, and carteolol have in common?
Partial agonism
129
Name 2 BB that act as membrane stabilizers, diminishing arrhythmias by exerting a quinidine like effect on the heart at high concentrations?
Proproanolol and Pindolol
130
Which two beta blockers also act as vasodilators with mixed alpha and beta antagonism?
Labetalol
| Carvedilol
131
Name a nitric oxide mediated vasodilator with BB effects?
Nebivolol
132
Long term use of BB leads to _____regulation of receptors.
Up
133
Exposure to these class of BP med increases fetal mortality during the 2nd and 3rd trimester
ACEi
134
ARBS avoid which side effect
Cough
135
BBs with ISA lead to less _____ and _______ changes
Bradycardia
Lipid
136
Which beta blocker is associated with positive antinuclear antibody test and occasional drug induced lupus?
Acebutalol
137
This direct vasodilator causes fluid retention and pericardial effusion
Minoxidil
138
Aliskiren is a ______ inhibitor with long half life leading to hypotension unresponsive to discontinuing drug
Renin
139
True or false: It is recommended to start new beta–blocker therapy on the DOS
FALSE
140
Go with apex and _____ ASA on the DOS
Continue
141
Which two anticholinergics are tertiary amines that cross the BBB and cause Belladonna overdose?
Scopalamine
| Atropine
142
What is the mnemonic for belladonna overdose?
```
Red as a beet
Blind as a bat (mydriasis(
Dry as a bone
Mad as a hatter
Hot as a hare
```
143
Benefits of glyco vs other anticholinergics
Quaternary amine that doesn't cross BB
144
NTP max dose
10mcg/kg/min
145
Cyanide is released when NTP is metabolized by plasma _______
Hemoglobin
146
Cyanide toxicity occurs when 1 cyanide molecule binds to _______.
Methemoglobin
147
The other 4 cyanide molecules in NTP undergo conversion to _______ in the liver and elimination in the kidney.
Thiocyanate
148
What cofactor converts cyanide to thiosulfate?
B12
149
Cyanide toxicity once ________ is administered at a rate faster than ________mcg/kg/min.
500mcg/kg
2mcg/kg/min
150
Chronic administration of NTP should not exceed this rate
0.5 mcg/kg/minute
151
4 Signs of cyanide toxicity
Metabolic Acidosis
Increased MV SvO2
Tachycardia
Tachyphylaxis
152
After O2 and treatment of metabolic acidosis, what 3 drugs are often used for cyanide toxicity?
Sodium Nitrate
Sodium Thiosulfate
Methylene blue (1–2 mg/kg)
153
B12, hydroxycobalamin, and sulfanegen sodium are used to treat what?
Cyanide tox
154
This drug increases venous capacitance through VENOUS dilation and decreased preload?
NTG
155
True or false: NTG decreases myocardial wall tension
TRUE
156
True or false: NTG causes venous dilation when increased to high concentrations.
False; it's always venous. Arterial comes in when high doses are used
157
```
Nitrates should be avoided:
BP less than
HR less than
HR greater than
_____ infarction
```
90
50
100
RV
158
How much nitro is in the 250ml of dextrose?
50mg
159
Common side effect of hydralazine
Tachycardia
160
This antihypertensive is commonly used for pregnancy related HTN episodes
Hydralazine
161
Patients who are slow to acetylate are prone to drug–induced lupus from high concentrations of this BP drug
Hydralazine
162
The dipines are this class of ccb
Dihydropyridines
163
Diltiazem is this kind of CCB
Benzothiazepine
164
Verapamil is this type of CCB
Phenylalkylamine
165
All CCBs have _____ inotropic and chronotropic action
Negative
166
True or false: All CCBs produce coronary AND systemic vasodilation
TRUE
167
What class of antiarrhythics are CCBs?
Class 4
168
CCBs diminish the inward flux of calcium during depolarization and prolong this phase of the cycle?
Phase 2
169
True or false: Verapamil and diltiazem can be used to treat atrial tachyarrhythmias such as WPW?
TRUE
170
True or false: CCBS decrease preload AND aferload
TRUE
171
This CCB is used for treatment of cerebral vasospasm during neurologic emergencies
Nimodipine
172
CCBs have an _____ effect with anesthetics or other depressants
Additive
173
CCBs can cause ____ block
AV
174
This dihydropyridine L–type CCB does NOT affect myocardial contractility or conduction
Clevidipine
175
CCB metabolized by nonspecific esterases, highly selective for vascular muscle (arteries)
Clevidipine
176
Clevidipine starting dose? NOTE RATE
1–2mg per HOUR
177
Max dose of clevidipine
16 mg/HR
178
What is renin released from?
Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
179
Renin converts what?
Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 1
180
ARBS block type ____ AT 2 receptors.
Type 1 (AT1)
181
What is the 3 indicators of ACEi vasoplegic syndrome?
MAP <50
CI > 2.5
Low SVR
182
What type of drug worsens ACEi HOTN
Diuretic
183
Worst case scenario for ACEi hotn treatment?
1–2mg/kg Methylene blue. 0.25mg/kg/hour infusion. Max cum dose 7mg/kg
184
Methylene blue interferes with the _____ pathway, inhibiting the vasodilating effect on smooth muscle.
NO–cGMP
185
Reserpine is this class of drug that blocks uptake of catecholamines by inhibiting the monoamine transporter, leading to metabolism by MAO in the axoplasm?
Catecholamine–Depleting Agent
186
Metyrosine is used for pheo treatment and it's MOA is to inhibit this enzyme
Tyrosine Hydroxylase
187
What do Tolcapone and Entacapone (parkinson's drugs) inhibit?
COMT (use with caution when giving exogenous catecholamines)
188
Digoxin binds to the _____ subunit of the _____ pump which increases intracellular concentration of what 2 ions?
Alpha
ATPase
Sodium and Calcium
189
Calcium _____ vagal tone.
Increases
190
What electrolyte derangement POTENTIATES digoxin?
Hypokalemia
191
Arrhythmias, N/V/D (GI disturbance) HA, fatigue, vision changes are due to _______ overdose
Digoxin
192
This drug is contraindicated when using digoxin due to increased risk of cardiac arrest
Calcium
193
Name 4 major predictors of increased preoperative cardiac risk
Unstable CAD
Decompensated HF
Significant Arrhythmias
Severe valve disease
194
Mild angina, previous MI, compensated HF, IDDM, and renal insufficiency are ____ predictors of periop cardiac risk
Intermediate
195
Major vascular surgery, emergent major operations, and prolonged procedures have ____ mortality
Greater than 5%
196
CEA, EVAR, head/neck surgery, intraperitoneal surgery, orthopedic surgery, and prostate surgery have this risk level in cardiac pateints
1–5%
197
Most common dx in hospitalized patients over 65
CHF
198
The major predictor of outcomes in non–cardiac surgery?
CHF
199
Most common post–cardiac surgery arrhythmia? Percent of patients who get one?
Afib
30–40%
200
What class of antiarrhythmic are sodium channel blockers?
Class 1
201
Sodium channels block phase ____
0
202
Class 1A antiarrhythmics such as quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide pronlong ______
Repolarization
203
Class 1B antiarrhythmics such as lidocaine, mexilitine, and phenytoin cause weak and shortened _______?
Repolarization
204
What class of antiarrhythmic are BBs?
Class 2
205
What class of antiarrhythmic are potassium blockers (amio, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide)?
Class 3
206
What class of antiarrhythmic are CCBs?
Class 4
207
Pre-HTN
120–139/80–89
208
Stage 1 HTN
140–159/90–99
209
Stage 2 HTN?
>160, >100
210
JC goal for BP over age 60
Less than 150/90
211
JC goal for BP from age 30–59
Less than 140/90
212
When are hypertensive episodes most common in the perioperative period?
Emergence
213
This central alpha 2 agonist is the drug of choice for HTN during pregnancy
Methyldopa
214
These 3 BBs are safe during pregnancy? Mnemonic
Labetalol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
LAM
215
Do not give diuretics to pregnant patients with a history of _______
Pre–Eclampsia
216
Leading cause of death worldwide
Ischemic heart dz
217
Pre–op ____ use is associated with reduced risk of cardiac mortality after elective CABG and postop discontinuation increases in–hospital mortality.
Statin
218
Withdrawal of ____ can cause PLT rebound and prothrombotic state
ASA
219
2 drugs for DAPT
```
ASA
P2Y12 inhibitor (plavix)
```
220
BMS DAPT requirement
6 weeks
221
MI DAPT requirement
3–6 months
222
DES DAPT requirement
12 months
223
Elective non cardiac surgery is delayed ____ days after BMS and ____ months after DES.
30 days
6 months
224
If you need surgery during DAPT, continue ____ thru procedure
ASA
225
What is the exception to the AHA recommendations on DAPT elective surgery cancellation?
Closed–Space Surgery
| Cranial, Post. Eye, Middle ear, intramedullary spine
226
The ANS controls most _____ functions of the body.
Visceral
227
Most ANS centers are in these three parts of the CNS
Spinal Cord
Brainstem
Hypothalamus
228
Which part of the cerebral cortex plays a role in the ANS
Limbic cortex
229
SNS nerve fibers exit the spinal cord at what levels
T1–L2
230
SNS nerves are differentiated from skeletal motor nerve because they have ____ neurons
2 (pre/post ganglionic)
231
Where is the cell body of each preganglionic SNS nerve?
Intermediolateral Horn of the Spinal Cord
232
SNS preganglionic nerves pass through the _____ into a corresponding spinal nerve
Ventral root
233
SNS spinal nerves pass through the _____ rams into the sympathetic chain ganglia
White Ramus
234
How many course can a preganglionic SNS nerve take?
3
235
The postganglionic sympathetic neuron originates in one of these 2 places?
Sympathetic Chain Ganglia
Peripheral Sympathetic ganglia
236
Postganglionic SNS fibers pass back from the sympathetic chain into spinal nerves though the _____ rami at _____ level of the spinal cord.
GRAY Rami
All
237
Post–gang SNS fibers are type ___ and extend through the body via _____ nerves.
C
Skeletal
238
8% of the fibers in the average skeletal nerve are _____ fibers.
Sympathetic
239
T1 SNS innervates the
head
240
T2 SNS innervates the
neck
241
T3–6 SNS innervate the
Thorax
242
T7–11 SNS innervate the
abdoment
243
T12–L2 SNS innervate the
legs
244
What CN do PNS fibers leave through
3, 7, 9, 10
245
The vagus nerve contains ____ of PNS nerve fibers
Vagus
246
What PNS fiber controls the pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscle?
CN3
247
What PNS fiber controls the lacrimal, nasal, and submandibular glands
CN 7
248
What PNS fiber controls the parotid gland
CN 9
249
What PNS nerve levels exit to the descending colon, rectum, bladder, ureters, and external genitalia
S2, S3
250
Where are postganglionic PNS neurons?
On the visceral organ
251
All preganglionic neurons in the SNS AND PNS are :
Cholinergic (release Ach)
252
Bulbous enlargement on postganglionic autonomic nerves where NE or Act are synthesized and stored?
Varicosities
253
When an action potential hits postganglionic terminal fibers _____ permeability increases causing NT secretion
Calcium
254
What 2 things make Ach
Acetyl CoA
| Choline
255
Choline ______ catalyzes Ach formation
Acetyltransferase
256
What enzyme catalyzes act breakdown
Acetylcholinesterase
257
What part of Ach metabolite is taken up by the terminal fiber where it is used to synthesize more Ach
Choline
258
Ach metabolites = choline and ______
Acetate ION
259
What type of reaction converts tyrosine to dopa?
Hydroxylation
260
What type of reaction converts dopa to dopamine?
Decarboxylation
261
What part of NE synthesis is initially transported into the vesicles?
Dopamine
262
What type of reaction turns dopamine into NE?
Hydroxylation
263
80% of NE is removed from circulation in what matter?
Reuptake into presynaptic membrane via active transport
264
The majority of leftover NE ______ into surrounding body fluids and blood.
Diffuses
265
The least amount of NE is removed via this method?
MAO and COMT destruction
266
NE secreted into a tissue remains active only for a few seconds, but NE and EPI from the _____ remain active until diffusion from blood into tissue
Adrenal Medulla
267
Muscarinic receptors use ____ as their signaling mechanism
G proteins
268
Muscarinic receptors are found on effector cells that are stimulated by the _____ neuron.
Postganglionic
269
_____ receptors are ligand gated ion channels found in autonomic ganglia at synapses between the preganglionic and postganclionic neurons of the ANS.
Nicotinic
270
All adrenergic receptors are post synaptic. Which receptor is also pre–synaptic?
Alpha 1
271
The glands in the small and large intestine are mostly stimulated by the intestinal _____ nervous system, not the ANS.
Enteric
272
The SNS directly stimulates the alimentary glands to form concentrated secretions of enzymes and mucous, but also vasoconstricts blood vessels that reduce the rate of secretion. Ok?
OK
273
What part of the ANS facilitates near vision?
PNS (ciliary constriction)
274
_____ stimulation causes copious cholinergic induced sweating and apocrine secretion.
SNS
275
____ stimulation dilates the coronaries (2)
Beta 2
PNS
276
____ stimulation constricts the coronaries?
Alpha
277
Sweating is a SNS function but a PSNS section of the ____ stimulates it.
Hypothalamus
278
Sweat gland sympathetic fibers are ______ while apocrine gland fibers are _______
Cholinergic
Adrenergic
279
The intestinal enteric nervous system?
Intramural Plexus
280
Sphincters in the gut are relaxed by the ____ nervous system
PNS
281
True or false: The PNS has a significant effect in causing vasodilation
FALSE, it's minimal
282
Strong PNS discharge that can stop the heart for a few seconds and cause loss of arterial pressure?
Vagal Reflex
283
The entodermal structures are stimulated by the _____ NS.
PSNS
284
Liver ducts, gall bladder, ureters, urinary bladder are collectively known as the _____ structures?
Entodermal
285
The SNS requires a ____ frequency of stimulation for full–activation of autonomic effectors.
Low
286
Full activation of the SNS/PSNS occurs when nerve impulses fire at a rate of 10–20 per _____
Second
287
The SNS requires much _____ stimulation than the skeletal nervous system to fire.
Lower
288
SNS tone normally keeps systemic arterioles constricted to _____ their maximal diameter?
1/2
289
Basal secretion of epi from the adrenal medulaa?
0.2mcg/kg/min
290
Basal secretion of NE from the medulla?
0.05 mcg/kg/min
291
Cutting a vessel/nerve will lead to substantial ____ within 5–30 seconds
Vasodilation
292
After laceration of a vessel and the subsequent vasodilation, normal vasoconstriction returns in some time due to ______ adaptation in smooth muscle fibers.
Chemical
293
What returns the SNS/PNS function to the basal level if they lose their tone? Which takes longer?
Intrinsic Compensation
PSNS takes longer, up to months.
294
After the first week of denervation, a typically innervated organ become _____ to injection of NE or Ach.
Super Sensitive
295
_____ of post synaptic receptors occurs when Epi/NE is no longer released at an organ with a denervated synapse
Up–regulation
296
A phenomenon when all portions of the SNS discharge simultaneously as a complete unit?
Mass Discharge
297
What part of the ANS empties the rectum?
PSNS
298
True or false: Some of the most important factors controlled by the brainstem are BP, HR, and RR?
TRUE
299
Cardiovascular regulatory centers of the brainstem closely associate with regulation of respiration in these two centers?
Medulla
| Pontine
300
Regulation of respiration is an INVOLUNTARY function, but it is not considered an ______ function.
Autonomic
301
The medullary CV control centers, body temp centers, salivation centers, GI activity, and bladder emptying can be controlled by this not really SNS part of the brain?
Hypothalamus
302
The best known drug to prevent synthesis/storage of NE at sympathetic nerve endings?
Reserpine
303
Guanethidine blocks release of ____ from sympathetic endings.
NE
304
What drug selectively blocks A2 receptors?
Yohimbine
305
Hexamethonium and Pentolinium block SNS and PNS transmission through the _____
Ganglia
306
Why does injected Ach not cause the typical PNS effects of Ach in the body?
Most is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase before reaching effector organs
307
Pilocarpine and Methacholine are what type of drugs???
Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic)
308
Antimuscarinic drugs such as HOMATRIPINE block cholinergic activity at muscarinic type receptors of effector organs, but dont affect ______ action of Ach on postganglionic neurons or skeletal muscle?
Nicotinic
309
Drugs that cause autonomic effects by stimulating postganglionic neurons?
Nicotinic (nicotine)
