Annexes Flashcards

1
Q

How many metres are in a Nautical Mile?

A

1852

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are there any Non-­SI units that are being temporary used in International Flight?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is there a termination date set for the Non­SI units by ICAO?

A

There is no date set by ICAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What unit is used to measure temperature according to ICAO?

A

Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The weight of fuel according to ICAO is measure in?

A

kilograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What unit is used to report wind speed according to ICAO?

A

metres per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The FAA measure runway length in feet, where as the ICAO measure runway length in?

A

Metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is visibility measured according to ICAO?

A

Kilometre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The unit hectopascal is used for what?

A

To measure pressure for altimeter setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many countries are still using the imperial system for measurement?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the objective of Annex 13?

A

Prevent accidents and incidents from occurring in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who must the State of Occurrence notify if an accident occurs?

A

ICAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What language should the notification of an accident be in?

A

Working language of ICAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If an accident occurs in a participating ICAO state who must conduct the investigation?

A

State of Occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

f an accident occurs in the middle of the ocean who must conduct the investigation?

A

State of Registry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

US AIP 5.12 specifies the US generally supports measures intended produce and share information, however laws in the US require determination and public reporting of:

A

Facts
Circumstances
Probable cause of every civil aviation accident

ALL OF THESE ABOVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following constitutes a serious injury as defined by Annex 13?

A

An injury requiring hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days from the date the injury was received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State of Operator is defined as?

A

State in which the operator’s principal place of business is located, or if there is no such place of business, the
operator’s permanent residence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A state that receives a safety recommendation must inform the proposing state of either the preventative actions taken under consideration or executed, or the reason why no action was taken in what timeframe?

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The US government requires which of the following to release information to the public?

A

No consent is required or considered from other states regarding information related to an aircraft accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is considered an act of unlawful interference?

A

Unlawful seizure of aircraft
Destruction of an aircraft while in service Hostage Taking onboard of an aircraft

ALL OF THESE ARE CORRECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What should the development of new security equipment consider?

A

Human Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should all commercial air transport operators have established and maintained?

A

A written operator security program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do you need to have done before entering a security restricted area?

A

Proper ID and background check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When do aircraft operator / PIC need to be notified about certain passengers on their flight for security purposes?

A

People subject to judicial or administrative proceedings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are passengers not authorized to go and must be prevented from entering to during flight?

A

The flight crew compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

can your aircraft be searched?

A

when reliable information exists that the aircraft may be subjected to an act of unlawful interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If you are going to carry a firearm from one country to another, what countries laws apply to you?

A

Both the departure and arrival countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Are you required to submit a report of any acts of unlawful interference?

A

yes, immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should the PIC be notified of?

A

Armed passengers and their seat numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The supplemented reference noted in the ICAO Annex 12 is called:

A

FAR AIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)?

A

Unit responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue services and for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations within a search and rescue region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If there are two Rescue Coordination Centres (RCC) serving the same area of rescue, who shall perform the rescue?

A

The closest center the distress signal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When must each Rescue coordination centre (RCC) be available?

A

Ready to respond and Available 24/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who is responsible for discontinuing the search?

A

The responsible Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When a pilot-in-command observes that either another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress, if possible:

A

Keep the craft in distress in sight until compelled to leave the scene or advised by the rescue coordination centre that it is no longer necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which frequency are pilots encouraged to monitor during their flight?

A

International distress frequency 121.5/ 243.0 MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does a yellow cross over a crash site indicate?

A

The crash site has already been reported and identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which symbol tells air crews that you “require Medical assistance”?

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What following maneuver should be performed to indicate to surface craft that you wish to direct them to the crash?

A

Rocking your wings
Opening and closing the throttle
Changing propeller pitch

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Recommended Practice. Contracting States, in cooperation with aircraft operators and airport management, should establish as a goal a total time period of _________minutes in aggregate for the completion of required departure formalities for all passengers requiring not more than normal processing.

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Under US AIP, who is responsible for aircraft disinfection?

A

Air Carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Contracting States and aircraft operators should, where practicable, exchange information as to the appropriate ________ point(s) of contact(s) to whom deportee inquiries should be directed.

A

24 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

According to the US, when is aircraft disinfection required?

A

Whenever the aircraft departed from an area infected with diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

For flights into the United States, what form must a nonresident alien/ US citizen (respectively) fill out?

A

Form I­94/ I­151

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The ______________________ available shall cause the landing to be reported as soon as practicable to the public authorities concerned.

A

pilot in command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where can an inadmissible person be moved to?

A

Where they began their journey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In establishing a national air transport facilitation programme, States should use the guidance material outlined in __________.

A

Appendix 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When a Contracting State has determined that a person for whom a travel document has been requested is one of its nationals but cannot issue a passport within _______ of the request, the State shall issue an emergency travel document that attests to the nationality of the person concerned and that is valid for readmission to that State.

A

30 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Contracting States, with the cooperation of aircraft operators and airport operators, should establish as a goal the clearance within _______ of disembarkation from the aircraft of all passengers requiring not more than the normal inspection.

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does Annex 16 Cover?

A

Environmental Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does Volume I cover?

A

Aircraft noise regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are the categories of aircraft separated for regulation?

A

Type, weight, and year certified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How could you get violated for excessive aircraft noise

A

Flying off course, directly over a microphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does Volume II cover?

A

Aircraft emissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Can aircraft intentionally dump fuel during normal operations?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What did the latest Amendment(11-B) cover?

A

New regulations to cover aircraft that will be certified after 2017

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What happens if an engine fails emissions testing?

A

This only means that the certification authority is 90% sure that the engine does not meet standards, the
manufacturer can bring other evidence to change their mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Are documents attesting noise certification required to be carried on the aircraft?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What unit is aircraft noise measured in?

A

EPNdB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a SMS?

A

A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities,
policies, and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the four components of SMS?

A

Safety Policy, Safety Risk Management, Safety Assurance, Safety Promotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

As a Part 135 company, what do you need to operate internationally?

A

A SMS that is accepted by the FAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The SMS of a service provider shall:

A

Be established in accordance with the framework elements contained in Appendix 2

Be commensurate with the size and complexity of the provider

Be acceptable to the State of the operator

All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

States shall:

A

Establish safety data collection and processing systems Establish a mandatory safety reporting system
Establish a voluntary safety reporting system

All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following are critical elements to the State Safety Oversight?

A

Primary aviation legislation
Specific operating regulations
State system and functions

All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following are elements of the Safety Policy and Objectives Pillar?

A

Management commitment
Appointment of key safety personnel
SMS documentation

All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If you wanted to start a SMS for a 91/135 operator, what chapter/appendix of Annex 19 should you reference?

A

Chapter 4
Appendix 2

Both A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

If a State discovers a safety matter considered to be pertinent to other States, they shall:

A

Forward the information to the affected State(s) as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Responsibilities of an aviation service provider or operator can be transferred to the State:

A

Under no provision of Annex 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

An ICAO Commercial Pilot, during single pilot operations, is carrying passengers. How long is a 44 year ­old’s medical certificate valid for?

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

IF you wanted more information about the requirements and issuance of a Flight Dispatcher License, you would reference:

A

Chapter 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A Multi­Crew License allows you to do what?

A

Act as co­pilot (SIC) on aircraft requiring two crew members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A Multi­Crew pilot would need which class medical to exercise their privileges?

A

Class 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A 62 year­old ICAO Commercial pilot is carrying passengers in a multi ­crew operation, how long is his medical certificate valid for?

A

Six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Privileges of a Multi­Crew Pilot License (MCL) include:

A

To exercise all the privileges of the holder of a private pilot license in the airplane

To exercise the privileges of the instrument rating in a multi­ crew operation

To act as co­pilot of an airplane required to be operated with a co­pilot

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where can I find information about how to obtain a U.S. Multi­Crew Pilot License?

A

There is no Multi­Crew License in the U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

You are flying a Piper Seminole in a country that adheres strictly to ICAO Annex 1. Your company requires two pilots to operate the aircraft. Are you able to log SIC time as co­pilot?

A

Only 50% of the total time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What Medical Certificate is a commercial pilot required to carry in a country that adheres strictly to ICAO Annex 1?

A

ICAO Class 1 Medical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How do I obtain an ICAO Class 1 Medical?

A

Your FAA First Class Medical will suffice for an ICAO Class 1 Medical provided you are flying a US Registered Aircraft in a country that will accept the ICAO Requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is ICAO Annex 3 about?

A

Meteorological Services for International Aerial Navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is International Standard Pressure?

A

1013.2 hPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the abbreviation “SG” mean in a meterological report?

A

Snow Grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What height is an unmanned RVR observation taken from?

A

2m (7.5 feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A Contracting State accepting the responsibilities of a WAFC must establish a center that is capable of reporting:

A

Upper­Air Winds, Temperature and Humidity
The location of the tropopause
Cumulonimbus Clouds and other in-flight hazards

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a MWO?

A

Meteorological Watch Office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What must a State Volcano Observatory report?

A

Significant Pre­Eruption Activity (or Cessation thereof)
A Volcanic Eruption (or Cessation thereof)
Volcanic Ash within the atmosphere

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When must aerodromes publish routine meteorological reports?

A

24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year (unless otherwise agreed upon)

89
Q

Why does the United States differ from ICAO standards in the field of LLWS alerts/warnings?

A

The United States believes that a LLWS alert are timelier than a textual warning

90
Q

ICAO forecasts are given in what format?

A

Latitude and Longitude readings

91
Q

What terms does ICAO Annex 4 use instead of Decision Altitude and Decision Height?

A

Obstacle Clearance Altitude and Obstacle Clearance Height

92
Q

What chapter(s) in Annex 4 can you look under for information on Aerodrome Obstacle Charts?

A

Chapter 3, 4, and 5

93
Q

How are obstacle heights recommended to be depicted by ICAO on visual approach charts?

A

Above the Aerodrome elevation

94
Q

According to ICAO, how should SID’s and STAR’s be named?

A

After the city or town or area which the aerodrome serves

95
Q

What airports have an instrument approach chart in the U.S.?

A

Only those specifically requested for charting

96
Q

What does ICAO recommend to help depict relief areas on SIDs and STARs?

A

The chart should be drawn to scale

Showing obstacles on charts

Have Contours in areas exceeding 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation

All of the Above

97
Q

What does ICAO have on their non precision approach charts that the US does not?

A

Descent Gradient

98
Q

Which of the following do ICAO Ground movement Charts Depict?

A

Boundaries of ATC services

99
Q

On an ICAO 1:500,000 chart obstacles above what height are shown?

A

300 ft

100
Q

What Units are used for Linear Dimensions of Aerodromes on ICAO charts?

A

Metres

101
Q

What is the correct order for common and registration marks?

A

Assigned common mark followed by the registration mark

102
Q

If the registration mark starts with a letter, what is used to separate the common and registration marks?

A

A hyphen

103
Q

Excluding “1” and “I” what shall the width of the letters be?

A

2/3rds height of the character

104
Q

Where on the wings must the marks be located?

A

Lower surface on the left side

105
Q

What type of characters must be used for the marks?

A

Uppercase Roman characters

106
Q

How should these marks be fixed on the aircraft?

A

painted on
taped on
welded on

any of these will do

107
Q

Who is responsible for keeping a record of registered aircraft?

A

the contracting state

108
Q

Where must the identification plate be located on an aircraft?

A

near the entrance

109
Q

What is a common mark?

A

an ICAO assigned letter

110
Q

Which of the following is true in the United States AIP?

A

Marks on wing surfaces aren’t required

A registry of unmanned free balloons isn’t maintained

Identification plates don’t need to have nationality and registration marks

All of the above

111
Q

According to ICAO ruling, If an emergency situation which endangers the safety of the airplane, necessitates the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations, the pilot-in-command shall notify the appropriate local authority without delay and submit a formal report within ___ days.

A

10 days

112
Q

What is the maximum certificated takeoff mass to maintain a flight data analysis program in a safety management system?

A

27,000kg

113
Q

According ICAO(4.2.10), how long does the fuel and oil records shall be retained by the operator?

A

3 months

114
Q

Relating to ICAO(4.2.11.2), what’s the altitude does the equipment required to measure radiation?

A

Above 49,000 feet and display must be visible to a flight crew member

115
Q

According ICAO(4.3.9.1), what is the oxygen requirement for occupants after above 13,000feet?

A

Available for all occupants

116
Q

How many pilot proficiency checks are required?

A

2 within one year, but not both within 4 months

117
Q

All passenger-carrying aeroplanes in excess of 45,500 kg or with a passenger seating capacity greater than 60 shall be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door that is designed to resist penetration from?

A

Small arms and grenade shrapnel

118
Q

The operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference. As a minimum, this programme shall include the following elements except:

A

How to pour the perfect glass of coke

119
Q

An operator cannot act as PIC on a route or within an area specified by the operator and approved by the State of the Operator unless, within the preceding 12 months that pilot has made at least one trip as a:

A

pilot member of the flight crew
check pilot
or as an observer in the flight crew compartment

all the above

120
Q

To be current as a cruise relief pilot, you must have acted as a crewmember on that airplane or completed proficiency training within the preceding _____.

A

90 days

121
Q

What does FATO stand for?

A

Final Approach and Takeoff Area Definitions

122
Q

What does TLOF mean?

A

Touchdown and Lift Off Area Definitions

123
Q

In Annex 14, heliport dimensions are based on what type of helicopter?

A

Single- Main- Rotor helicopters

124
Q

In regards to heliport elevation, what must the accuracy be?

A

one-half metre or foot

125
Q

Which of the following distances shall be declared for a heliport?

A

Take-off distance available (TODAH)
Rejected take-off distance available (RTODAH)
Landing Distance Available (LDAH)

All of the above

126
Q

A surface-level heliport shall be provided with what?

A

At least one final approach and take off area (FATO)

127
Q

In regards to transitional surface, the approach/ take-off climb surface slopes upwards and outwards to a predetermined height of what?

A

45m/150ft

128
Q

A heliport shall be equipped with how many wind direction indicators?

A

One

129
Q

Where should the Aiming Point Marking be?

A

In the FATO

130
Q

According to ICAO, what color and frequency should the heliport beacon be?

A

White flashes in short duration

131
Q

What is an aerodrome

A

A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

132
Q

What is class F airspace

A

Alert Area Airspace which IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested

133
Q

What are you required to read back to air traffic controllers

A

All safety related clearances to include, ATC route clearances, all runway clearances ( land, take off, backtrack) , runway­ in ­use, altimeter settings, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or ATIS broadcasts, transition levels.

134
Q

What is a Downstream clearance?

A

A clearance issued to an aircraft by an air traffic control unit that is not the current controlling
authority of that aircraft

135
Q

what are they 3 phases that a controlling facility considers an aircraft to be during an emergency ?

A

Uncertainty, Alert, Distress

136
Q

what is the Distress Phase

A

Follows alert phase if no communication has been re­established or, Fuel on board indicates exhausted/ insufficient amount to reach safety, or Information received indicates a forced landing was likely.

137
Q

How long is the ICAO community going to keep your recordings for AT LEAST

A

30 days

138
Q

What requirements are air to ground facilities requirements

A

air­ground communication facilities shall enable DIRECT, RAPID, CONTINUOUS, & STATIC ­FREE two­ way communication

139
Q

What does ACAS stand for?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

140
Q

According to ICAO, what kinds of aircraft are required to have a GPWS with a forward looking terrain avoidance system?

A

All aircraft with a MTOW greater than 5,700 kg (12,500lbs) or authorized to carry more than nine passengers

141
Q

Per ICAO Annex 6 Part II 2.2.3.5, when is an alternate not needed?

A

Forecast that allows for landing under VMC

142
Q

What minimum circumstances will the GPWS provide?

A

Excessive descent rate, Unsafe terrain, and excessive altitude loss

143
Q

When flying as controlled VFR in ICAO, the aeroplane should be equipped with:

A

magnetic compass, barometric altitude, indicated airspeed, clock, and other additional equipment needed for the appropriate authority.

144
Q

When flying IFR or VFR at night, we must ensure that the aeroplane is equipped with:

A

IFR equipped .
Two ­way radio communication.
Both A and B

145
Q

In regards to a large turbojet, if there is no need for an alternate how much fuel do you have to bring?

A

Enough to fly 15 min in a hold 450m above the destination airport

146
Q

What does section 3 in ICAO Annex 6 apply too?

A

Aircraft with a max certified takeoff weight exceeding 5700 kg

147
Q

Can we refuel with passengers onboard according to ICAO?

A

Yes­ As long as a qualified person is onboard ready to initiate evacuation and two way communications with ground crew

148
Q

For oxygen supply, what pressure must all crew members and 10% of passengers be supplied with oxygen?

A

Period in excess of 30 min that the pressure is between 700 hPa and 620 hPa

149
Q

An Isolated Aerodrome is?

A

A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type

150
Q

Name the purpose of the Air Operator Certificate (AOC)?

A

States that the operator is certified to perform commercial air operations

151
Q

Define flight time­ helicopter per ICAO Annex 6 Part 3

A

The total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped

152
Q

What type of helicopter operation does Annex 6 Part 3 not apply to?

A

Aerial Work

153
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring their employees comply with laws, regulations and procedures in which those states are conducted?

A

Operator

154
Q

What type of essential information is required to be on the helicopter pertaining to the area that the helicopter will be flying over?

A

Search and Rescue Services

155
Q

Per ICAO, fuel and oil records shall be retained by the operator for a period of what?

A

Three Months

156
Q

A helicopter shall be operated in compliance with what?

A

the terms of its certificate of airworthiness
approved operating limitations in its flight manual

both A and B

157
Q

Night flights need to have what for each crew member?

A

A flashlight

158
Q

Helicopters must have how many life­saving rafts?

A

Enough to carry all persons on board

159
Q

Who must ensure that the licenses and currency of the crew is up to date?

A

PIC

160
Q

How many categories of helicopters are there according to ICAO?

A

2

161
Q

Category B Helicopters can only be what class of performance?

A

Class 3

162
Q

ICAO categorizes helicopter categories by what?

A

Engine Failures

163
Q

What operations does Annex 8 Part IVA and IVB apply to?

A

Ones carrying passengers, cargo or mail in International Air Navigation

164
Q

At what altitude must be means provided for an engine restart?

Up to a declared maximum altitude
All Altitudes
None
Per state policy

A

Up to a declared maximum altitude

165
Q

For helicopters other than category A, what is the recommended autorotation speed?

A

Maximum Range
Minimum Rate of Descent

BOTH . A AND B

166
Q

Engines should go under tests to ensure that it will operate how?

A

Satisfactorily and Reliably

167
Q

Lights shall be installed in helicopters so as to minimize the possibility that they will what?

A

adversely affect the flight crews’ duties
subject an outside viewer to harmful dazzle

Both A and B

168
Q

The operation limitations come together with any other information necessary to the what of the helicopter?

A

Safe Operation

169
Q

Part IVA and Part IVB certification is separated by what?

A

Date

170
Q

Who is responsible for determining the continuous airworthiness of an aircraft (who is in the regulatory power for that aircraft’s airworthiness)

A

State of registry

171
Q

Where is the safest place to put a bomb on an aircraft?

A

The Least Risk Bomb Location

172
Q

What limitations do lights have on the aircraft while in flight or on the ground?

A

Subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle
Adversely affect the performance of the flight crew’s duties

Both A and C

173
Q

Which security regulations must you follow under ICAO’s rules?

A

The rules of the State that you are currently in

174
Q

Why would a pilot want to know the Least Risk Bomb Location?

A

This identifies the location inside the aircraft where the crew will place a bomb to limit the effects of an
explosion

175
Q

What FAR is Annex 8 closest to?

A

FAR Part 25

176
Q

What is ICAO’s definition of airworthy?

A

The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller, or part as it conforms to its approved design, and is in condition for safe operation

177
Q

What is the definition of the State of Manufacturer?

A

The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible for the final assembly

178
Q

How many parts are in Annex 8?

A

4

179
Q

What is part 1 of Annex 8?

A

Definitions

180
Q

What are the five volumes of Annex 10?

A

Radio Navigation Aids, Communication Procedures, Communication Systems, Surveillance and Collision
Avoidance Systems, Aeronautical Radio Frequency Spectrum Utilization

181
Q

What best describes a fan marker beacon?

A

A type of radio beacon, the emissions of which radiate in a vertical fan­ shaped pattern.

182
Q

What is the ICAO requirement for VOR signal strength?

A

107 dBW/m2

183
Q

How long must a pilot wait before calling ATC a second time, according to ICAO?

A

10 seconds

184
Q

What language should always be available from ground stations when they are being talked to by international air services.

A

English

185
Q

What does ACAS stand for?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

186
Q

What is the international emergency frequency?

A

121.500 MHz

187
Q

What is a blind transmission?

A

A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two­ way communication cannot
be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

188
Q

What does a Selective­Calling Radio (SelCal) system do?

A

It will alert an aircraft’s crew that a ground radio station wishes to communicate with the aircraft.

189
Q

Who is in charge of certifying aerodromes and provides regulations in the United States?

A

The local government

190
Q

At least how many signaling devices must an aerodrome be equipped with?

A

one

191
Q

According to the ICAO threshold crossing height is reported as?

A

Top of the red signal of the downwind bar

192
Q

If a runways magnetic heading was 050 degrees, the ICAO would label it runway?

A

05

193
Q

When must an aerodrome be equipped with a signaling lamp?

A

When the aerodrome is controlled

194
Q

Under ICAO, which unpaved surfaces should be provided, so far as practicable, with the markings prescribed for that surface?

A

Both unpaved runways and taxiways should be marked

195
Q

Under ICAO, what conditions shall a VASI system be provided to serve the approach to a runway?

A

When the runway is used by turbojet

196
Q

Under ICAO, what color shall the marking of a closed runway be?

A

Black

197
Q

Under ICAO, when shall a secondary power source be provided for a precision approach runway?

A

A secondary power source is required for all precision approach runways

198
Q

Which of the following is true about the aiming point marking on runways meeting ICAO standards?

A

Aiming point varies from 150 meters to 400 meters

199
Q

For all countries, which language is required for AIS data to be made available in?

A

English

200
Q

What is an ‘aerodrome’?

A

A defined area on land or water intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and
surface movement of aircraft

201
Q

Concerning Aeronautical Information Services, what is a State responsible for?

A

Providing aeronautical data collection and distribution in one’s own state

202
Q

Which of these are not required pre­flight information for preflight by ICAO?

A

Uncleared snow on a ramp

203
Q

Which of the following ICAO recommendations is not followed by the FAA?

A

Horizontal dimensions of obstacles

204
Q

Which of the following requires a NOTAM to be issued?

A

establishment, closure, or significant changes in operation of aerodrome(s)/heliport(s)/ or runways

establishment, withdrawal and significant changes in operation of aeronautical services

Establishment, withdrawal and significant changes in operational capability or radio navigation and air

ALL OF THE ABOVE

205
Q

Which of the following NOTAM’s does the FAA not issue?

A

trigger NOTAM’s
release of radioactive material or harmful chemicals ASHTAMS and SNOWTAMS

All of the above

206
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the state?

A

assign altitudes in AGL

207
Q

Under which of the following criteria must an AIC be initiated?

A

Forecasted major change in legislation
Forecasted major change in regulations
Forecasted major change in anything that may affect flight safety

All of the above

208
Q

What is ICAO’s definition of a moving area?

A

Part of an airport used for the take­off, landing and taxiing aircraft

209
Q

How many classifications of hazardous goods are there?

A

9

210
Q

Where would you look to find out the hazard classification according to chapter 3?

A

Technical Instructions

211
Q

When would dangerous goods not be allowed air transport?

A

Specifically identified by name or under general description per the technical instructions

212
Q

Packaging dangerous material must be done IAW _______ and _______?

A

Technical Instructions / free of leaks and damage

213
Q

Packaging labels should be completed in what language?

A

English

214
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring goods are authorized for air transport?

A

Shipper

215
Q

Who is responsible for inspecting goods for leaks or damage?

A

Operator

216
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the PIC has access to emergency instructions for packages?

A

Operator

217
Q

hapter 10 suggests dangerous goods training program be established and updated provided by the ____________?

A

Technical Instructions

218
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the security of dangerous goods?

A

Contracting State