Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phy5104- Peripheral > Ankle- conditions, treatment > Flashcards

Ankle- conditions, treatment Flashcards

08/04/2025

1
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the tarsal bones?

A

Tiger Cubs Need MILC: Talus, Calcaneus, Navicular, Medial cuneiform, Intermediate cuneiform, Lateral cuneiform, Cuboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of joint is the talocrural joint?

A

Synovial hinge joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What bones articulate in the talocrural joint?

A

Distal tibia, Distal fibula, Talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What joint allows foot rotations such as eversion and inversion?

A

Subtalar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a typical presentation of a lateral ankle ligament injury? (3)

A

Sudden pain on lateral portion of ankle, bruising, swelling, inability to weight bear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the Ottawa rules used for?

A

Rules out serious ankle/ foot fractures
- reduce stress on xray department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the OTTAWA rules

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the management approach for a deltoid ligament injury?

A

Generally managed with conservative treatment and physical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is anterior impingement in the ankle associated with?

A

Cavus foot and ankle instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are common causes of posterior impingement?

A

Os trigonum, Chronic ankle pain in athletes, Forced plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the clinical presentation of peroneal tendinopathy?

A

Pain, swelling, and warmth on the outside of the lateral ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fill in the blank: Risk factors for tendinopathies include older age, being overweight, and _______.

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the syndesmotic squeeze test indicate?

A

Syndesmotic injury or high ankle sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is plantar heel pain commonly associated with?

A

Plantar fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the characteristic pain pattern for plantar fasciitis?

A

Sharp medial heel pain on first steps in the morning or after sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition is characterized by burning, numbness, or tingling in the foot?

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Morton’s neuroma?

A

A condition affecting common plantar digital nerves, causing pain between toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary management for Morton’s neuroma?

A

NSAIDs, Comfortable footwear, Offloading the foot, Gentle stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the common cause of stress fractures?

A

Repetitive strain or overuse in sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the key components of the management for Achilles tendinopathy?

A

Stretching, Strengthening, Mobilization, Proprioceptive exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the expected outcome of the Thompson squeeze test?

A

Positive test indicates an Achilles rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the term ‘plantar fasciopathy’ refer to?

A

A condition affecting the plantar fascia, causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of pain is associated with tibialis posterior tendinopathy?

A

Medial aspect of the foot and Achilles tendon pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some common differential diagnoses for chronic lateral ankle pain?

A

Ankle sprain, Ankle fractures, Os Trigonum syndrome, Peroneal subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or False: Ankle OA is a common pathology of the foot and ankle.
True
26
What is the expected clinical finding in a patient with anteromedial impingement?
Chronic anteromedial pain intensified by dorsiflexion
27
What is the role of orthotics in managing tarsal tunnel syndrome?
To address biomechanical issues suspected to contribute to the condition
28
What are common symptoms associated with nerve issues in the foot?
Burning, numbness, paresthesia, and tingling sensation in the ball of the foot (Mulder’s Sign) ## Footnote Symptoms may progress over time.
29
What is the management for nerve issues in the foot?
* NSAIDs * Comfortable shoe ware – no flat shoes or heels * Offloading the foot – avoid running or hiking for 3-4 weeks * Gentle stretching if limitation in AROM or PHP present * Forefoot pads or Morton's neuroma pads * CSI option if no better in 6 weeks * Release surgery in worse cases
30
What types of osteoarthritis can occur in the ankle and foot?
Primary or secondary OA ## Footnote OA can happen in any joint in the foot and ankle but is not as common as other weight-bearing joints.
31
What are common causes of ankle and foot OA?
* History of trauma * Biomechanics and genetics ## Footnote Look for inflammatory signs such as gout, cellulitis, RA.
32
What is the clinical presentation of ankle and foot OA?
* Insidious onset with progression over time * Relieved by rest, worse after prolonged activity * Varies in severity, can cause night pain * EMS <30` and stiffness after prolonged inactivity * Mild swelling of the ankle joint * >50 years old * Joint line tenderness * Crepitus * Decrease ROM and weakness of muscles
33
What are the management options for ankle and foot OA?
* Follow hip and knee NICE guidelines * Ankle supports * CSI if pain not controlled well * Ankle surgeries: arthroscopy, arthrodesis, ankle prosthesis
34
What is Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome (MTSS)?
Exercise-induced pain over the anterior tibia ## Footnote It is an early stress injury in the continuum of tibial stress fractures.
35
Who is commonly affected by Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome?
* Dancers * Runners * Military recruits
36
What are the risk factors for Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome?
* High BMI * Female * Reduced hip external rotation * Navicular drop * Poor shoe ware and running on uneven surfaces * Muscle weakness of the triceps surae
37
What are the common clinical presentations of Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome?
Pain over the anterior tibia during exercise ## Footnote The condition often indicates early stress injury.
38
What type of movements are passive physiological movements?
They are movements applied passively to the ankle and foot joints.
39
METs= when are they indicated?
METs are Muscle Energy Techniques indicated for hypertoned or painful soft tissue.
40
What is the patient position for anterior and posterior glide at the distal tibiofibular joint?
Supine with a towel below the lower leg/calcaneus.
41
What are the indications for talocrural joint distraction?
Assessment, initial treatment, reduction of pain, general mobility.
42
What is the patient position for anterior glide in talocrural joint treatment?
Prone lying with the foot at the edge of the table.
43
What is the indication for posterior glide in talocrural joint treatment?
To increase dorsiflexion.
44
What is the patient position for posterior glide?
Supine lying with the heel at the edge of the couch.
45
What joint is formed between the calcaneus and the talus?
Subtalar (Talocalcaneal) joint.
46
What is the indication for subtalar distraction?
Pain control and general mobility.
47
What is the mobilizing force during subtalar distraction?
Calcaneus is pulled distally with respect to the long axis of the leg.
48
What are the indications for medial and lateral glide of the subtalar joint?
* Medial glide to increase eversion * Lateral glide to increase inversion.
49
What does passive physiological movement involve?
Passive force going just before the restricted range of movement.
50
What are the indications for METs for gastrocnemius?
Calf strains and hypertonia.
51
What is the indication for METs for triceps surae?
Calf strains and hypertonia.
52
What should be noted during the anterior inspection of the foot and ankle?
Scars, bruising, swelling, quadriceps wasting, leg length discrepancy.
53
What might asymmetry in the size of the hip joints suggest?
Unilateral swelling (e.g. effusion, inflammatory arthropathy, septic arthritis).
54
What does quadriceps wasting indicate?
Disuse atrophy or a lower motor neuron lesion.
55
What are potential causes of leg length discrepancy?
* Congenital factors * Fracture * Degenerative joint disease * Surgical removal of bone * Trauma to the epiphyseal endplate.
56
What might fixed flexion deformity at the hip joint indicate?
Contractures secondary to previous trauma, inflammatory conditions, or neurological disease.
57
What does the presence of kyphosis or lordosis indicate?
Spine curvatures that can affect gait and posture.
58
What does a Trendelenburg’s gait indicate?
Unilateral weakness of the hip abductor muscles secondary to a superior gluteal nerve lesion or L5 radiculopathy.
59
What does a waddling gait suggest?
Bilateral weakness of the hip abductor muscles, typically associated with myopathies.
60
What is assessed when observing the patient's footwear during gait analysis?
Unequal sole wearing suggestive of an abnormal gait.
61
What is the importance of palpation during the assessment?
To evaluate temperature, tenderness, and bony landmarks.
62
What indicates a positive result during temperature assessment of the ankle joint?
Increased temperature of a joint associated with swelling and tenderness.
63
What is the purpose of the Anterior Drawer test?
To assess the ATFL for chronic ankle instability and lateral ankle sprains.
64
What does a positive Talar Tilt test indicate?
Laxity, pain, or no sharp end point.
65
What is the Kleiger’s test used to assess?
The deltoid ligament and syndesmosis injuries.
66
What does the Squeeze Test assess?
Syndesmosis and potential high ankle sprains.
67
What does the Bump Test evaluate?
Talar dome, syndesmosis, and stress fractures.
68
What condition does the Metatarsal Squeeze test assess for?
Morton's neuroma.
69
What does a positive Thompson test indicate?
Achilles tendon ruptures.
70
What condition is the Windlass Test used to diagnose?
Plantar fasciitis.
71
What is the Ankle Impingement sign ?
Ankle impingement disorder.
72
What is indicated by failure of the longitudinal arch to rise during the Windlass Action?
Prolonged pes planus and stretching of plantar aponeurosis.
73
What does the Too Many Toes sign assess?
PTT function, indicating pronated foot or pes planus.
74
What does the Single Leg Hop test assess?
Stress fractures- will not be able to do one without ++ pain
75
What is the normal range of motion for plantarflexion?
50 degrees.
76
What is the normal range of motion for dorsiflexion?
20 degrees.
77
What does a soft tissue/elastic normal end feel indicate?
Normal joint function.

Phy5104- Peripheral (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions