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LEA > Animal Science (PART 2) > Flashcards

Animal Science (PART 2) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ears of its kind are medium and pointing upward

a. Duroc
b. Landrace
c. Large white
d. Nieuw Dalland

A

Duroc

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1
Q
  1. Thin swine has a very thin backfat thickness among the breeds
    a. Pietrain
    b. Hampshire
    c. Landrace
    d. Duroc
A

Pietrain

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1
Q
  1. This breed has a greater tendency to put on fat
    a. Duroc
    b. Landrace
    c. Large white
    d. Pietrain
A

Large white

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1
Q
  1. This breed is black with white band around the heart girth including the front legs
    a. Duroc
    b. Landrace
    c. Hampshire
    d. Yorkshire
A

Hampshire

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2
Q
  1. This breed is black colored with six white points, at the forehead, the forelegs and switch
    a. Berkshire
    b. Duroc
    c. Hampshire
    d. Yorkshire
A

Berkshire

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2
Q

This is the yellow body formed from the ruptured graafian follicle
a. corpus hemorrhagicum
b. corpus luteum
c. corpus albicans
d. corpus anthrum

A

corpus luteum

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3
Q
  1. Phase of estrous cycle where the corpus luteum id developed and progesterone is secreted
    a. proestrus
    b. estrus
    c. metestrus
    d. none of the above
A

metestrus

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3
Q
  1. The length of estrus period of cattle
    a. 30 hours
    b. 21 hours
    c. 18 hours
    d. 24 hours
A

18 hours

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3
Q
  1. This is the muscle which retracts the testicles against the body to protect it from excessive cold
    a. bulbocavernous muscle
    b. retractor
    c. cremaster
    d. urethral muscle
A

cremaster

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4
Q
  1. This refers to animal tissues which are suitable for food
    a. meat
    b. lean
    C. fat
    d. muscle
A

meat

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4
Q
  1. Which is not considered as a red meat?
    a. beef
    b. mutton
    c. pork
    d. none of the above
A

none of the above

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4
Q
  1. This refers to the meat of rabbit
    a. mutton
    b. star meat
    c. lapan
    d. venison
A

lapan

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4
Q
  1. This refers to the meat of cattle slaughtered bef of age
    a. venison
    b. beef
    C. veal
    d. mutton
A

veal

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles yield the less tender meat?
    a. leg muscle
    b. rib
    c. back muscle
    d. rump
A

leg muscle

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not affected by water or moisture content in the meat?
    a. texture
    b. juiciness
    c. color
    d. none
A

none

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5
Q
  1. is the process of the union of the sperm and the egg to form a zygote which develops as a new individual.
    a. Fertilization
    b. Gametogenesis
    c. Meiosis
    d. Mitosis
A

Fertilization

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5
Q
  1. isa process by which the germinal cells divide to produce haploid cells each carrying only one-half of the genetic complement of the individual.
    a. Fertilization
    b. Gametogenesis
    c. Meiosis
    d. Mitosis
A

Meiosis

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6
Q

is the process of producing the reproductive
a. Fertilization
b. Gametogenesis
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis

A

Gametogenesis

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6
Q
  1. isa spontaneous change in the biochemical structure of the gene resulting in an entirely different phenotypic effect.
    a. Migration
    b. Mutation
    c. Random genetic drift
    d. Selection
A

Mutation

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6
Q
  1. is the process in which individuals from one population transfer to another population.
    a. Migration
    b. Mutation
    c. Random genetic drift
    d. Selection
A

Migration

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7
Q
  1. measures the proportion of the total phenotypic variance that are attributable to the additive effects of genes that influence the trait.
    a. Heritability
    b. Repeatability
    c. Dominance
    d. Epistasis
A

Heritability

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7
Q
  1. isa result of crossbreeding characterized by a large improvement in the average performance of the Fi progeny over that of the parents.
    a. Heterosis
    b. Random genetic drift
    c. Panmixia
    d. linkage
A

Heterosis

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8
Q
  1. is when individuals of the sample phenotype (positive) or different phenotype (negative) are mated.
    a. Assortative
    b. Outbreeding
    c. Non-random mating
    d. Panmixia
A

Assortative

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8
Q
  1. is the capability of a phenotype and a corresponding genotype to survive and reproduce in a given environment.
    a. Epistasis
    b. Fitness
    c. Genotype X Environment interaction
    d. Panmixia
A

Fitness

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9
Q
  1. causes differential fitness among phenotypes.
    a. Migration
    b. Mutation
    c. Random genetic drift
    d. Selection
A

Selection

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10
Q
  1. A feed ingredient derived from sugar cane milling used to enhance the palatability of the formulated ration.
    a. Molasses
    b. Oil
    c. Fish meal
    d. All
A

Molasses

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11
Q
  1. It is a structure necessary to collect semen from the boar where he may mount during semen collection.
    a. Dummy
    b. Dry sow
    c. In heat sow
    d. All
A

Dummy

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11
Q
  1. A corn-milling by product utilized in feed formulation.
    a. Tiki-tiki
    b. GYC
    c. Corn bran
    d. B and C
A

Corn bran

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11
Q
  1. A provision placed at the entrance of the building where all entering person should step on to prevent introduction of possible disease causing organisms into the farm.
    a. Wheel bath
    b. Dipping bath
    c. Foot bath
    d. Foot spa
A

Foot bath

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12
Q
  1. The following are the purposes in doing castration, except
    a. It prevents boar taint in meat
    b. It promotes fast rate of growth
    c. It allows mixing of both sexes during growing-finishing stage
    d. None
A

It promotes fast rate of growth

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12
Q
  1. This is done to prevent nutritional anemia among sucklings.
    a. Injection iron preparation
    b. Providing clean soil
    c. Supplying iron paste
    d. All
A

All

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13
Q
  1. This practice is regularly done weekly to prevent proliferation of harmful microorganisms that maybe present in the piggery as part of internal biosecurity.
    a. Disinfection
    b. Cleaning
    c. Scrubbing
    d. A and b
A

A and b

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14
Q
  1. A major plant protein source used in swine feeding.
    a. Soyameal
    b. Copra meal
    c. Ipil-ipil leaf meal
    d. None
A

Soyameal

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14
Q
  1. A system of breeding recommended in improving the genotype of our native pigs.
    a. Upgrading
    b. Pure breeding
    c. Inbreeding
    d. Crossbreeding
A

Upgrading

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15
Q
  1. A type of flooring usually preferred for larger pigs.
    a. Dirt
    b. Slat
    c. Concrete
    d. All
A

Concrete

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16
Q
  1. A young turkey is called
    a. Poult
    b. Chick
    c. Cygnet
    d. Gosling
A

Poult

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16
Q
  1. A disease characterized by swollen face in poultry
    a. Fowl Pox
    b. CRD
    c. Gumboro
    d. Infectious Coryza
A

Infectious Coryza

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16
Q
  1. An effective disease prevention and control program should include the following EXCEPT
    a. Biosecurity
    b. Use of disinfectants
    c. Use of insecticides
    d. Vaccination
A

Vaccination

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17
Q
  1. Secretion of the gizzard which coats the lining membrane and forms the grinding pads
    a. Gastric juice
    b. Koilin
    c. Hydrochloric acid
    d. Amylase
A

Koilin

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17
Q

Group of eggs laid by a hen for a successive number of days or on a certain time pattern
a. Clutch
b. Colection
c. Fertile eggs
d. Nest

A

Clutch

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17
Q

Which among the following is a meat breed of duck
a. Indian runner
b. New Hampshire
c. Berkshire
d. Muscovy

A

Muscovy

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17
Q
  1. Male of the duck family
    a. Rooster
    b. Cockerel
    c. Drake
    d. Gander
A

Drake

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18
Q
  1. A layer strain of chicken
    a. Peterson
    b. Starbro
    c. H and N
    d. Pilch
A

H and N

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18
Q
  1. An egg takes hours to be formed from ovulation to
    oviposition
    a. 28
    b. 25.5
    c. 30
    d. 29
A

25.5

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19
Q
  1. Incubation period for chicken egg
    a. 18 days
    b. 21 days
    c. 24 days
    d. 42 days
A

21 days

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19
Q
  1. Which type of intraallelic gene action is applied when a black coat (dominant) color Angus cattle is crossed with a red coat (recessive) color, resulting to a heterozygous black color offspring?
    a. Incomplete dominance
    b. Epistasis
    c. Complete dominance
    d. Overdominance
A

Complete dominance

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20
Q
  1. Broiler chicken originated from crossing these t chicken
    a. Brahmas and Cochin
    b. Cornish and Rhode Island Red
    c. Cornish and White Rock
    d. White Rock and Rhode Island Red
A

Cornish and White Rock

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21
Q
  1. The egg production of layers which is 90% was consistent throughout their laying period layers, this shows the:
    a. Heterosis
    b. Repeated throughout its life
    c. Transfer to offspring
    d. Repeatability estimate
A

Repeatability estimate

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22
Q
  1. The average superiority of the crossbreds or offspring compared to the average of their parents is called .
    a. Repeatable estimate
    b. Heterosis
    c. Heritability estimate
    d. None of the above
A

Heterosis

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22
Q
  1. If the heritability estimate is 20%, this means that 80% of the trait expression is
    a. Transfer to offspring
    b. Inherited
    c. Repeated throughout its life
    d. The improved environmental factors
A

The improved environmental factors

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22
Q
  1. In the selection of breed, this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental conditions without drop in egg production
    a. Product quality
    b. Low feed consumption
    c. Hardiness high productivity
    d. None of these
A

Hardiness high productivity

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22
Q
  1. The manner by which the genetic information is transmitted from parents to offspring is through
    a. Autosomes
    b. Germinal
    c. Somatic
    d. Gonadal
A

Somatic

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22
Q

Crossing the first generation with a male belonging to each parent breeds alternatively is
a. Crossbreeding
b. Criss -cross
c. Back cross
d. Inbreeding

A

Criss -cross

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23
Q
  1. If a Holstein Friesian is mated with a Red Sindhi, the resulting offspring is a/an
    a. Crossbred
    b. Upgraded
    c. Inbred
    d. None of the above
A

Crossbred

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23
Q
  1. The method of crossing wherein the first generation crosses are mated with their parents:
    a. Cross breeding
    b. Criss-cross
    c. Back cross
    d. Upgrade
A

Back cross

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23
Q
  1. This breed has a characteristic 50% black and 50% white colored body with good mothering ability
    a. Berkshire
    b. Hampshire
    C. Spotted Poland
    d. Yorkshire
A

Spotted Poland

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24
Q
  1. This breed is well known for the “thick backfat”
    a. Pietrain
    b. Poland China
    c. Spotted Poland
    d. Yorkshire
A

Spotted Poland

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24
Q
  1. The hybridization process of mating or crossing of two different species of animals
    a. Intraspecific
    b. Interspecific
    c. Crisscrossing
    d. Two way crossing
A

Interspecific

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24
Q
  1. The hybridization process of mating the animals belonging to different breeds or strain.
    a. Crossbreeding
    b. Inbreeding
    c. Pure breeding
    d. Upgrading
A

Crossbreeding

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24
Q
  1. This intensifies or fixes hereditary qualities and brings about homozygosity to the hogs.
    a. Close breeding
    b. Cross breeding
    c. Line breeding
    d. Triple crossing
A

Cross breeding

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24
Q
  1. The mating of closely related individuals such as brother to sister, sire to daughter and son to dam.
    a. Close breeding
    b. Cross breeding
    c. Line breeding
    d. Triple crossing
A

Cross breeding

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25
Q
  1. The mating of animals in a lesser degree than close breeding like between cousins, half-brother to half-sister, grandparents to grandchildren or vice versa.
    a. Close breeding
    b. Cross breeding
    c. Line breeding
    d. Triple crossing
A

Line breeding

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25
Q

The successive crossing of progeny to common ancestor
a. Backcrossing
b. Cross crossing
c. Triple Crossing
d. Two way Crossing

A

Backcrossing

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26
Q

Gilt should be bred to farrow the first litter at
a. About 1 year old
b. About 2 year old
c. About 3 year old
d. About 4 year old

A

About 1 year old

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26
Q
  1. The lifetime reproductive performance of the sow is affected during
    a. First Farrowing
    b. Second Farrowing
    c. Third Farrowing
    d. Fourth Farrowing
A

First Farrowing

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26
Q
  1. This refer to the application of genetics and physiology of reproduction to animal improvement or “procreation”
    a. Grading
    b. Breeding
    c. Marking
    d. Farrowing
A

Breeding

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26
Q
  1. This is a protein that greatly influences the tenderness of the muscle after cooking
    a. collagen
    b. reticulin
    c. elastin
    d. myosin
A

collagen

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27
Q
  1. These substances in meat are responsible for the so-called “gamey” flavor of meat of wild animals
    a. nitrogenous extractives
    b. fats
    c. sarcoplasmic proteins
    d. carbohydrates
A

nitrogenous extractives

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27
Q
  1. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals prior to slaughter?
    a. save feeds
    b. low shrinkage
    c. ease of cleaning entrails
    d. short shelf-life
A

short shelf-life

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27
Q
  1. The water requirement for slaughtering a head of cattle or carabao
    a. 30 gallons
    b. 15 gallons
    c. 60 gallons
    d. 35 gallons
A

60 gallons

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27
Q
  1. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughter
    a. Sticking
    b. Scalding
    c. Stunning
    d. Evisceration
A

Stunning

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27
Q
  1. The process of wrapping the beef carcass with cheesecloth soaked in lukewarm water
    a. chilling
    b. scalding
    c. shrouding
    d. evisceration
A

chilling

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28
Q
  1. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
    a. fabrication
    b. meat evaluation
    c. grading
    d. meat chopping
A

fabrication

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28
Q
  1. Which is not included as a wholesale cut of the front quarter of a beef carcass?
    a. ribs
    b. loin
    C. plate
    d. brisket
A

loin

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef contains the sternum?
    chuck
    b. ribs
    c. brisket
    d. loin
A

ribs

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28
Q
  1. This refers to ‘the process of making a stable milk emulsion
    a. pasteurization
    b. cream separator
    c. homogenization
    d. curding
A

homogenization

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28
Q
  1. This cut contains part of the 13th rib and the abdominal muscle
    a. flank
    b. shoulder
    c. loin
    d. belly
A

flank

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29
Q
  1. Incubation period for chicken egg
    a. 18 days
    b. 21 days
    c. 28 days
    d. 24 days
A

21 days

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29
Q
  1. Average incubation period for goose egg
    a. 18 days
    b. 33-35 days
    c. 28-32 days
    d. 42 days
A

28-32 days

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30
Q
  1. Average incubation period for ostrich egg
    a. 42 days
    b. 33-35 days
    c. 28-32 days
    d. 27 days
A

42 days

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30
Q
  1. Brooder pneumonia is caused by
    a. Mycoplasma gallisepticum
    b. Salmonella gallinarum
    c. Aspergillus fumigatus
    d. Pastuerella multicoda
A

Aspergillus fumigatus

30
Q
  1. Recommended length of light hours to stimulate egg production in layers
    a. 8-10
    b. 12-13
    C. 14-16
    d. 21
A

14-16

30
Q
  1. The keel bone is the
    a. Clavicle
    b. “wish bone”
    c. Pygostyle
    d. Sternum
A

Sternum

30
Q
  1. A differentiated outpouching of the esophagus at the cervical and thoracic junction
    a. Cecum
    b. Proventiculus
    c. Crop
    d. Gizzard
A

Crop

30
Q
  1. The mouthpart of duck and geese
    a. Bean
    b. Bill
    c. Snout
    d. Muzzle
A

Bill

30
Q
  1. Young domestic Struthio camelus in the downy stage
    a. Chick
    b. Poult
    C. Duckling
    d. Keet
A

Keet

30
Q

Internal quality that serves as the most common criterion for total egg acceptability
a. Taste
b. Yolk color
c. Foaming
d. Nutritional value

A

Yolk color

30
Q

A progeny of crossing between different species
a. Mutant
b. Hybrid Vigor
c. Hybrid
d. Cross

A

Hybrid

30
Q
  1. Segregated early weaning of piglets allows the advantage of
    a. Faster growth rate
    b. Lowest feed cost
    c. Reduced risk of piglet infection and mortality
    d. Increased reproductive rate of sows
A

Reduced risk of piglet infection and mortality

30
Q
  1. Which of the following animal traits has the most important influence on animal selection an environmental impact which is highly considered by animal breeders at present?
    a. Mothering ability
    b. Litter size
    c. Growth rate
    d. Feed conversion efficiency
A

Growth rate

30
Q
  1. A sow bred on March 26 can be expected to farrow on what specific date listed below?
    a. July 29
    b. July 18
    c. July 11
    d. July 22
A

July 18

30
Q
  1. The economic trait in pigs that can be associated to feed efficiency
    a. Growth rate
    b. Cross bred
    c. Litter size
    d. Back fat thickness
A

Back fat thickness

30
Q
  1. Growth does not only involve increase in size and weight but also changes in the organs. The first to reach full development in the pig’s body:
    a. reproductive organs
    b. skeletal system
    c. lean muscle
    d. adipose tissue
A

skeletal system

30
Q
  1. Cooked pork contains about 23% protein. How many grams of cooked pork is needed to satisfy 50% of the 35g daily rotein allowance a person could consume?
    a. 65g
    b. 99g
    C. 56g
    d. 76g
A

76g

31
Q
  1. The following factors that influence puberty except
    a. Breed
    b. Adding new pen mates
    c. Stimulation by a boar
    d. New animal handlers
A

Breed

31
Q
  1. Mothering ability of a sow is measured by the number of
    a. fatteners sold per sow
    b. piglets weaned per sow per year
    c. piglets reared per sow per year
    d. piglets born alive per sow per year
A

piglets weaned per sow per year

31
Q
  1. In the process of upgrading, heterosis is expected to be highest in
    a. F1 50:50
    b. F2 75:25
    c. F3 87.5:12.5
    d. All equal
A

F1 50:50

31
Q
  1. The mating of animals having diverse genotypes or genetic composition.
    a. Hybridization
    b. Outbreeding
    c. Pure breeding
    d. Inbreeding
A

Hybridization

31
Q
  1. The mating back of thee crossbred progeny to the parent stock using them alternately
    a. Inbreeding
    b. Crisscrossing
    c. Grading
    d. Backcrossing
A

Grading

31
Q

This is done by applying pressure on the rump with both hands.
a. Riding-the-back-test
b. Haunch pressure test
c. Semen-on-Snout-Test
d. Teaser Method

A

Haunch pressure test

32
Q
  1. This is done by riding the back or pressing the loin or back of the animal.
    a. Riding-the-back-test
    b. Haunch pressure test
    c. Semen-on-Snout-Test
    d. Teaser Method
A

Riding-the-back-test

33
Q
  1. This is done by placing sample of fresh semen on the snout of the female by either plain hand or from a squeeze bottle.
    a. Riding -the -back -test
    b. Haunch pressure test
    c. Semen -on -Snout -Test
    d. Teaser Method
A

Semen -on -Snout -Test

33
Q
  1. This is done by placing boar beside the gilt or sows pigpen.
    a. Riding -the -back -test
    b. Haunch pressure test
    c. Semen -on -Snout -Test
    d. Teaser Method
A

Teaser Method

33
Q
  1. Increasing the nutrient intake prior to breeding and during ovulation to increase the productivity of the sow or gilt.
    a. Flushing
    b. Gestating
    c. Breeding
    d. Farrowing
A

Flushing

33
Q
  1. The time or period between breeding and farrowing.
    a. Lactation
    b. Gestation
    c. Ovulation
    d. Parturition
A

Gestation

33
Q
  1. The act of giving birth to a little of pigs.
    a. Lactating
    b. Barrowing
    c. Gestating
    d. Farrowing
A

Farrowing

33
Q
  1. The time from farrowing until weaning.
    a. Lactation
    b. Gestation
    c. Parturition
    d. Ovulation
A

Lactation

34
Q
  1. The process in which certain individuals are preferred to produce in the next generation.
    a. Ovulation
    b. Lactation
    C. Selection
    d. Gestation
A

Selection

34
Q
  1. Which is not included as primal cuts of pork?
    a. loin
    b. shoulder
    c. ham
    d. brisket
A

brisket

34
Q
  1. The predominant carbohydrate in milk
    a. galactose
    b. maltose
    c. lactose
    d. fructose
A

lactose

34
Q

Milk is not rich in this mineral
a. iron
b. calcium
c. zinc
d. fructose

A

iron

34
Q

Strain of broiler used in the contract growing scheme of Tyson’s agribusiness ventures
a. Cobb
b. Anak
c. Magnolia
d. Peterson

A

Anak

34
Q
  1. Commercial broiler strains available in the market except
    a. Pilch
    b. H and N
    c. Hybro
    d. Starcross
A

Starcross

34
Q
  1. Arbor acre is locally known as
    a. Lohmann
    b. Magnolia
    c. Ross
    d. Hubbard
A

Magnolia

34
Q
  1. The common type of house intended for broiler contract growing is
    a. litter floor
    b. range
    c. slat floor
    d. battery cages
A

slat floor

35
Q
  1. In brooding chicks, old newspapers are used as bedding to
    a. serve as litter to absorb moisture of manure
    b. teach birds to recognize pictures
    c. improve the walking stance of chicks for better growth
    d. conserve heat for brooding as insulator
A

serve as litter to absorb moisture of manure

35
Q
  1. In raising 200 broilers in the litter floor, how many feeding trough of one meter length, both sides can be used are required? The feeding space is 4cm/bird
    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 4
    d. 6
A

4

35
Q
  1. is the difference of the mean Phenotypic value between the offspring of the selected parents and the whole of the parental generation before selection.
    a. Selection differential
    b. Response to selection
    c. Selection intensity
    d. Genetic standard deviation
A

Selection differential

35
Q
  1. is when certain genotypes perform well under certain environments than other genotypes.
    a. Epistasis
    b. Fitness
    c. Genotype X Environment interaction
    d. Panmixia
A

Genotype X Environment interaction

36
Q
  1. isa form of non-random mating except
    a. Assortative mating
    b. Disassortative
    c. Inbreeding
    d. Panmixia
A

Panmixia

36
Q
  1. The following are examples of outbreeding except
    a. Crossing of inbred lines
    b. Full sib mating
    c. Interspecific hybridization
    d. Upgrading
A

Full sib mating

36
Q
  1. According to the Hardy-Weinberg Law, the following are factors that affect gene and genotypic frequency in a breeding population except
    a. Migration
    b. Mutation
    c. Selection
    d. Vetrification
A

Vetrification

36
Q
  1. The following is a consequence of inbreeding except
    a. Exposure of undesirable recessive gene combinations
    b. Hybrid vigor
    c. Inbreeding depression
    d. A and Conly
A

Hybrid vigor

36
Q
  1. The scientific name of chicken is
    a. Anas platyrynchus
    b. Coturnix coturnix japonica
    c. Gallus gallus domesticus
    d. Meleagris gallopavo
A

Gallus gallus domesticus

37
Q
  1. isa technique wherein a young embryo is collected from a donor female parent and then implanted into the uterus of a recipient.
    a. Multiple ovulation and Embryo transfer (MOET)
    b. Artificial insemination (AI)
    c. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
    d. Cryopreservation
A

Multiple ovulation and Embryo transfer (MOET)

37
Q
  1. In general, traits that are associated with reproduction (e.g., fertility and litter size) have heritabilities compared to those that are associated with production and product quality traits (e.g. growth rate and back fat thickness).
    a. Higher
    b. Lower
    c. The same
    d. Unknown
A

Lower

38
Q
  1. The scientific name of goats is
    a. Bubalus bubalis
    b. Capra hircus
    c. Equus caballus
    d. Ovis aries
A

Capra hircus

38
Q
  1. This is the upgrade developed between a Jala-jala native pig in Laguna and Berkshire
    a. Diani
    b. Kaman
    c. Berla
    d. Berkjala
A

Berkjala

38
Q
  1. The following are the type of drinkers adopted in raising pigs, except
    a. Nipple
    b. Bite
    c. Water dispenser
    d. Bowl
A

Water dispenser

39
Q
  1. The following are the advantages derived through AI, except
    a. One ejaculate serves 8-10 sows
    b. It extends the usefulness of a good proven dam.
    c. It prevents injury among boar and sow during service
    d. It allows the breeding of boar and sow of different sizes.
A

It extends the usefulness of a good proven dam.

40
Q
  1. A non-surgical method of castration applied in pigs
    a. Single slit
    b. Burdizzo
    c. Improvac
    d. Elastrator
A

Improvac

40
Q
  1. A term for a male pig used for breeding
    a. Junior boar
    b. Stag
    c. Senior boar
    d. A and C
A

A and C

41
Q
  1. A method of feeding ideal for pregnant sows during the first 2 months of pregnancy to prevent her from becoming too fat.
    a. Restricted
    b. Controlled
    c. Full
    d. A and b
A

A and b

41
Q
  1. It is the only method used in identifying pigs for international trade employing the use of numbered plastic or metal materials.
    a. Ear notching
    b. Ear tagging
    c. Tattooing
    d. All
A

Ear tagging

41
Q
  1. A system of raising pigs where all classes of pigs are housed in one building.
    a. Life cycle system
    b. Monitor
    c. Conventional
    d. none
A

Conventional

41
Q
  1. If a dry sow was inseminated in April 29, what is her expected date of farrowing?
    a. Aug 25
    b. July 21
    c. Aug 21
    d. July 25
A

Aug 21

42
Q
  1. If the said sow is to be treated against mange 14 DBF, when shall it be done?
    a. July 7
    b. Aug 17
    c. Aug 7
    d. July 17
A

Aug 7

42
Q
  1. If the sucklings should be creep feed 5 DAF, when should it start?
    a. Aug 26
    b. July 28
    c. Aug 28
    d. July 26
A

Aug 26

42
Q
  1. If we adopt the farmers conventional weaning practice of 35 days, what is the expected date of weaning the litter?
    a. Sept 23
    b. Sept 20
    C. Sept 28
    d. Sept 25
A

Sept 25

42
Q
  1. If the males in the litter will be castrated on the 26th day of August, what is their age at castration time?
    a. 7d
    b. 14d
    c. 5d
    d. 1wk
A

5d

42
Q
  1. If the litter will be fattened for 4 months from t farrowing, when will these hogs be marketed?
    a. Dec 30
    b. Dec 29
    c. Dec 19
    d. Dec 25
A

Dec 19

42
Q
  1. Avian pest is also known as
    a. Fowl Pox
    b. Lymphoid Leukosis
    c. New Castle Disease
    d. Aspergillosis
A

New Castle Disease

42
Q
  1. Given the following FCR values, which value shows the most efficient feed conversion?
    a. 2.5
    b. 1.6
    C. 3.0
    d. 2.5
A

1.6

42
Q
  1. Cairina moschata eggs take how many days to hatch?
    a. 21
    b. 42
    C. 33-35
    d. 27
A

33-35

43
Q
  1. Broiler starter ration should contain protein?
    a. 19%
    b. 15%
    c. 25%
    d. 17%
A

19%

43
Q
  1. How many functional ovaries does a normal sexually mature hen possess?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    C. 3
    d. 0
A

1

43
Q
  1. Vaccine usually administered to day-old chicks at the hatchery
    a. NCD vaccine
    b. Bursal Disease vaccine
    c. Marek’s Disease vaccine
    d. Brooder Pneumonia vaccine
A

Marek’s Disease vaccine

44
Q

Average incubation period for turkey eggs
a. 21 days
b. 28 days
c. 27 days
d. 42 days

A

28 days

44
Q
  1. Albumen is deposited around the yolk when the egg reaches this section of the avian reproductive tract
    a. Magnum
    b. Fimbria
    c. Vagina
    d. Cloaca
A

Magnum

45
Q
  1. Surgically castrated male poultry
    a. Stag
    b. Barrow
    c. Capon
    d. Gelding
    e. Steer
A

Capon

45
Q
  1. The most popular white-egg layer which constitutes about 66% of market share worldwide
    a. Hy-line
    b. Hubbard
    c. Bovans
    d. Shaver
A

Hy-line

46
Q
  1. The hen house average of 500 layers that laid 400 egs
    a. 1.25%
    b. 80%
    C. 20%
    d. 35%
A

80%

46
Q
  1. When piglets have the tendency to have thick carcass fat they tend to:
    a. Have high lean percentage
    b. Reach market weight fast
    c. Have a high feed conversion ratio
    d. Resist heat stress effectively
A

Have a high feed conversion ratio

46
Q
  1. The physical attributes of a gift that can describe its potential for mothering ability are:
    a. Shape and size of vulva
    b. Legs and back
    c. Mammary system and body length
    d. Development of ham, loin and shoulder
A

Mammary system and body length

46
Q
  1. Small piglets are prone to this condition:
    a. Anorexia because of smaller surface to body ratio
    b. Hyperthemia
    c. Hypothermia
    d. Hypoxia
A

Hypothermia

46
Q
  1. False heat occurs in gilts after transport when they are above this age:
    a. 125 days old
    b. 200 days old
    c. 175 days old
    d. 150 days old
A

150 days old

46
Q
  1. Excessive restriction before and after the first few days of farrowing can cause excessive sow excitement. Often, this is due to:
    a. Malnutrition resulting to an increase in piglet’s death by crushing
    b. Excitement
    c. Stress
    d. Hunger
A

Stress

46
Q

A good parent stock should produce an offspring that hasan average daily gain of more than this weight:
a. 750 grams
b. 700 grams
c. 550 grams
d. 650 grams

A

650 grams

47
Q
  1. When there is delayed parturition, the piglet will suffer from lack of oxygen. This condition is termed as:
    a. Toxemia
    b. Anorexia
    c. Hypoxia
    d. Anemia
A

Hypoxia

47
Q
  1. A sow was served by artificial insemination. At what stage can it be assumed pregnant?
    a. Mammary system enlarge and milk is secreted
    b. Markedly gained weight
    c. Absence of estrus after 2nd heat control or day 42 after mating
    d. Missed heat period after 3 weeks
A

Absence of estrus after 2nd heat control or day 42 after mating

47
Q
  1. What happens if there is frequent changing on the position of the sow?
    a. It will decrease feed intake
    b. There is exhaustion of energy
    c. It can result to crushing
    d. It will increase feed intake
A

It can result to crushing

47
Q
  1. Shelf life of a processed boar semen for artificial insemination can be prolonged by storing at this temperature at approximately 40 hours after onset of estrus.
    a. 20 C
    b. 2-8 C
    C. 10-14 C
    d. 16-17 C
A

16-17 C

47
Q
  1. A group of proteins that are polymers.
    a. Amino acids
    b. Energy
    c. Vitamins
    d. Minerals
A

Amino acids

47
Q
  1. They are composed of sugar and starches and are the primary source of energy for the pigs.
    a. Amino acids
    b. Energy
    c. Vitamins
    d. Minerals
A

Energy

47
Q
  1. The indispensable amino acid
    a. Cystine
    b. Alanine
    c. Tyrosine
    d. Lysine
A

Lysine

47
Q
  1. The dispensible amino acid
    a. Aspartic
    b. Arginine
    c. Leucine
    d. Histidine
A

Aspartic

47
Q
  1. This serves also as major source of energy for pigs.
    a. Minerals
    b. Fats
    C. Fiber
    d. Ash
A

Fats

47
Q
  1. It has low energy nutrient content which is less digestible to pigs.
    a. Minerals
    b. Fats
    c. Fiber
    d. Ash
A

Fiber

48
Q
  1. They are classified into complex organic compounds needed in pigs health and normal body processes
    a. Minerals
    b. Fats
    c. Fiber
    d. Vitamins
A

Fiber

48
Q
  1. They are extremely important to proper animal development
    a. Minerals
    b. Fats
    c. Water
    d. Fiber
A

Minerals

48
Q
  1. The most essential and cheapest of all nutrients.
    a. Minerals
    b. Fats
    c. Water
    d. Fiber
A

water

48
Q
  1. The most accepted way of testing the pig for leptospirosis and
    brucellosis.
    a. Riding-the-back-test
    b. Haunch pressure test
    c. Semen-on-Snout-Test
    d. Blood Test
A

blood test

49
Q
  1. The brood sow ration contains CP Equivalent to
    a. 14%
    b. 15%
    C. 16%
    d. 17%
A

14%

49
Q
  1. The crude protein content parent stock
    a. 12-14% CP
    b. 17-18% CP
    c. 16-17% CP
    d. 18-21% CP
A

17-18% CP

50
Q
  1. Gumboro disease is also known as
    a. Avian Pest
    b. Infectious Bursal disease
    c. Fowl Pox
    d. Marek’s disease
A

Infectious Bursal disease

51
Q
  1. The limiting constraints why broilers cannot be extensively raised in rural areas
    a. diseases and parasites
    b. labor requirement
    c. feeds
    d. marketing and distribution
A

labor requirement

51
Q
  1. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist or wet litter causing brooder pneumonia or
    a. coccidiosis
    b. avian pasteurellosis
    c. aspergillosis
    d. mycoplasmosis
A

aspergillosis

52
Q
  1. The average bodyweight of modern broilers now is
    about_ 35-37 days
    a. 2.0 kg
    b. 1.7 kg
    c. 1.4 kg
    d. 1.0 kg
A

2.0 kg

52
Q
  1. When the FCE of broiler is 19 it means
    a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produce 1,9 kg
    b. feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce one kg of broiler
    c. the total feed intake of one broiler is kg
    d. bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by feeding only 1 kilo
A

feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce one kg of broiler

52
Q
  1. Broilers can be raised any time of the year for about per year if the duration of one cycle is 38 days, cleaning of 3 days, selling of 14 days and chick order of 7 days
    a. 5 batches
    b. 9 batches
    c. 7 batches
    d. 3 batches
A

5 batches

53
Q

The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in broiler production
a. labor cost
b. chick cost
c. depreciation
d. light, heat and water

A

chick cost

53
Q

The world-wide numbers of breeds of fowls
a. more than 300
b. more than 200
c. more than 100
d. more than 400

A

more than 300

53
Q
  1. Population of small number of birds isolated within the breed that is responsible with specific characteristics
    a. breed
    b. cross
    c. strain
    d. in-breed
A

strain

53
Q
  1. The chromosome number of the carabao is
    a. 2n=38
    b. 2n=48
    c. 2n=54
    d. 2n=78
A

2n=48

53
Q
  1. The total number of carabaos owned mostly by smallholder farmers in the Philippines is approximately
    a. 30,000
    b. 300,000
    c. 3 million
    d. 30 million
A

3 million

54
Q
  1. The reproductive rate (i.e. expected number of young produced per year) in pigs is
    a. 0.5
    b. 1 to 3
    C. 10 to 25
    d. 50 to 300
A

10 to 25

55
Q
  1. Splanchnic circulation is a part of systemic circulation that supplies blood to the
    a. Heart
    b. Kidney
    c. Liver
    d. Digestive tract
A

Digestive tract

55
Q
  1. Sexual receptivity which coincides with estrus in animals that exhibit estrous cycle is due to large amount of
    a. Testosterone
    b. Progesterone
    c. Estrogen
    d. Relaxin
A

Estrogen

55
Q
  1. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the thyroid gland cells are compensatory mechanisms to counteract the deficiency of which mineral?
    a. Iodine
    b. Phosphorus
    c. Calcium
    d. Iron
A

Iodine

56
Q
  1. Gigantism results from the hypersecretion of which hormone before the closure of the epiphyseal-diaphyseal plate of the long bones.
    a. Prolactin
    b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
    c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
    d. Somatotrophic hormone (STH)
A

Somatotrophic hormone (STH)

57
Q
  1. Destruction of the beta cells of the will lead into a disease condition known as diabetes mellitus.
    a. Liver
    b. Kidney
    c. Pancreas
    d. Adrenals
A

Pancreas

58
Q
  1. A kind of blood cell (cellular element) which is non-nucleated/-and contains a red pigment called hemoglobin
    a. Erythrocyte
    b. Lymphocyte
    c. Thrombocyte
    d. Monocyte
A

Erythrocyte

59
Q
  1. The artery at the base of the tail of an animal where the pulse is detected is called
    a. Femoral artery
    b. Coccygeal artery
    c. Saphenous artery
    d. Pulmonary artery
A

Coccygeal artery

59
Q
  1. All these are viral diseases except
    a. Fowl pox
    b. Fowl cholera
    c. Marek’s disease
    d. New Castle Disease
A

Fowl cholera

59
Q
  1. Hitcher B strain vaccine is administered to boost immunity against
    a. Fowl Cholera
    b. Marek’s Disease
    c. Fowl Pox
    d. Avian Pest
A

Avian Pest

60
Q
  1. Test done to check the quality/fertility of eggs prior to incubation
    a. Culling
    b. Candling
    C. Kindling
    d. Kandling
A

Candling

61
Q
  1. This hormone is responsible to broodiness in poultry
    a. Progesterone
    b. Oxytocin
    c. Prolactin
    d. Endorphin
A

Prolactin

62
Q
  1. Which is the so-called “wish bone” of chicken?
    a. Radius
    b. Clavicle and coracoid
    c. Ulna
    d. Sternum
A

Clavicle and coracoid

63
Q
  1. One of the oldest breeds of chicken developed in Italy in 1900
    a. Leghorn
    b. Cornish
    c. Wyandotte
    d. Cornish
A

Leghorn

64
Q
  1. Reproductive organ in female poultry that produces the shell
    a. Isthmus
    b. Uterus
    c. Magnum
    d. Vagina
A

Uterus

LEA (4 decks)

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