Animal Medicine 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Modified neurons in the hypothalamus produce two hormones:
A
oxytocin, ADH
2
Q
Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis) “master gland” has two separate structures which are?
A
Anterior (adenohypophysis):
- Derived from glandular tissue
- 7 hormones produced when stimulated by the hypothalamus & direct feedback from target organs & tissues
Posterior (neurohypophysis):
- Derived from the nervous system
- Does not produce hormones
- Stores and releases two hormones (produced by the hypothalamus)
3
Q
Adrenal cortex produces too much glucocorticoid hormone(cortisol), Excessive administration of glucocorticoid drugs
A
Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Syndrome)
4
Q
Deficiency of adrenocortical hormones
Sudden withdrawal of corticosteroid drugs that have been given long-term
A
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s Dz)
5
Q
Inner portion derived from nervous tissue, Two very similar hormones are produced Epinephrine, Norepinephrine
A
adrenal medulla
6
Q
The two methods that control hormone secretion are?
A
1) Negative Feedback Systems (ex thyroid gland)
2) Direct stimulation from the nervous system (ex adrenal medulla)
7
Q
Most commonly diseased organs in ___
A
SA (thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid and gonads)
8
Q
The thyroid gland produces what?
A
T3 and T4 produced and stored in gland, Also produces calcitonin
9
Q
Most common endocrine dz in cats is?
A
hyperthyroid (cause is unknown)
10
Q
Beta cell tumor hypersecretion of insulin
A
insulinoma
11
Q
Adrenal gland cortex produces what hormones?
A
glucocortiocoids (cushings), mineralcorticoids, androgenic (sex) hormones
12
Q
What does the parathyroid hormone do?
A
1) Stimulates bone resorption
2) Renal calcium resorption
3) Mediates intestinal calcium absorption
13
Q
What’s the most common endocrine disease in birds?
A
thyroid
14
Q
Helps maintain normal blood calcium level by exerting an effect opposite to that of calcitonin -> helps prevent hypocalcemia
A
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) or Parathormone
15
Q
T/F Parathyroid disease is a primary disease usually from adenoma or carcinoma, which many animals will not show any signs
A
true
16
Q
Pancreas:
1) ____ – “pushes” blood glucose into cells -> lowers blood glucose
2) ___– effects are opposite those of insulin -> stimulates liver to convert glycogen to glucose & stimulates gluconeogenesis -> raises blood glucose
3) _____ – inhibits secretion of insulin & glucagon and reduces activity of gi tract
A
1) insulin
2) glucagon
3) somatostatin
17
Q
Regulation of blood levels of glucose by beta cells (islets of Langerhaans) and produces insulin
A
pancreas
18
Q
Which gland acts as a bridge between the nervous system and the endocrine system?
A
Pituitary gland
19
Q
List two clinical signs seen in pets suspected of having hyperthyroidism.
A
- Weight loss with increased appetite
- Polyphagia
- Vomiting
- Tachycardia w/ or w/o murmur
20
Q
Pertaining to Addison’s disease, what gland is malfunctioning?
A
Adrenal gland (cortex)
21
Q
With Addison’s disease, what group of chemicals is not being secreted adequately?
A
Mineralcorticoids
22
Q
Which endocrine disease can be caused by either a pituitary gland or an adrenal gland tumor in dogs?
A
Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Dz)
23
Q
Which domestic species is presented most commonly for hypothyroidism? hyperthyroidism? Insulinoma?
A
Dog, Cat, Ferret
24
Q
What is the difference between diabetes mellitus (DM) and an insulinoma with regards to lab results?
A
-DM: hyperglycemia, +/- decreased insulin levels; -insulinoma: hypoglycemia, increased insulin
25
List the 2 endocrine diseases that are very commonly seen in pet ferrets in the United States.
AAE/Hyperadrenocorticism, insulinoma
26
Avian thyroid problems result primarily from what husbandry issue
all seed diet
27
Besides administration of insulin, treatment of DM involves regulation of the pet’s ____
diet
28
Diabetes insipidus results from a deficiency of or lack of response to which hormone?
ADH
29
Clinical signs of periodontal disease
- Halitosis
- Reluctance to chew
- Pawing at mouth
- Nasal discharge
- Facial swelling
- Tooth loss
30
Lip-Fold Dermatitis: signs, cause, prevention
- Common in breed with pendulous upper lips and prominent lower lip folds
- Constant moisture from saliva creates environment for bacterial growth
- halitosis, debris collection
- clean area/keep dry
31
Salivary Mucocele: signs, cause, prevention
- Accumulation of excessive amounts of saliva in the SC tissue and the subsequent tissue reaction (Young adult dog dz most commonly GSD and miniature poodles)
- Slowly enlarging, nonpainful, fluid swelling on neck or under tongue, reluctant to eat or swallow
- cause unknown
32
Oral Neoplasms: 2 categories, clinical signs, treatment
- Malignant melanoma and SCC
- Benign tumors
- Halitosis, Blood in saliva, Oral pain, tooth loss
- Surgical removal, jaw removal, chemo
33
Most common trauma of small animals?
oral trauma
34
Esophagitis/gastroesophageal reflux: causes, treatment
- Usually traumatically induced
- Contact with irritants or FB
- Obstruction
- Foreign body ingestion
- Dietary changes to achieve weight loss using high-protein and low-fat diet to normalize gastric emptying
35
A Chronic Enteropathies most common in small animals.
Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enteritis (Chronic antigenic stimulation of the intestinal mucosa)
36
Intestinal Lymphangiectasia: cause, treatment
- Chronic PLE due to impaired lymphatic drainage, Back up of lymph releases fluids into the intestinal lumen
- Treatment aim: reduce protein loss, food, surgery
37
What is Intussusception (Large Bowel Dz)
Etiology usually idiopathic but can be multifactorial, Invagination of smaller bowel into larger, usually near the ileocolic junction
38
Megacolon (Large Bowel Dz) is ___% idiopathic
62%
39
Largest organ of mammalian body except skin is known as
the liver
40
Factors affecting extent of intoxication and damage to the liver are
- Species
- Sex
- Dose
- Route
- Duration of exposure
41
Cholangiohepatitis what is it and what animal is it common in?
- Common in cats, especially Persians
| - Bile duct inflammation involves hepatocytes progressing to cirrhosis
42
Most common hepatopathy seen in cats
Feline Hepatic Lipidosis
43
Portosystemic Shunts: cause/what is it.
- Shunts blood away from the liver into the general systemic circulation
- May be intra- or extrahepatic; single or multiple
- Usually caused by failure of ductus venosus to close at birth
44
Perianal Hernias (Rectoanal) are seen in?
Older, intact male dogs
45
Perianal Gland Adenoma (Rectoanal) is directly related to?
to plasma androgen levels
46
What are the two distinctive processes of digestion?
Mechanical, chemical
47
T/F Treating cases of esophagitis caused by ingestion of irritating substances involves inducing vomiting, administering sucralfate and neutralizing compounds and withholding food for several days.
False
48
On what side of the trachea is the esophagus found?
Left
49
Where does most of the digestion occur in animals that do not require fermentation?
Small intestine
50
List 2 viral causes of diarrhea.
Canine parvovirus, canine distemper virus, feline panleukopenia virus
51
List 3 functions of the liver.
- Metabolizes products of digestion
- Storage of vitamins & minerals
- Recycling of hormones
- Bile synthesis
- Synthesizes plasma proteins
52
Describe the stool from a patient with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI).
Gray, fatty, foul-smelling, watery
53
What is EPI?
Loss of pancreatic acinar cells resulting in decreased digestive enzymes
54
What is one of the most common gastrointestinal problems/presentations in ferrets?
FB ingestion
55
List 2 rectoanal conditions that occur in older, intact male dogs that are treated with castration.
Perianal hernia, perianal gland adenoma
56
List 2 causes of colic in horses.
- Impaction
- Gastric ulcers
- Displacement/entrapment
57
T/F The Pericardial cavity is located in mediastinum. Enclosed by fibroserous membranous sac known as the Parietal & visceral layers.
true
58
Heart contains 3 layers of muscle which are?
1) Epicardium
2) Myocardium
3) Endocardium
59
Only muscle that does not fatigue after continued contractions is known as
the heart
60
What are the names of the Atrioventricular valves? Semilunar?
1) Bicuspid or mitral, tricuspid
| 2) Aortic and Pulmonic
61
Systole is a ______ (1st sound) Lub - AV valves closing
contraction
62
Diastole is ______ (2nd sound) Dub - semilunar valves closing
relaxation
63
Called a ____ rhythm when hear 3 or 4 sounds and indicates dz in SA
gallop
64
____ depolarizes initiating contraction
| Initial stimulus spontaneous
SA node
65
Irregular heartbeat due to normal cyclic changes in vagal tone associated with respiration (HR inc w/ inspiration & dec w/ expiration)
Sinus arrhythmia (AKA Respiratory arrhythmia)
66
What is blood pressure?
force the blood exerts upon the blood vessels
67
Angiotensinogen produced by the ___. Converted to angiotensin I by ____. Converted to angiotensin II by ACE (produced by cells within blood vessel in the lung & kidney), which constricts blood vessels resulting in increased BP
liver, renin
68
4 Effects of Angiotensin II
1) Secretion of aldosterone by adrenal cortex
2) Stimulates secretion of ADH
3) Stimulates thirst
4) Vasoconstrictor (causing increased BP)
69
What are some Circulatory (volume insufficiency) diseases?
1) Hypovolemia
2) Anemia
3) Valvular dysfunction
4) Congenital defects
70
T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy can be genetic in some breeds
true
71
Vasodilator that is an ACE-inhibitor and helps decrease vascular resistance and improve cardiac output
Enalapril (DCM treatment)
72
T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy patients may die suddenly of an arrhythmia
true
73
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomypathy is known as
“Boxer Cardiomyopathy” (genetic dz of boxer)
74
Boxer adults present with ventricular arrhythmias and ____ and are at risk for sudden death
syncope (passing out)
75
T/F Boxer Cardiomyopathy may be subclinical (no signs)
true
76
Feline DCM is attributed to what?
Attributed to lack of taurine in feline diets
77
Feline DCM is typically in older cats, but what genetic predisposition breeds?
Abyssinian, Siamese, Burmese
78
Feline DCM Most dangerous time during treatment is the _____. Those that respond to taurine supplementation have a better prognosis than those that don’t.
1st two weeks
79
T/F Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is rare in dogs
true
80
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in inherited in what breeds?
Pointers (inherited), Rott, G. Shep, Dalm, Boston Terr, Cocker, Shi Tzu
81
What is Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
Thickening of left ventricular myocardium with reduction in chamber size
82
Most common form of cardiomyopathy in cats & most frequent cause of sudden death
Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
83
Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?
Maine Coon Cats & Ragdolls; also Persian, Amer & British Shorthair, Devon Rex & Sphynx
84
T/F As with HCM in dogs, left ventricular hypertrophy is the predominant lesion in Feline HCM.
true
85
HCM Treatment:
- Furosemide
- ACE inhibitors (enalapril)
- Propanolol (Beta-blocker, Decreases oxygen demand or decreases sinus HR)
- Diltiazem (Calcium channel blocker, Inhibits cardiac and vascular smooth contractility, Reduces blood pressure and cardiac afterload)
86
Feline HCM can lead to what type of embolism in cats?
Thromboembolism -> blockage of vessel by a part of a blood clot that has broken off at the site of thrombus formation and traveled to lodge in more distal vessel
87
Serious sequela (pathological condition resulting from a disease) to heart disease in cats
Thromboembolism
88
90% of Thromboembolism lodge in distal aortic trifurcation, this is know as _____.
Saddle thrombus
89
______ results in hindlimb pain and paresis.
Thromboembolism
90
Clinical signs of Thromboembolism
- Acute onset of rear leg pain (vocalizing) & paresis
| - Cold, blue foot pads; no palpable pulses
91
What is the most common cardiomyopathy in ferrets?
Dilatative Cardiomyopathy
92
What is the most common cardiomyopathy in dogs? Cats?
dogs-DCM
| cats-HCM
93
DA fails to close resulting in shunting of blood from systemic circulation to pulmonary artery. Functional closure should occur within 72 hrs after birth. Lung is hyperperfused and machinery murmur created as left side of the heart becomes volume overloaded.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
94
Retained vascular arch forms ring around esophagus causing obstruction and regurgitation of solid food
Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)
95
Why do you feed a dog with Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA) from a height?
It causes regurgitation of solid food leading to aspiration pneumonia
96
Most commonly encountered CV dz in the dog?
Chronic Mitral Valve Insufficiency
97
Heart arrhytmias are deviations from normal heart rate rhythm or rhythms originating from abnormal locations within the heart. They are either abnormal impulse ____ or ___ within cardiac muscle fibers
formation, conduction
98
T/F Avian heart is larger than mammalian heart in proportion to body mass and is designed for rapid depolarization due to their rapid HR
true
100
Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?
Doberman pincer, Boxer, Irish Wolfhound, Great Dane
101
What are the 4 things that occur with Tetralogy of Fallot?
1) Pulmonic stenosis
2) Secondary RV hypertrophy
3) Subaortic VSD
4) Overriding aorta
102
List and describe the tunics of eye.
Outermost fibrous, supporting layer (sclera, cornea); middle vascular tunic (uvea – choroid, ciliary body, iris); inner nervous tunic (retina)
103
What are the functions of the aqueous humor?
Provide nutrition to the avascular lens and cornea; remove waste products of metabolism; occupy space to maintain shape
104
What is the main structural difference between the corneas of nocturnal versus diurnal animals?
Nocturnal animals have a relatively larger cornea to sclera ratio, allowing more light penetration
105
Which part of the nervous system dilates the pupil?
Sympathetic
106
Describe the process of accommodation.
Contraction of ciliary body muscle fibers (causes forward and inward movement of ciliary body which) decreases tension on the suspensory ligaments allowing the lens to become more convex.
107
What is the purpose of accommodation?
It shortens distance of the light rays focusing on retina facilitating close vision.
108
What is nuclear sclerosis?
Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers
109
What does nuclear sclerosis look like?
Blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes
110
List 3 signs of conjunctivitis.
Hyperemia, chemosis, ocular discharge
111
List 2 causes of conjunctivitis.
Immune-mediated follicular conjunctivitis, allergic conjunctivitis (atopy), anatomic conjunctivitis (entropion, ectropion), bacterial conjunctivitis secondary to disruption of tear production, trauma, FB; FHV-1, Calicivirus, Chlamydophila psittaci
112
What is another name for the nictitating membrane?
Third eyelid, nictitans
113
What is the term for the overflow of tears?
Epiphora
114
List 3 functions of the skin.
1) Protection
2) Sensory
3) Body temperature regulation (heat dissipation & retention)
115
The flea is the intermediate host for which parasite (scientific name only)?
Dipylidium caninum
116
What are the common sites for localized lesions in dogs with demodectic mange caused by Demodex canis?
Especially face, around eyes, mouth and ears; sometimes limbs; occasionally trunk
117
What are the common sites for localized the lesions in dogs with sarcoptic mange?
Ears, elbows, hocks, ventrum
118
What is the scientific name of the organism that causes feline scabies?
Notoedres cati
119
Name a skin disease of neglect.
Pediculosis (lice infestation), myiasis (maggots)
120
Name a superficial dermatophyte. What is the commonly used lay term for this infection?
Microsporum canis, M.-ringworm
121
Name an equine skin disorder.
SCC, onchocerciasis 'rain scald', exuberant granulation tissue (“proud flesh”)
122
What are the 3 forms of heart disease in a ferret and which is most common?
1) Dilatative – most commonly
2) Hypertrophic
3) Restrictive - uncommon
123
Increases pressure into the chambers causing ventricular hypertrophy +/- atrial enlargement, stenosis (abnormal narrowing) due to dysplastic or malformed valves
Pulmonic & Aortic Stenosis
124
T/F You can treat Ventricular Tachycardia with Lidocane.
true
125
Given for treatment of adult heart worms. Injections into very specific sites in lumbar epaxial muscles.
Melarsamine dihydrochloride (ImmiticideR)
126
T/F Felines are less susceptible to heart worm infection than dogs which are the definitive host for the parasite
true
127
T/F Felines harbor few heart worm adults which have a shorter life span than they do in dogs; microfilariae are rare
true
128
What are the common heart conditions for a hamster?
Cardiomyopathy and atrial thrombosis
129
Retina is black due to presence of _____
melanin
130
What are the 5 layers of the cornea
1) Anterior epithelium
2) Subepithelial basement membrane (Bowman’s membrane)
3) Substantia propria or stroma
4) Posterior limiting lamina (Descemet’s membrane)
5) Posterior endothelium (Descemet’s endothelium)
131
One of the most sensitive tissues in the body
cornea
132
Increased water uptake results in decreased transparency
Cornea-edema = cloudy appearance
133
Colored portion of the eye that controls the amount of light entering
iris
134
The iris contains two sets of muscles, the one controlled by the ____ that constricts and the one controlled by the _____ that dilates
parasympathetic, sympathetic
135
Positioned in posterior chamber between the iris and retina held in place by suspensory ligaments that are attached to the ciliary body
lens
136
T/F Accommodation is limited in domestic animals, the exception is the cat.
true
137
Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers resulting in blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes
nuclear sclerosis
138
Sandwiched between the sclera & retina
choroid
139
Tapetum lucidum is not found in humans or __
pigs
140
Aqueous humor:
1) behind the iris but in front of the lens
2) behind the cornea but in front of the iris
1) Posterior chamber
| 2) Anterior chamber
141
Not as fluid-like, more gelatinous aka vitreous body
Vitreous humor
142
Through pupil into anterior chamber, out through iridocorneal angle
primary flow of aqueous
143
Innermost tunic of eye
retina
144
Membranes lining the eyeball and palpebrae, the space between globe & conjunctiva is conjunctival sac
conjunctiva
145
What 3 things is the lacrimal apparatus responsible for?
1) Formation of tears
2) Transport to sac
3) Drainage to the nasal cavity
146
The third eyelid is the fold of the ______. Well developed in the dog, highly mobile. Large enough to cover the entire cornea and is reinforced by ______
conjunctiva, T-shaped cartilage
147
T/F Conjunctivitis is commonly a primary disease in dogs.
false-rare
148
What are some breeds prone to epiphora?
cocker spaniels, poodles, brachycephalic breeds
149
Inflammation of eyelids -> swelling of eyelids
Blepharitis
150
What are some causes of Blepharitis?
1) Demodex
2) Allergiec
3) Bacterial
4) Other eye diseases (dry eye)
151
Eyelids roll in
entropion
152
Eyelids roll out
Ectropion 'diamond eye'
153
What breeds are most likely to have ecto and endotropions?
brachycephalic (congenital), with large orbits and deep set eyes
154
What do you not use when treating Ulcerative Keratitis (Corneal Ulcers)?
steriods
155
Superficial vascularization and infiltration of granulation tissue (pink or tan)
Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)
156
What breed is most prone to Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)?
german shepards
157
Inadequate tear production (AKA “Dry Eye”)
Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)
158
Failure to treat Dry Eye will result in _____
blindness
159
Causes of Dry Eye?
Idiopathic atrophy of lacrimal glands-most commonly
160
What is the first eye test that is performed?
Schirmer Tear Test (STT)
161
Opacity of the lens sufficient to cause a reduction of function
cataracts
162
What are some causes of cataracts?
uveitis, lens luxation, trauma, hyopcalcemia, electric shock, nutritional deficiencies
163
What part of the eye is infected with anterior uveitis?
iris, ciliary body, and choroid (uveal tract)
164
What are some signs of anterior uveitis?
- Blepharospasm
- Photophobia
- Epiphora
- Corneal edema
- Change in iris color with chronic
165
Aqueous humor unable to leave eye causing increased pressure inside of a closed system
Glaucoma
166
What are the primary and secondary cause of glaucoma?
1) primary-inherited (Cocker, basset hound)
2) secondary-Obstruction of drainage from another disease process
3) acute-emergency!
167
Loss of vision in low light or at night often is the 1st sign
Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)
168
T/F Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) has no cure or treatment.
true
169
How can cats get Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?
acquired dz due to taurine deficient diet
170
Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) can be hereditary in what breeds?
Lab Ret, Gold Ret,Toy/Mini Poodle, Irish Setter, Schn, Collie
171
T/F Any ocular disease in Equine is an emergency.
true
172
What are Filoplumes?
specialized feathers at lid margins that function like eyelashes in birds
173
T/F Birds have a tapetum lucidium.
false
174
Ctenocephalides spp. are known as the
cat flea
175
What are the 3 types of mange?
1) Demodectic
2) Sarcoptic
3) Notoedric
176
T/F No products are currently approved for in cats for Demodex.
true
177
Demodex aurati and Demodex criceti usually reside where on a hamster?
hair follicles & sebaceous glands
178
What dip can you not use with cats in treatment of Demodex?
ParamiteR Dip
179
T/F Notoedric Mange is rarely found in cats, but it can be found in rabbits.
true
180
Flies will deposit their eggs in warm, wet areas which will the hatch into ____
Myiasis (maggots)
181
How do you treat Lice (Pediculosis)?
All pets in house with insecticide dip-Ivermectin (off-label)
182
Deep Pyoderma-____ is the 1o organism causing infection
Staphylococcus intermedius
183
Explain what is meant by ‘core vaccine’.
According to current guidelines, core vaccines are those recommended as “mandatory for every patient”
184
Rabies is a core vaccine for both dogs and cats. List one other core vaccine for the dog and one for the cat
- DA2P (canine distemper virus, adenovirus, parvovirus)
| - FVRCP (feline rhinotracheitis virus (herpesvirus), calicivirus, feline panleukopenia virus (feline parvovirus).
185
According to the updated vaccination guidelines, based on the duration of immunity demonstrated by commercial vaccines, how often should booster vaccinations with core vaccines be given to adult dogs and cats?
Every 3 years
186
In general, noncore vaccines should be administered ____ to maintain adequate immunity.
annually
187
The vaccine ‘cold chain’ must be maintained throughout transport, storage and handling of vaccines to preserve maximum effectiveness of the vaccines. The recommended temperature range for this is?
35-45 F (2-7 C).
188
In addition to excessive heat (and cold), exposure to what else can cause vaccines to be rendered ineffective?
Exposure to light
189
List 4 specific tips for storage and handling of vaccines that will help ensure that vaccines retain efficacy.
1) store in center of fridge
2) keep a log of the expiration date
3) order from a reputable manufacturer
4) have a full-size refrigerator for storage
190
List 2 reasons why vaccines should not be reconstituted and/or drawn up into a syringe until needed.
May be more temperature sensitive (and likely will have increased exposure to light), risk of bacterial contamination and overgrowth, risk of mistaken identity/using wrong vaccine
191
The American Association of Feline Practitioners recommends using vaccines within _____ of reconstitution.
30 minutes
192
T/F After vaccination, patients commonly experience mild fever, inappetence and/or lethargy that can last for 1 or 2 days.
true
193
List 2 mild adverse reactions that can occur secondary to vaccine administration.
Local irritation, inflammation, swelling, pain hair loss, abscess formation; failure to immunize
194
List 2 severe vaccine reactions.
Anaphylaxis, autoimmune disorders, immunosuppression, development of long-term carrier state or, rarely, of tumors (injection-associated sarcomas in cats), hypertrophic osteodystrophy (rare), juvenile cellulitis associated with MLV distemper vaccine in Weimaraners (rare)
195
The details of any adverse event associated with administration of a vaccine should be recorded in the medical record and reported to?
to the vaccine manufacturer and the USDA Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB)
196
Regarding how specific immunity is acquired, what is the difference between active and passive immunity?
Active - direct exposure of antigen, Passive - antibodies are transferred from one animal to another
197
List 2 primary organs of the immune system.
Thymus, bone marrow, bursa of Fabricius, Peyer’s patches, lymphoglandular complexes
198
List 2 secondary organs of the immune system.
Lymph nodes, hemal nodes, tonsils, spleen
199
List the 5 peripheral lymph nodes that are evaluated during physical examination of dogs and cats
Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, inguinal, popliteal
200
List 2 diseases for which vaccines typically provide long-lived immunity.
K-9 distemper, adenovirus & parvovirus; feline panleukopenia; rabies
201
List 1 disease for which immunity is short-lived with vaccination.
Feline rhinotracheitis, calicivirus & chlamydophila; leptospirosis
202
List 2 reasons for vaccine failure assuming the vaccine was administered correctly.
1) Correct administration but failure to respond
| 2) May have been incubating the dz at time of vaccination
203
List 2 of the 5 categories of adverse consequences of vaccines.
1) Residual virulence and toxicity
2) Allergic responses
3) Disease in an immunodeficient host
4) Neurological complications
5) Harmful effects on the fetus
204
What are the primary cells of the immune system and where are they produced?
Lymphocytes, bone marrow
205
What are serum antibody titers?
The relative concentration of circulating Ab to a particular Ag
206
List the classes of immunoglobulins.
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD
207
Define ‘immunologically competent’.
Ability of an animal to produce an immune response on exposure to an Ag
208
Innate Immune Responses known as ______ are composed of chemical mediators of inflammation, plasma proteins and phagocytic cells which are the _____
Natural Immunity, 'first responders’
209
Natural Killer (NK) cell are a specific type of ______
lymphocyte
210
Small proteins released by macrophages, lymphocytes and cells infected by viruses
interferons
211
Protein in plasma that assists and enhances antibody action by labeling organisms and infected cells so other cells can destroy them
Complement
212
What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?
Rubor (redness), Calor (hot), Tumor (pain), Dolor (swelling), loss of function
213
What are the 2 primary lymphocytes?
T-cells and B-cells
214
Migrate to thymus & mature there
Associated with GALT & found in spleen & LN. Have specific antigen (Ag) receptors on cell surface. Attach to antigens and destroy by the secretion of cytotoxic substances. Cell-mediated immunity.
T-cells
215
```
Migrate to spleen, LN
Produce antibodies (Ab) to specific antigens. Contain surface Ab. Antibody related or humoral immunity.
```
B-cells
216
Secreted by plasma cells in spleen, LN and BM. Smallest Ig molecule - can escape from blood vessels easiest. Binds to surface Ag on bacteria. Activates complement
IgG
217
Produced by plasma cells in spleen, LN & BM. Major Ig produced in primary response. Produced in small amounts but more active in complement activation than IgG. Rarely enter tissues due to extremely large size. Neutralizes viruses and Agglutinates some Ag .
IgM
218
Secreted by plasma cells under mucosal surfaces. Intestinal walls, respiratory tract, urinary system, skin, mammary glands. Passes through epithelial cells into external secretions. Major protection for intestines, respiratory tract, mammary glands, eyes. Can agglutinate Ag and Can neutralize viruses.
IgA
219
Made by plasma cells beneath the body’s surface. Very small so cannot bind Ag. Triggers acute inflammation. Binds to mast cells and basophils. Ag binds to IgE to stimulate release of other molecules. Type I sensitivity.
IgE
220
Not detected in all mammals. Found mainly attached to B cells. Easily destroyed by proteases, especially those found when blood clots.
IgD
221
What are the two types of immunization? What are there differences?
```
1) Active - give Ag
Animal must mount own response
Second exposure mounts quicker response
Immunity long lasting
2) Passive – give Ab
Immediate protection
Short lived
```
222
Passive Immunity is most effective in protecting against _____ organisms
toxigenic
223
Vaccines are divided into ____ and ___ vaccines due to safety and efficacy issues.
core, noncore
224
What are some examples of the vaccines associated with the third group?
Canine Coronavirus, Canine Adenovirus 1, Giardia (dog & cat) and FIP vaccines are examples
225
What are the most common routes to administer vaccines?
SC or IM
226
Residual Virulence and Toxicity from vaccines result most commonly from ____
sting from formaldehyde
227
What test is this: Used to detect FIV Ab, RBCs have Ag on their cell surface
Hemagglutination
228
What test is this: Detects Heartworm Ab or Ag (Heska, Abaxis), Ab or Ag is attached to a material that can migrate through a membrane support
Lateral Flow
229
What test is this: Detects Borrelia Ab (IDEXX) and HTW Ab (Synbiotics), Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
Indirect ELISA
230
What test is this: Detects HTW Ag, FeLV, CPV (IDEXX SNAP Tests)
Sandwich ELISA
231
What is a pansystemic disease?
Those diseases that involve multiple body systems in addition to the primary target organ
232
Feline Panleukopenia can infect all species of Felidae as well as Procyonidae (raccoons, coatimundi) & some Mustelida (mink, skunks) but not ____
ferrets
233
Severe, highly contagious Parvovirus (‘old timers’ may refer to as “feline distemper”)
Feline Panleukopenia
234
T/F Feline Panleukopenia is shed through feces, and that is the only part that is contagious.
false-All body secretions are contagious
235
T/F Survivors of Feline Panleukopenia acquire life-long immunity
true
236
Caused by a Retrovirus and is associated with both neoplastic & nonneoplastic conditions (immunosuppression) that frequently results in death
Feline Leukemia
237
Clinical signs seen in FeLV (Feline Leukemia) result primarily from immunosuppression, neoplasia and/or _____
anemia
238
If you are going to vaccinate a kitten/cat for FeLV what must you do first?
test before vaccinating, no point in vaccinating a cat already positive
239
Is there a cure for FeLV?
no-restrict free roaming cats
240
Caused by a Lentivirus that is morphologically & biochemically similar to HIV but antigenically different. Infects lymphocytes, macrophages, salivary glands & CNS.
Feline Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (Feline AIDS)
241
T/F Maternal ab may be passed through colostrum, so kittens must be retested for FIV after they are 6 months old
true
242
FIV tests cannot distinguish Ab due to natural infection (or passive transfer) from Ab produced by vaccination -> vaccinated cats will be + on testing for at least ___ after vaccination
1 yr
243
What are some clinical signs of FIV?
- Gingivitis, stomatitis - may require extraction of all teeth
- Skin, ear
- URI (upper respiratory infection)
- Fever, cachexia (muscle wasting) – common
- Anemia
244
T/F Lentiviral infections are lifelong so detection of FIV-specific Ab in blood is considered a reliable indicator of infection in adult cats that are not vaccinated
true
245
Is there a cure for FIV? Does it pose a health hazard to humans?
No, no
246
Progressive, fatal systemic disease caused by Feline Coronavirus (FCoV)
Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
247
Risk factors for development of FIP
- Young, intact males < 4 mos; most often 6 mos – 2 yr; but any age
- Purebred cats (polygenic mode of inheritance suggested*)
- Bengal, Abyssinian, Himalayan, Birman, Ragdoll, Rexes – reportedly at higher risk*
- Group confinement
- Concurrent infection with FeLV
248
How is FCoV transmitted?
- Excreted in oral & respiratory secretions, feces and urine
- Ingestion (fecal-oral) most commonly; possibly inhalation also
249
Lesions of FIP result from immune-mediated reactions to virus-infected ______
macrophages
250
What are the 2 forms of FIP?
1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)
| 2) noneffusive = dry
251
What are clinical signs of the wet form of FIP?
Fluid distention of the abdomen (ascites)
252
What are clinical signs of the dry form of FIP?
- neurological signs
| - eye lesions
253
Fatal neurologic disease of mammals caused by a Rhabdovirus in the genus Lyssavirus
Rabies
254
____ is not technically a pansystemic disease but exposure & potential transmission occurs after examination of animal with vague signs that may be referable to various organ systems
Rabies
255
What are the stages for the clinical signs in Rabies?
1) Prodromal-Characterized by changes in behavior (greatest risk of exposure for humans)
2) Furious (Excitatory phase)- animal may attack and be hyperactive
3) Paralytic-paralysis, difficulty swallowing, hypersalivation
256
How is rabies spread?
Spread via saliva of an infected animal (enters body through bite or other open wound or through mucous membranes; aerosol transmission can occur
257
What are considered the "Rabies species" in the US?
Raccoon, skunk, bat, fox & coyote
258
T/F There is no specific tx for rabies and tx is not attempted with animals
true
259
How do you prevent Rabies?
vaccination! -all dogs, cats, ferrets, horses
260
Severe, highly contagious multisystemic dz caused by Canine Distemper Virus (CDV), a Paramyxovirus in the genus Morbillivirus
Canine Distemper
261
Many wild carnivores are susceptible to Canine Distemper (canids, large felids (but not ____, mustelidae, procyonidae spp., etc.)
domestic cats
262
How is Canine Distemper transmitted?
Shed in all body secretions and excretions. Primary source of exposure via aerosolized secretions.
263
What are some clinical signs of Canine Distemper?
- Respiratory-bronchopneumonia
- GI – diarrhea, vomiting
- Nervous – “chewing gum seizures”, myoclonus
- Neurologic signs may appear wks to yrs after infection
- Eye – conjunctivitis, uveitis
- Hyperkeratosis of foot pads (“hard pad dz”)
264
Canine Distemper prognosis guarded (for survival) to poor (for return to normal function) if neurologic signs are present. Euthanasia is recommended for ___ with CDV as it is about 100% fatal in this species even with treatment.
ferrets
265
Acute, highly contagious viral enteritis
Canine Parvovirus
266
How is Canine Parvovirus transmited?
Fecal-oral transmission
267
What are some breeds prone to Canine Parvovirus?
- Rott
- Doberman
- Am Staff/Pit bull terrier
- GSD
- Lab Ret
268
What are some clinical signs of Canine Parvovirus?
* Intractable fluid, bloody diarrhea
* Vomiting
- Anorexia
- Depression
- Fever
269
T/F Weak positives seen for 1-2 wks after vaccination of Canine Parvovirus
true
270
What is the definition of rhinitis?
Inflammation of the nasal passages
271
List 3 general causes of rhinitis.
Infectious, allergic, foreign body tumor/polyp
272
What will one see when examining the oropharyngeal cavity of a dog with tonsillitis?
Reddened, hypertrophied (swollen/enlarged) tonsils that may be coated with mucus or pus or have superficial abscesses
273
List 2 clinical signs seen with nasal tumors.
Unilateral, mucoid nasal discharge; nasal hemorrhage
274
List a common type of nasal tumor.
SCC, adenoCA
275
Why must animals who present with laryngitis or loss of voice initially be handled with caution?
Change in phonation or loss of voice occurs with infection with Rabiesvirus
276
A canine patient presents with a dry, hacking cough of several days duration but otherwise appears healthy. The owner reports that his dog has received all of the vaccines on the immunization schedule recommended for his dog based on their lifestyle and wants to know why his dog has clinical signs. What do you tell him?
Vaccines for kennel cough (and CI also) are geared toward reducing the severity of clinical signs not to prevent infection.
277
List the 3 most common clinical signs associated with infection with FHV-1.
Acute onset of sneezing, rhinitis (may be purulent), conjunctivitis
278
List a clinical sign/lesion less commonly seen but is consistent with feline herpesvirus particularly when seen with respiratory signs.
Herpetic keratitis, ulcerated nasal planum (will accept abortion also)
279
For how long should cats with signs of FVH-1 be isolated from healthy, uninfected cats? Why?
3 weeks, Shed virus for 3 wks
280
Most dogs with Canine Influenza have mild disease consisting of a persistent soft, moist cough +/- a low-grade fever and purulent nasal discharge. What signs do dogs with the more severe form of CI have?
Signs of pneumonia -> fever of 104-106 F, increased RR & effort
281
Cats with serous oculonasal discharge and oral ulceration most likely are infected with ___
FCV
282
List 3 major differences between infection with common strains of feline calicivirus and virulent systemic calicivirus.
Vaccine doesn’t protect from VS-FCV; different more severe dz/clinical signs including cutaneous edema, ulceration & alopecia on head & limbs, coagulopathies due to DIC, liver necrosis & pancreatitis (icterus), pulmonary edema, TE; common strains affect young but VS-FCV most often in adults; 67% mortality with VS-FCV despite tx
283
List all the possible components of Feline Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex.
FHV-1, FCV, Chlamydophila felis, Mycoplasma spp.
284
Family Rickettsiaceae includes Spotted Fever Group (SFG) _____
Rickettsia
285
T/F In most, transmission is suspected to require prolonged tick attachment and feeding of 5-24 hours or more
true
286
Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia, some Neorickettsia spp. & possibly E. canis are _____
zoonotic
287
Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis is caused by ____ whose primary vector is the _____, Rhipicephalus sanguineus, but also can be transmitted by Dermacentor variabilis, the American Dog Tick .
Ehrlichia canis, Brown Dog Tick
288
Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis incubation period?
1-3 weeks
289
E. chaffeensis, mainly transmitted by the ______, Amblyomma americanum, is the cause of human monocytic ehrlichiosis and occas. causes this dz in dogs
Lone Star Tick
290
T/F Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis has multiple stages that occur which may not be easily distinguished in naturally infected dogs
true
291
____ form of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis: Organism multiplies in circulating mononuclear cells & in spleen & liver and then spreads to other organs
acute
292
Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis has a wide variety of clinical signs occur, from mild to severe - some nonspecific including:
fever, lethargy/depression, anorexia, lymphadenomegaly
293
Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis signs of bleeding disorders
anemia, mild epistaxis
294
Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis ocular signs including anterior uveitis, hyphema, tortuous retinal vessels & subretinal hemor w/ detachment & blindness lasts ___ and signs usually resolve spontaneously
1-4 wks
295
T/F Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis the subclinical Stage – dogs recovering from acute stage may remain subclinically infected for months or years
true
296
Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis ____ phase – commonly see fever, dep., weakness, anorexia, chronic weight loss, edema of limbs, tail, scrotum as well as bleeding disorders -> death
chronic
297
How can you diagnose Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?
- ELISA (IDEXX 4DX)
- PCR
- CBC/Chem – nonregenerative anemia, thrombocytopenia, +/- pancytopenia/hyperglobulinemia
298
Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis treatment? Prevention?
- Doxycycline
| - tick control
299
Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum (formerly Ehrlichia phagocytophila)transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks – incubation period = ___
1-14 days
300
Also causes Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly E. equi) and Human Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly “the agent of Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis”)
Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
301
T/F Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis Infects a wide range of mamals including dogs, cats, horses, ruminants, people & many wildlife spp. WT deer & several species of rodents are the primary reservoir hosts
true
302
Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis when clinical signs are present in dogs, they most often are assoc. w/ ____ phase of the infection – severity varies; usually lasts from one to several days
acute bacteremic
303
Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis clinical signs.
Most common more specific signs are joint pain & lameness due to polyarthritis (must R/O Lyme Dz). Less commonly seen signs include vom/diar, coughing, labored breathing and neuro. signs due to meningitis
304
How can you diagnosis Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?
- Identification of morulae in neutrophils
- PCR
- ELISA (IDEXX SNAP 4Dx)
305
Why do you take blood for testing purposed before giving antibiotics?
Take blood for testing before giving antibiotics or may get false negative results!
306
What will you see on a blood smear with a dog that has Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis? CBC?
- Thrombocytopenia (More than 80% will have this)
- Lymphopenia initially then an increase Reactive lymphocytes
- CBC: Hyperfibrinogenemia, Elevated serum Alk Phos
307
Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis treatment and prevention?
- Doxycycline (Resolution of clinical signs usually accomplished but organisms may not be completely cleared)
- tick control
308
What type of organisms are rickettsiae?
Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria
309
How are rickettsial diseases transmitted?
Tick-borne
310
List 2 species (include full genus and species names) of rickettsial organisms that are zoonotic.
Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia
311
While evaluating a blood film from a dog you see a morula within the cytoplasm of a lymphocyte. Which rickettsial organism is the dog most likely infected with? What should be done next to support this finding?
Ehrlichia canis, IDEXX SNAP 4Dx
312
List 2 physical examination findings that would suggest infection with Ehrlichia canis. What information in the history (or perhaps also from the physical exam) would support this?
Lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly, edema in hind legs & scrotum, anemia, mild epistaxis, petechiae & ecchymoses, hyphema, anterior uveitis. Tick problem/see ticks on the dog.
313
Dogs that recover from the acute stage of ehrlichiosis may remain subclinically infected for long periods of time. What else can occur during the subclinical phase of the disease?
They also may clear the organism or develop chronic dz.
314
The most common specific clinical sign/lesion seen with disease caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum in dogs is? What other disease is the major rule out based on the above?
joint pain/lameness due to polyarthritis. Lyme Dz
315
List one clinical pathological (lab work) abnormality seen with both E. canis and A. phagocytophilum.
Thrombocytopenia, reactive lymphocytosis
316
Your patient "Zeus," a 10 yr old poodle with a history of depression, ataxia, and weakness. His owner reports that these clinical signs are intermittent and appear worse with exercise or excitement. Recently he exhibited odd behavior last night and had a seizure. He appears a little dull in the exam room but he perks up after eating several chewy dog snacks. Based on his history and clinical signs, but can be ruled out?
insulinoma
317
Laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include:
fecal examination/analysis
318
Your patient is "Bella" a 1 1/2 yr old intact female GSD presented for weight loss, very loose stool, and flatulence. Her owner reports that she's always hungry and eats everything in sight including the cat's as well as her own feces. Bella is BAR, bcs of 3 of 9, and a poor hair coat. Parasites are not seen on fecal examination, but there is a lot of fat droplets and her stool is pale tan to grey. You suspect she has
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
319
A heart murmur and dog's cough are consistent with _____
chronic mitral valve insufficiency
320
T/F Hypertropic cardiomyopathy is the most common form of myocardial disease in cats.
true
321
What ventricle is affected with HCM?
left ventricle
322
T/F Sinus bradycardia is not an uncommon finding in highly conditioned athletic dogs.
false-generally not recommended
323
T/F Gastrointestinal and neurologic signs are usually seen in cats with heartworm disease
true
324
What is the scientific name of heartworm
Dirofilaria immitis
325
Individuals with arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy are symptomatic with ventricular arrhythmias and ____
syncope
326
List 2 clinical signs or lab findings associated with Addison's disease
lethargy, depression, weakness
327
What would you tell Bella's owners to educate them about EPi?
it's never going away it can be managed not cured
328
You examine a 1 yr old English Bulldog with a heart murmur and prominent jugular pulses a history of exercise intolerance and fainting. Radiographs reveal right ventricular enlargement. What is it most likely? Besides discussing the diagnosis and treatment options with the owner what else should the client be told?
pulmonic stenosis, don't breed
329
What is not true regarding the iris:
a) controls the amount of light entering the eye
b) may change color when inflamed
c) contains smooth muscles in mammals
d) contains striated muscle in birds and reptiles
e) all are correct
e) all are correct
330
T/F The retinas of domestic mammals control mainly rods used for night vision.
true
331
Pannus is a progressive, degenerative eye disease of the dog that can cause blindness. It is also known as? Name a breed with this as a predisposition.
kertoconjuncitivitis sicca, GSD
332
T/F Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite that infests cats, dogs, rabbits, and ferrets
false
333
A neurotoxin in the saliva of what causes an ascending flaccid paralysis in dogs?
hard tick
334
T/F Demodex spp. mites are host specific and that infect dogs do not infect cats and vice versa
true
335
List 2 endocrine diseases that produce bilateral alopica in the dog.
1) hypothyroidism
| 2) hyperadrenocorticism
336
List 2 endocrine disease commonly found in the cat
1) hyperthyroidism
| 2) DM
337
List 2 endocrine organs that become commonly effected in a ferret.
1) adrenal gland
| 2) pancreas
338
List 2 clinical signs seen with diabetes mellitus
1) increased water intake
| 2) pu/pd
339
Name clinical finding secondary to DM that is common in dogs but rare in cats
cataracts
340
List 2 types of oral neoplasms
1) SCC
| 2) fibrosarcoma
341
List 4 accessory organs.
1) liver
2) pancreas
3) gallbladder
4) teeth
342
Explain why the liver is so susceptible to ingested toxins.
because its still part of the GI tract and it goes to the iiver first
343
List 2 infectious causes of hepatitis in a dog
1) leptosporsis
| 2) infectious canine hepatitis (adenovirus 2)
344
What is the most common liver disease in cats?
feline hepatic lipidosis
345
What does supraventricular mean?
above the ventricles
346
Name some difference in heatworm in a dog and a cat
1) cats are not as susceptible and are not the definite host
2) dogs have more worms
3) harder to diagnose in cats
4) no treatment in cats
347
What is the main difference in cat heartworm vs ferrets
in ferrets you can see the microfilaria
348
What is the term for inflammation of the eyelids?
blepharitits
349
What is the function of the tapetum lucidium?
amplifies light for low light conditions
350
Name 2 types of eye diseases/eye conditions
1) glaucoma
| 2) cataracts
351
List the difference between demodectic and sarcoptic mange
- demodectic can be hereditary
- demodectic is not zoonotic
- demodectic is associated with immunosuppression
352
List 3 canine or feline disease that are zoonotic
1) Sarcoptic Mange-scabies
2) Ringworm
3) Noedrec mange
353
List 3 diseases, from any of the organ systems, which the GSD is predisposed to
1) canine hypertropic cardiomyopathy
2) ventricular tachycardia
3) persistent right aortic arch
354
Which of these do not cause immunosuppression:
a) CDV
b) FeLV
c) FIPV
d) CPV
e) FIV
c) FIPV
355
What is the primary mode of transmission for each virus:
1) FIV
2) CDV
3) RV
4) FPV
5) FeLV
6) CPV
7) FIPV
1) bite
2) aerosolized droplets
3) bite
4) fecal-oral
5) oronasal
6) fecal-oral
7) fecal-oral
356
What's the difference between vertical and horizontal transmission?
vertical: parent to offspring
horizontal: everything else animal to animal, fomite
357
When maternal immunity is too low in the young to protect against disease, why is it helpful in determining frequency of vaccinations?
it counteracts the vaccine
358
List 2 reasons for CORE vaccines
1) morbidity and mortality
| 2) widespread (risk of exposure)
359
Give 1 reasons for performing a vaccine titer
if they have a titer to see if we can vaccinate or to find a nonresponder
360
What might i mean if there is a negative titer but has been vaccinated several times throughout their life?
the animal does not respond
361
List 3 clinical signs that may be from acute vaccine reactions
1) acute anaphylaxis
2) swelling
3) inflammation
362
When discharging a patient who has had previous reactions to vaccines what do you tell the owner?
don't leave animal alone and watch for signs of a reaction
363
2 things that are important when caring for a hospitalized CPV patient.
1) isolation
| 2) strict aseptic of IV catheter
364
List 2 of the 3 organ systems affected with CPV
1) neuro
| 2) respiratory
365
List 2 clinical forms of FIP and which is most common.
1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)
| 2) noneffusive = dry
366
What is the most common clinical sign seen with the common form of FIP?
ascites
367
How is FIV prevented other than vaccination
restrict free roaming cats
368
Why is the FIV vaccination generally not recommended for shelter cats?
Does not protect against all strains of virus
369
What can be used as a prognostic indicator in patients with parvovirus?
total WBC count
370
What advice would you give an owner with a young clinically normal but positive FeLV test
retest the kitten
371
List 2 species that are not felids that are susceptible to FPV
1) racoons
| 2) coati
372
List 3 species that are not felids that are susceptible to CPV
1) ferrets
2) racoons
3) coati
373
What is the usual incubation period of rabies?
3-8 weeks
374
What is the appropriate specimen for rabies virus? What is important to remember about specimen handling?
brain tissue, don't freeze it and appropriate biohazard labeling
375
List the vaccine administration sites: FeLV ____, RV _____, FVRCP ____
left rear leg, right rear leg, left front limb
376
T/F Primary organs of the immune system include thymus, bone marrow, and spleen
false-spleen secondary
377
Natural killer cells (lymphocytes) are part of the innate immune system and can rapidly recognize and destroy abnormal cells. Which is true:
a) they detect ab on the surface
b) they release substances that cause cell destruction
c) they engulf and destroy abnormal cells
d) they bind to pathogens and destroy them
b) they release substances that cause cell destruction
378
When a virus infects cells of the body, the cells are stimulated to release small proteins that prevent replication of the virus in neighboring cells. These protective proteins are called
interferons
379
The production of antibodies in response to specific antigen stimulation is known as the immune response. The cells of the immune system that produce antibodies are
b cell lymphocytes
380
Where are b lymphocytes found after birth?
spleen and lymph nodes
381
Which class of antibody has the highest concentration in serum and is the smallest molecule that can escape from blood vessels easiest.
igG
382
Give 2 examples of noncore vaccines
Lepto, FeLV
383
T/F Noncore vaccines are either directed against disease of little clinical significance or confer protection against infection or development of clinical signs
false-not recommended
384
T/F Passive immunity provides immediate protection but it short lived compared to active immunity
true
385
The presence of an antigen stimulates the production of antibodies and of memory cells which can recognize and respond to that antigen if it presented to them again. This is the process utilized by vaccines. The memory cells are:
b lymphocytes
386
Which class of antibody is associated with class I hypersensitivity?
IgE
387
A good effective vaccine should protect ____ of animals
80%
388
An acute inflammatory response that occurs when antigen binds IgE receptors on mast cells is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? If this is was an acute allergic reaction it would be called?
type I, anaphylaxis
389
A positive reaction to tuberculin testing is an example of a type of
IV
390
In the US, standardized laboratory methods for determining serum antibody titers for vaccine antigens have only been established for?
RV-rabies virus
391
Perinatal infection with this virus can cause cerebellar hypoplasia
FPV-feline panleukopenia virs
392
List 2 other neurological clinical signs seen in young animals with FPV
ataxia, falling to side
393
Which of the following is labile (cannot survive in environment):
a) FPV
b) CDV
c) CPV
d) FIPV
b) CDV
394
The great exposure to RV to humans is the ____ stage
prodomal
395
List 2 clinical signs seen with rabies in humans
1) change in behavior
| 2) fever
396
The vaccine for this virus is noncore but i highly recommended for all kittens after a negative test.
FeLV
397
Which of the following is not a risk factor for FIP:
a) exposure to feline coronovirus
b) housing in a shelter/multi cat household
c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)
d) being purebreed
c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)
398
T/F FIV is a lentivirus that has characteristics of HIV but is not a health threat to humans.
true
399
T/F Feline asthma is cured.
false-managed not cured
400
Progressive disease of incompletely known cause in which there is a defect in hyaline cartilage resulting in tracheal rings that lose the ability to remain rigid and collapse during respiration "goose honk." Most common in what breed?
collapsing trachea, yorkies (managed not cured)
401
Canine Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii is transmitted by the _____, Dermacentor variabilis, & D. andersonii, the _________; Brown Dog Tick has been assoc. w/ outbreaks, also
American Dog Tick, Rocky Mountain Wood Tick
402
T/F Most cases of RMSF occur in SE & south central US (NC, OK, AK, TN, MO account for over 60% of RMSF cases in people)but geographic distribution is expanding
true
403
Human RMSF is a _____ disease in the US.
reportable-zoonotic
404
Organisms infect & replicate in vascular endothelial cells causing inflammation (vasculitis), necrosis & increased vascular permeability resulting in: Abnormal hemostasis (thrombocytopenia), edema & microthrombosis
RMSF
405
Severe dz of RMSF may occur in what breed?
GSD
406
RMSF clinical signs.
- Lymphadenomegaly is common
- Ocular signs discharge
- Mucocutaneous & cutaneous hyperemia, petechiae, ecchymosis, edema and necrosis
- rule out other tick-borne diseases
407
RMSF lab findings:
- Thrombocytopenia = most common lab finding (83%)
| - Leukocytosis w/ toxic change in neutrophils
408
RMSF diagnosis:
- Serology - microimmunofluorescence
| - PCR
409
Lyme is a complex multiorgan dz caused by _____, a spirochete bacterium transmitted by ____ ticks
Borrelia burgdorferi, Ixodes spp
410
Lyme Borrelisosis is a sporadic dz that occurs worldwide but it is endemic in most of the NE states w/ 90% of cases occurring in _______
CT, NY, NJ & PA
411
T/F There are no hematologic or biochemical changes characteristic of Lyme Dz, the only way to diagnose it is the Idexx snap 3DX.
true
412
Toxoplasmosis is caused by ____, an intracellular coccidian with worldwide distribution
Toxoplasma gondii
413
T/F For Toxoplasmosis, Felines are the only definitive hosts, but other animals and humans serve as intermediate hosts (IH)
true
414
How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted?
Transmission occurs by eating meat from infected IH, fecal-orally and transplacentally
415
Toxoplasmosis, oocysts are not infective until they sporulate which takes ____, but can remain infective in soil for mos to years. After ingestion of ____ oocysts, tachyzoites form & invade tissues.
24 – 48 hrs, sporulated
416
Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in cats:
lung & eye (anterior uveitis, glaucoma, retinal lesions) in the cat
417
Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in people:
influenza-like w/ swollen lymph nodes or muscle aches & pains that last for a month or more; w/ severe dz in immunocompromised people the brain and eye are often affected
418
Prevention of Toxoplasmosis
- Don’t allow cats to hunt or feed them raw meat
- Follow good hygiene practices when handling cat feces
- Wear gloves when gardening & wash hands after
- Immunosuppressed people should avoid w/ contact kittens or infected cats
- Avoid immunosuppressive drugs in seropositive cats
- Avoid acquiring a new kitten/cat during pregnancy
- Treatment: Antibiotics (Clindamycin)
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What is sinusitis? What is a clinical sign?
Inflammation of sinuses, most commonly due to tooth root abscess in dogs (horses too). Swelling under eye on the side of the bad tooth.
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AKA Kennel cough
Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis, Bordetella bronchiseptica
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Influenza A subtype H3N8 virus mutated from Equine H3N8 Influenza Virus and adapted to canine species to emerge as a canine-specific virus
Canine Influenza (CI)-First recognized outbreak believed to occur in racing greyhounds at a track in Florida
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25 % of cases have BM suppression resulting in
pancytopenia (GSD!)-Canine Monocytic ehrilichiosis
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What pansystemic disease can cause Cerebellar Hypoplasia?
Feline Panleukopenia
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Where are the lesions found in cats with feline scabies?
Head, face
