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Animal Medicine 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Modified neurons in the hypothalamus produce two hormones:

A

oxytocin, ADH

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2
Q

Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis) “master gland” has two separate structures which are?

A

Anterior (adenohypophysis):

  • Derived from glandular tissue
  • 7 hormones produced when stimulated by the hypothalamus & direct feedback from target organs & tissues

Posterior (neurohypophysis):

  • Derived from the nervous system
  • Does not produce hormones
  • Stores and releases two hormones (produced by the hypothalamus)
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3
Q

Adrenal cortex produces too much glucocorticoid hormone(cortisol), Excessive administration of glucocorticoid drugs

A

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Syndrome)

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4
Q

Deficiency of adrenocortical hormones

Sudden withdrawal of corticosteroid drugs that have been given long-term

A

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s Dz)

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5
Q

Inner portion derived from nervous tissue, Two very similar hormones are produced Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

A

adrenal medulla

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6
Q

The two methods that control hormone secretion are?

A

1) Negative Feedback Systems (ex thyroid gland)

2) Direct stimulation from the nervous system (ex adrenal medulla)

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7
Q

Most commonly diseased organs in ___

A

SA (thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid and gonads)

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8
Q

The thyroid gland produces what?

A

T3 and T4 produced and stored in gland, Also produces calcitonin

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9
Q

Most common endocrine dz in cats is?

A

hyperthyroid (cause is unknown)

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10
Q

Beta cell tumor hypersecretion of insulin

A

insulinoma

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11
Q

Adrenal gland cortex produces what hormones?

A

glucocortiocoids (cushings), mineralcorticoids, androgenic (sex) hormones

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12
Q

What does the parathyroid hormone do?

A

1) Stimulates bone resorption
2) Renal calcium resorption
3) Mediates intestinal calcium absorption

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13
Q

What’s the most common endocrine disease in birds?

A

thyroid

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14
Q

Helps maintain normal blood calcium level by exerting an effect opposite to that of calcitonin -> helps prevent hypocalcemia

A

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) or Parathormone

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15
Q

T/F Parathyroid disease is a primary disease usually from adenoma or carcinoma, which many animals will not show any signs

A

true

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16
Q

Pancreas:

1) ____ – “pushes” blood glucose into cells -> lowers blood glucose
2) ___– effects are opposite those of insulin -> stimulates liver to convert glycogen to glucose & stimulates gluconeogenesis -> raises blood glucose
3) _____ – inhibits secretion of insulin & glucagon and reduces activity of gi tract

A

1) insulin
2) glucagon
3) somatostatin

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17
Q

Regulation of blood levels of glucose by beta cells (islets of Langerhaans) and produces insulin

A

pancreas

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18
Q

Which gland acts as a bridge between the nervous system and the endocrine system?

A

Pituitary gland

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19
Q

List two clinical signs seen in pets suspected of having hyperthyroidism.

A
  • Weight loss with increased appetite
  • Polyphagia
  • Vomiting
  • Tachycardia w/ or w/o murmur
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20
Q

Pertaining to Addison’s disease, what gland is malfunctioning?

A

Adrenal gland (cortex)

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21
Q

With Addison’s disease, what group of chemicals is not being secreted adequately?

A

Mineralcorticoids

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22
Q

Which endocrine disease can be caused by either a pituitary gland or an adrenal gland tumor in dogs?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Dz)

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23
Q

Which domestic species is presented most commonly for hypothyroidism? hyperthyroidism? Insulinoma?

A

Dog, Cat, Ferret

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24
Q

What is the difference between diabetes mellitus (DM) and an insulinoma with regards to lab results?

A

-DM: hyperglycemia, +/- decreased insulin levels; -insulinoma: hypoglycemia, increased insulin

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25
Q

List the 2 endocrine diseases that are very commonly seen in pet ferrets in the United States.

A

AAE/Hyperadrenocorticism, insulinoma

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26
Q

Avian thyroid problems result primarily from what husbandry issue

A

all seed diet

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27
Q

Besides administration of insulin, treatment of DM involves regulation of the pet’s ____

A

diet

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28
Q

Diabetes insipidus results from a deficiency of or lack of response to which hormone?

A

ADH

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29
Q

Clinical signs of periodontal disease

A
  • Halitosis
  • Reluctance to chew
  • Pawing at mouth
  • Nasal discharge
  • Facial swelling
  • Tooth loss
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30
Q

Lip-Fold Dermatitis: signs, cause, prevention

A
  • Common in breed with pendulous upper lips and prominent lower lip folds
  • Constant moisture from saliva creates environment for bacterial growth
  • halitosis, debris collection
  • clean area/keep dry
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31
Q

Salivary Mucocele: signs, cause, prevention

A
  • Accumulation of excessive amounts of saliva in the SC tissue and the subsequent tissue reaction (Young adult dog dz most commonly GSD and miniature poodles)
  • Slowly enlarging, nonpainful, fluid swelling on neck or under tongue, reluctant to eat or swallow
  • cause unknown
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32
Q

Oral Neoplasms: 2 categories, clinical signs, treatment

A
  • Malignant melanoma and SCC
  • Benign tumors
  • Halitosis, Blood in saliva, Oral pain, tooth loss
  • Surgical removal, jaw removal, chemo
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33
Q

Most common trauma of small animals?

A

oral trauma

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34
Q

Esophagitis/gastroesophageal reflux: causes, treatment

A
  • Usually traumatically induced
  • Contact with irritants or FB
  • Obstruction
  • Foreign body ingestion
  • Dietary changes to achieve weight loss using high-protein and low-fat diet to normalize gastric emptying
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35
Q

A Chronic Enteropathies most common in small animals.

A

Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enteritis (Chronic antigenic stimulation of the intestinal mucosa)

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36
Q

Intestinal Lymphangiectasia: cause, treatment

A
  • Chronic PLE due to impaired lymphatic drainage, Back up of lymph releases fluids into the intestinal lumen
  • Treatment aim: reduce protein loss, food, surgery
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37
Q

What is Intussusception (Large Bowel Dz)

A

Etiology usually idiopathic but can be multifactorial, Invagination of smaller bowel into larger, usually near the ileocolic junction

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38
Q

Megacolon (Large Bowel Dz) is ___% idiopathic

A

62%

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39
Q

Largest organ of mammalian body except skin is known as

A

the liver

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40
Q

Factors affecting extent of intoxication and damage to the liver are

A
  • Species
  • Sex
  • Dose
  • Route
  • Duration of exposure
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41
Q

Cholangiohepatitis what is it and what animal is it common in?

A
  • Common in cats, especially Persians

- Bile duct inflammation involves hepatocytes progressing to cirrhosis

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42
Q

Most common hepatopathy seen in cats

A

Feline Hepatic Lipidosis

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43
Q

Portosystemic Shunts: cause/what is it.

A
  • Shunts blood away from the liver into the general systemic circulation
  • May be intra- or extrahepatic; single or multiple
  • Usually caused by failure of ductus venosus to close at birth
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44
Q

Perianal Hernias (Rectoanal) are seen in?

A

Older, intact male dogs

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45
Q

Perianal Gland Adenoma (Rectoanal) is directly related to?

A

to plasma androgen levels

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46
Q

What are the two distinctive processes of digestion?

A

Mechanical, chemical

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47
Q

T/F Treating cases of esophagitis caused by ingestion of irritating substances involves inducing vomiting, administering sucralfate and neutralizing compounds and withholding food for several days.

A

False

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48
Q

On what side of the trachea is the esophagus found?

A

Left

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49
Q

Where does most of the digestion occur in animals that do not require fermentation?

A

Small intestine

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50
Q

List 2 viral causes of diarrhea.

A

Canine parvovirus, canine distemper virus, feline panleukopenia virus

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51
Q

List 3 functions of the liver.

A
  • Metabolizes products of digestion
  • Storage of vitamins & minerals
  • Recycling of hormones
  • Bile synthesis
  • Synthesizes plasma proteins
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52
Q

Describe the stool from a patient with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI).

A

Gray, fatty, foul-smelling, watery

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53
Q

What is EPI?

A

Loss of pancreatic acinar cells resulting in decreased digestive enzymes

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54
Q

What is one of the most common gastrointestinal problems/presentations in ferrets?

A

FB ingestion

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55
Q

List 2 rectoanal conditions that occur in older, intact male dogs that are treated with castration.

A

Perianal hernia, perianal gland adenoma

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56
Q

List 2 causes of colic in horses.

A
  • Impaction
  • Gastric ulcers
  • Displacement/entrapment
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57
Q

T/F The Pericardial cavity is located in mediastinum. Enclosed by fibroserous membranous sac known as the Parietal & visceral layers.

A

true

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58
Q

Heart contains 3 layers of muscle which are?

A

1) Epicardium
2) Myocardium
3) Endocardium

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59
Q

Only muscle that does not fatigue after continued contractions is known as

A

the heart

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60
Q

What are the names of the Atrioventricular valves? Semilunar?

A

1) Bicuspid or mitral, tricuspid

2) Aortic and Pulmonic

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61
Q

Systole is a ______ (1st sound) Lub - AV valves closing

A

contraction

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62
Q

Diastole is ______ (2nd sound) Dub - semilunar valves closing

A

relaxation

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63
Q

Called a ____ rhythm when hear 3 or 4 sounds and indicates dz in SA

A

gallop

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64
Q

____ depolarizes initiating contraction

Initial stimulus spontaneous

A

SA node

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65
Q

Irregular heartbeat due to normal cyclic changes in vagal tone associated with respiration (HR inc w/ inspiration & dec w/ expiration)

A

Sinus arrhythmia (AKA Respiratory arrhythmia)

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66
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

force the blood exerts upon the blood vessels

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67
Q

Angiotensinogen produced by the ___. Converted to angiotensin I by ____. Converted to angiotensin II by ACE (produced by cells within blood vessel in the lung & kidney), which constricts blood vessels resulting in increased BP

A

liver, renin

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68
Q

4 Effects of Angiotensin II

A

1) Secretion of aldosterone by adrenal cortex
2) Stimulates secretion of ADH
3) Stimulates thirst
4) Vasoconstrictor (causing increased BP)

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69
Q

What are some Circulatory (volume insufficiency) diseases?

A

1) Hypovolemia
2) Anemia
3) Valvular dysfunction
4) Congenital defects

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70
Q

T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy can be genetic in some breeds

A

true

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71
Q

Vasodilator that is an ACE-inhibitor and helps decrease vascular resistance and improve cardiac output

A

Enalapril (DCM treatment)

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72
Q

T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy patients may die suddenly of an arrhythmia

A

true

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73
Q

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomypathy is known as

A

“Boxer Cardiomyopathy” (genetic dz of boxer)

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74
Q

Boxer adults present with ventricular arrhythmias and ____ and are at risk for sudden death

A

syncope (passing out)

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75
Q

T/F Boxer Cardiomyopathy may be subclinical (no signs)

A

true

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76
Q

Feline DCM is attributed to what?

A

Attributed to lack of taurine in feline diets

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77
Q

Feline DCM is typically in older cats, but what genetic predisposition breeds?

A

Abyssinian, Siamese, Burmese

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78
Q

Feline DCM Most dangerous time during treatment is the _____. Those that respond to taurine supplementation have a better prognosis than those that don’t.

A

1st two weeks

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79
Q

T/F Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is rare in dogs

A

true

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80
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in inherited in what breeds?

A

Pointers (inherited), Rott, G. Shep, Dalm, Boston Terr, Cocker, Shi Tzu

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81
Q

What is Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

A

Thickening of left ventricular myocardium with reduction in chamber size

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82
Q

Most common form of cardiomyopathy in cats & most frequent cause of sudden death

A

Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

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83
Q

Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?

A

Maine Coon Cats & Ragdolls; also Persian, Amer & British Shorthair, Devon Rex & Sphynx

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84
Q

T/F As with HCM in dogs, left ventricular hypertrophy is the predominant lesion in Feline HCM.

A

true

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85
Q

HCM Treatment:

A
  • Furosemide
  • ACE inhibitors (enalapril)
  • Propanolol (Beta-blocker, Decreases oxygen demand or decreases sinus HR)
  • Diltiazem (Calcium channel blocker, Inhibits cardiac and vascular smooth contractility, Reduces blood pressure and cardiac afterload)
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86
Q

Feline HCM can lead to what type of embolism in cats?

A

Thromboembolism -> blockage of vessel by a part of a blood clot that has broken off at the site of thrombus formation and traveled to lodge in more distal vessel

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87
Q

Serious sequela (pathological condition resulting from a disease) to heart disease in cats

A

Thromboembolism

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88
Q

90% of Thromboembolism lodge in distal aortic trifurcation, this is know as _____.

A

Saddle thrombus

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89
Q

______ results in hindlimb pain and paresis.

A

Thromboembolism

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90
Q

Clinical signs of Thromboembolism

A
  • Acute onset of rear leg pain (vocalizing) & paresis

- Cold, blue foot pads; no palpable pulses

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91
Q

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in ferrets?

A

Dilatative Cardiomyopathy

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92
Q

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in dogs? Cats?

A

dogs-DCM

cats-HCM

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93
Q

DA fails to close resulting in shunting of blood from systemic circulation to pulmonary artery. Functional closure should occur within 72 hrs after birth. Lung is hyperperfused and machinery murmur created as left side of the heart becomes volume overloaded.

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

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94
Q

Retained vascular arch forms ring around esophagus causing obstruction and regurgitation of solid food

A

Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)

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95
Q

Why do you feed a dog with Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA) from a height?

A

It causes regurgitation of solid food leading to aspiration pneumonia

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96
Q

Most commonly encountered CV dz in the dog?

A

Chronic Mitral Valve Insufficiency

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97
Q

Heart arrhytmias are deviations from normal heart rate rhythm or rhythms originating from abnormal locations within the heart. They are either abnormal impulse ____ or ___ within cardiac muscle fibers

A

formation, conduction

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98
Q

T/F Avian heart is larger than mammalian heart in proportion to body mass and is designed for rapid depolarization due to their rapid HR

A

true

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100
Q

Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?

A

Doberman pincer, Boxer, Irish Wolfhound, Great Dane

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101
Q

What are the 4 things that occur with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

1) Pulmonic stenosis
2) Secondary RV hypertrophy
3) Subaortic VSD
4) Overriding aorta

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102
Q

List and describe the tunics of eye.

A

Outermost fibrous, supporting layer (sclera, cornea); middle vascular tunic (uvea – choroid, ciliary body, iris); inner nervous tunic (retina)

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103
Q

What are the functions of the aqueous humor?

A

Provide nutrition to the avascular lens and cornea; remove waste products of metabolism; occupy space to maintain shape

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104
Q

What is the main structural difference between the corneas of nocturnal versus diurnal animals?

A

Nocturnal animals have a relatively larger cornea to sclera ratio, allowing more light penetration

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105
Q

Which part of the nervous system dilates the pupil?

A

Sympathetic

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106
Q

Describe the process of accommodation.

A

Contraction of ciliary body muscle fibers (causes forward and inward movement of ciliary body which) decreases tension on the suspensory ligaments allowing the lens to become more convex.

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107
Q

What is the purpose of accommodation?

A

It shortens distance of the light rays focusing on retina facilitating close vision.

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108
Q

What is nuclear sclerosis?

A

Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers

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109
Q

What does nuclear sclerosis look like?

A

Blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes

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110
Q

List 3 signs of conjunctivitis.

A

Hyperemia, chemosis, ocular discharge

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111
Q

List 2 causes of conjunctivitis.

A

Immune-mediated follicular conjunctivitis, allergic conjunctivitis (atopy), anatomic conjunctivitis (entropion, ectropion), bacterial conjunctivitis secondary to disruption of tear production, trauma, FB; FHV-1, Calicivirus, Chlamydophila psittaci

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112
Q

What is another name for the nictitating membrane?

A

Third eyelid, nictitans

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113
Q

What is the term for the overflow of tears?

A

Epiphora

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114
Q

List 3 functions of the skin.

A

1) Protection
2) Sensory
3) Body temperature regulation (heat dissipation & retention)

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115
Q

The flea is the intermediate host for which parasite (scientific name only)?

A

Dipylidium caninum

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116
Q

What are the common sites for localized lesions in dogs with demodectic mange caused by Demodex canis?

A

Especially face, around eyes, mouth and ears; sometimes limbs; occasionally trunk

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117
Q

What are the common sites for localized the lesions in dogs with sarcoptic mange?

A

Ears, elbows, hocks, ventrum

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118
Q

What is the scientific name of the organism that causes feline scabies?

A

Notoedres cati

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119
Q

Name a skin disease of neglect.

A

Pediculosis (lice infestation), myiasis (maggots)

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120
Q

Name a superficial dermatophyte. What is the commonly used lay term for this infection?

A

Microsporum canis, M.-ringworm

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121
Q

Name an equine skin disorder.

A

SCC, onchocerciasis ‘rain scald’, exuberant granulation tissue (“proud flesh”)

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122
Q

What are the 3 forms of heart disease in a ferret and which is most common?

A

1) Dilatative – most commonly
2) Hypertrophic
3) Restrictive - uncommon

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123
Q

Increases pressure into the chambers causing ventricular hypertrophy +/- atrial enlargement, stenosis (abnormal narrowing) due to dysplastic or malformed valves

A

Pulmonic & Aortic Stenosis

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124
Q

T/F You can treat Ventricular Tachycardia with Lidocane.

A

true

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125
Q

Given for treatment of adult heart worms. Injections into very specific sites in lumbar epaxial muscles.

A

Melarsamine dihydrochloride (ImmiticideR)

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126
Q

T/F Felines are less susceptible to heart worm infection than dogs which are the definitive host for the parasite

A

true

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127
Q

T/F Felines harbor few heart worm adults which have a shorter life span than they do in dogs; microfilariae are rare

A

true

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128
Q

What are the common heart conditions for a hamster?

A

Cardiomyopathy and atrial thrombosis

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129
Q

Retina is black due to presence of _____

A

melanin

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130
Q

What are the 5 layers of the cornea

A

1) Anterior epithelium
2) Subepithelial basement membrane (Bowman’s membrane)
3) Substantia propria or stroma
4) Posterior limiting lamina (Descemet’s membrane)
5) Posterior endothelium (Descemet’s endothelium)

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131
Q

One of the most sensitive tissues in the body

A

cornea

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132
Q

Increased water uptake results in decreased transparency

A

Cornea-edema = cloudy appearance

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133
Q

Colored portion of the eye that controls the amount of light entering

A

iris

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134
Q

The iris contains two sets of muscles, the one controlled by the ____ that constricts and the one controlled by the _____ that dilates

A

parasympathetic, sympathetic

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135
Q

Positioned in posterior chamber between the iris and retina held in place by suspensory ligaments that are attached to the ciliary body

A

lens

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136
Q

T/F Accommodation is limited in domestic animals, the exception is the cat.

A

true

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137
Q

Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers resulting in blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes

A

nuclear sclerosis

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138
Q

Sandwiched between the sclera & retina

A

choroid

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139
Q

Tapetum lucidum is not found in humans or __

A

pigs

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140
Q

Aqueous humor:

1) behind the iris but in front of the lens
2) behind the cornea but in front of the iris

A

1) Posterior chamber

2) Anterior chamber

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141
Q

Not as fluid-like, more gelatinous aka vitreous body

A

Vitreous humor

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142
Q

Through pupil into anterior chamber, out through iridocorneal angle

A

primary flow of aqueous

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143
Q

Innermost tunic of eye

A

retina

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144
Q

Membranes lining the eyeball and palpebrae, the space between globe & conjunctiva is conjunctival sac

A

conjunctiva

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145
Q

What 3 things is the lacrimal apparatus responsible for?

A

1) Formation of tears
2) Transport to sac
3) Drainage to the nasal cavity

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146
Q

The third eyelid is the fold of the ______. Well developed in the dog, highly mobile. Large enough to cover the entire cornea and is reinforced by ______

A

conjunctiva, T-shaped cartilage

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147
Q

T/F Conjunctivitis is commonly a primary disease in dogs.

A

false-rare

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148
Q

What are some breeds prone to epiphora?

A

cocker spaniels, poodles, brachycephalic breeds

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149
Q

Inflammation of eyelids -> swelling of eyelids

A

Blepharitis

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150
Q

What are some causes of Blepharitis?

A

1) Demodex
2) Allergiec
3) Bacterial
4) Other eye diseases (dry eye)

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151
Q

Eyelids roll in

A

entropion

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152
Q

Eyelids roll out

A

Ectropion ‘diamond eye’

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153
Q

What breeds are most likely to have ecto and endotropions?

A

brachycephalic (congenital), with large orbits and deep set eyes

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154
Q

What do you not use when treating Ulcerative Keratitis (Corneal Ulcers)?

A

steriods

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155
Q

Superficial vascularization and infiltration of granulation tissue (pink or tan)

A

Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)

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156
Q

What breed is most prone to Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)?

A

german shepards

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157
Q

Inadequate tear production (AKA “Dry Eye”)

A

Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)

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158
Q

Failure to treat Dry Eye will result in _____

A

blindness

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159
Q

Causes of Dry Eye?

A

Idiopathic atrophy of lacrimal glands-most commonly

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160
Q

What is the first eye test that is performed?

A

Schirmer Tear Test (STT)

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161
Q

Opacity of the lens sufficient to cause a reduction of function

A

cataracts

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162
Q

What are some causes of cataracts?

A

uveitis, lens luxation, trauma, hyopcalcemia, electric shock, nutritional deficiencies

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163
Q

What part of the eye is infected with anterior uveitis?

A

iris, ciliary body, and choroid (uveal tract)

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164
Q

What are some signs of anterior uveitis?

A
  • Blepharospasm
  • Photophobia
  • Epiphora
  • Corneal edema
  • Change in iris color with chronic
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165
Q

Aqueous humor unable to leave eye causing increased pressure inside of a closed system

A

Glaucoma

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166
Q

What are the primary and secondary cause of glaucoma?

A

1) primary-inherited (Cocker, basset hound)
2) secondary-Obstruction of drainage from another disease process
3) acute-emergency!

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167
Q

Loss of vision in low light or at night often is the 1st sign

A

Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)

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168
Q

T/F Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) has no cure or treatment.

A

true

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169
Q

How can cats get Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

A

acquired dz due to taurine deficient diet

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170
Q

Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) can be hereditary in what breeds?

A

Lab Ret, Gold Ret,Toy/Mini Poodle, Irish Setter, Schn, Collie

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171
Q

T/F Any ocular disease in Equine is an emergency.

A

true

172
Q

What are Filoplumes?

A

specialized feathers at lid margins that function like eyelashes in birds

173
Q

T/F Birds have a tapetum lucidium.

A

false

174
Q

Ctenocephalides spp. are known as the

A

cat flea

175
Q

What are the 3 types of mange?

A

1) Demodectic
2) Sarcoptic
3) Notoedric

176
Q

T/F No products are currently approved for in cats for Demodex.

A

true

177
Q

Demodex aurati and Demodex criceti usually reside where on a hamster?

A

hair follicles & sebaceous glands

178
Q

What dip can you not use with cats in treatment of Demodex?

A

ParamiteR Dip

179
Q

T/F Notoedric Mange is rarely found in cats, but it can be found in rabbits.

A

true

180
Q

Flies will deposit their eggs in warm, wet areas which will the hatch into ____

A

Myiasis (maggots)

181
Q

How do you treat Lice (Pediculosis)?

A

All pets in house with insecticide dip-Ivermectin (off-label)

182
Q

Deep Pyoderma-____ is the 1o organism causing infection

A

Staphylococcus intermedius

183
Q

Explain what is meant by ‘core vaccine’.

A

According to current guidelines, core vaccines are those recommended as “mandatory for every patient”

184
Q

Rabies is a core vaccine for both dogs and cats. List one other core vaccine for the dog and one for the cat

A
  • DA2P (canine distemper virus, adenovirus, parvovirus)

- FVRCP (feline rhinotracheitis virus (herpesvirus), calicivirus, feline panleukopenia virus (feline parvovirus).

185
Q

According to the updated vaccination guidelines, based on the duration of immunity demonstrated by commercial vaccines, how often should booster vaccinations with core vaccines be given to adult dogs and cats?

A

Every 3 years

186
Q

In general, noncore vaccines should be administered ____ to maintain adequate immunity.

A

annually

187
Q

The vaccine ‘cold chain’ must be maintained throughout transport, storage and handling of vaccines to preserve maximum effectiveness of the vaccines. The recommended temperature range for this is?

A

35-45 F (2-7 C).

188
Q

In addition to excessive heat (and cold), exposure to what else can cause vaccines to be rendered ineffective?

A

Exposure to light

189
Q

List 4 specific tips for storage and handling of vaccines that will help ensure that vaccines retain efficacy.

A

1) store in center of fridge
2) keep a log of the expiration date
3) order from a reputable manufacturer
4) have a full-size refrigerator for storage

190
Q

List 2 reasons why vaccines should not be reconstituted and/or drawn up into a syringe until needed.

A

May be more temperature sensitive (and likely will have increased exposure to light), risk of bacterial contamination and overgrowth, risk of mistaken identity/using wrong vaccine

191
Q

The American Association of Feline Practitioners recommends using vaccines within _____ of reconstitution.

A

30 minutes

192
Q

T/F After vaccination, patients commonly experience mild fever, inappetence and/or lethargy that can last for 1 or 2 days.

A

true

193
Q

List 2 mild adverse reactions that can occur secondary to vaccine administration.

A

Local irritation, inflammation, swelling, pain hair loss, abscess formation; failure to immunize

194
Q

List 2 severe vaccine reactions.

A

Anaphylaxis, autoimmune disorders, immunosuppression, development of long-term carrier state or, rarely, of tumors (injection-associated sarcomas in cats), hypertrophic osteodystrophy (rare), juvenile cellulitis associated with MLV distemper vaccine in Weimaraners (rare)

195
Q

The details of any adverse event associated with administration of a vaccine should be recorded in the medical record and reported to?

A

to the vaccine manufacturer and the USDA Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB)

196
Q

Regarding how specific immunity is acquired, what is the difference between active and passive immunity?

A

Active - direct exposure of antigen, Passive - antibodies are transferred from one animal to another

197
Q

List 2 primary organs of the immune system.

A

Thymus, bone marrow, bursa of Fabricius, Peyer’s patches, lymphoglandular complexes

198
Q

List 2 secondary organs of the immune system.

A

Lymph nodes, hemal nodes, tonsils, spleen

199
Q

List the 5 peripheral lymph nodes that are evaluated during physical examination of dogs and cats

A

Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, inguinal, popliteal

200
Q

List 2 diseases for which vaccines typically provide long-lived immunity.

A

K-9 distemper, adenovirus & parvovirus; feline panleukopenia; rabies

201
Q

List 1 disease for which immunity is short-lived with vaccination.

A

Feline rhinotracheitis, calicivirus & chlamydophila; leptospirosis

202
Q

List 2 reasons for vaccine failure assuming the vaccine was administered correctly.

A

1) Correct administration but failure to respond

2) May have been incubating the dz at time of vaccination

203
Q

List 2 of the 5 categories of adverse consequences of vaccines.

A

1) Residual virulence and toxicity
2) Allergic responses
3) Disease in an immunodeficient host
4) Neurological complications
5) Harmful effects on the fetus

204
Q

What are the primary cells of the immune system and where are they produced?

A

Lymphocytes, bone marrow

205
Q

What are serum antibody titers?

A

The relative concentration of circulating Ab to a particular Ag

206
Q

List the classes of immunoglobulins.

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD

207
Q

Define ‘immunologically competent’.

A

Ability of an animal to produce an immune response on exposure to an Ag

208
Q

Innate Immune Responses known as ______ are composed of chemical mediators of inflammation, plasma proteins and phagocytic cells which are the _____

A

Natural Immunity, ‘first responders’

209
Q

Natural Killer (NK) cell are a specific type of ______

A

lymphocyte

210
Q

Small proteins released by macrophages, lymphocytes and cells infected by viruses

A

interferons

211
Q

Protein in plasma that assists and enhances antibody action by labeling organisms and infected cells so other cells can destroy them

A

Complement

212
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Rubor (redness), Calor (hot), Tumor (pain), Dolor (swelling), loss of function

213
Q

What are the 2 primary lymphocytes?

A

T-cells and B-cells

214
Q

Migrate to thymus & mature there
Associated with GALT & found in spleen & LN. Have specific antigen (Ag) receptors on cell surface. Attach to antigens and destroy by the secretion of cytotoxic substances. Cell-mediated immunity.

A

T-cells

215
Q 
Migrate to spleen, LN
Produce antibodies (Ab) to specific antigens. Contain surface Ab. Antibody related or humoral immunity.
A

B-cells

216
Q

Secreted by plasma cells in spleen, LN and BM. Smallest Ig molecule - can escape from blood vessels easiest. Binds to surface Ag on bacteria. Activates complement

A

IgG

217
Q

Produced by plasma cells in spleen, LN & BM. Major Ig produced in primary response. Produced in small amounts but more active in complement activation than IgG. Rarely enter tissues due to extremely large size. Neutralizes viruses and Agglutinates some Ag .

A

IgM

218
Q

Secreted by plasma cells under mucosal surfaces. Intestinal walls, respiratory tract, urinary system, skin, mammary glands. Passes through epithelial cells into external secretions. Major protection for intestines, respiratory tract, mammary glands, eyes. Can agglutinate Ag and Can neutralize viruses.

A

IgA

219
Q

Made by plasma cells beneath the body’s surface. Very small so cannot bind Ag. Triggers acute inflammation. Binds to mast cells and basophils. Ag binds to IgE to stimulate release of other molecules. Type I sensitivity.

A

IgE

220
Q

Not detected in all mammals. Found mainly attached to B cells. Easily destroyed by proteases, especially those found when blood clots.

A

IgD

221
Q

What are the two types of immunization? What are there differences?

A 
1) Active - give Ag
Animal must mount own response
Second exposure mounts quicker response 
Immunity long lasting
2) Passive – give Ab
Immediate protection
Short lived
222
Q

Passive Immunity is most effective in protecting against _____ organisms

A

toxigenic

223
Q

Vaccines are divided into ____ and ___ vaccines due to safety and efficacy issues.

A

core, noncore

224
Q

What are some examples of the vaccines associated with the third group?

A

Canine Coronavirus, Canine Adenovirus 1, Giardia (dog & cat) and FIP vaccines are examples

225
Q

What are the most common routes to administer vaccines?

A

SC or IM

226
Q

Residual Virulence and Toxicity from vaccines result most commonly from ____

A

sting from formaldehyde

227
Q

What test is this: Used to detect FIV Ab, RBCs have Ag on their cell surface

A

Hemagglutination

228
Q

What test is this: Detects Heartworm Ab or Ag (Heska, Abaxis), Ab or Ag is attached to a material that can migrate through a membrane support

A

Lateral Flow

229
Q

What test is this: Detects Borrelia Ab (IDEXX) and HTW Ab (Synbiotics), Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

A

Indirect ELISA

230
Q

What test is this: Detects HTW Ag, FeLV, CPV (IDEXX SNAP Tests)

A

Sandwich ELISA

231
Q

What is a pansystemic disease?

A

Those diseases that involve multiple body systems in addition to the primary target organ

232
Q

Feline Panleukopenia can infect all species of Felidae as well as Procyonidae (raccoons, coatimundi) & some Mustelida (mink, skunks) but not ____

A

ferrets

233
Q

Severe, highly contagious Parvovirus (‘old timers’ may refer to as “feline distemper”)

A

Feline Panleukopenia

234
Q

T/F Feline Panleukopenia is shed through feces, and that is the only part that is contagious.

A

false-All body secretions are contagious

235
Q

T/F Survivors of Feline Panleukopenia acquire life-long immunity

A

true

236
Q

Caused by a Retrovirus and is associated with both neoplastic & nonneoplastic conditions (immunosuppression) that frequently results in death

A

Feline Leukemia

237
Q

Clinical signs seen in FeLV (Feline Leukemia) result primarily from immunosuppression, neoplasia and/or _____

A

anemia

238
Q

If you are going to vaccinate a kitten/cat for FeLV what must you do first?

A

test before vaccinating, no point in vaccinating a cat already positive

239
Q

Is there a cure for FeLV?

A

no-restrict free roaming cats

240
Q

Caused by a Lentivirus that is morphologically & biochemically similar to HIV but antigenically different. Infects lymphocytes, macrophages, salivary glands & CNS.

A

Feline Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (Feline AIDS)

241
Q

T/F Maternal ab may be passed through colostrum, so kittens must be retested for FIV after they are 6 months old

A

true

242
Q

FIV tests cannot distinguish Ab due to natural infection (or passive transfer) from Ab produced by vaccination -> vaccinated cats will be + on testing for at least ___ after vaccination

A

1 yr

243
Q

What are some clinical signs of FIV?

A
  • Gingivitis, stomatitis - may require extraction of all teeth
  • Skin, ear
  • URI (upper respiratory infection)
  • Fever, cachexia (muscle wasting) – common
  • Anemia
244
Q

T/F Lentiviral infections are lifelong so detection of FIV-specific Ab in blood is considered a reliable indicator of infection in adult cats that are not vaccinated

A

true

245
Q

Is there a cure for FIV? Does it pose a health hazard to humans?

A

No, no

246
Q

Progressive, fatal systemic disease caused by Feline Coronavirus (FCoV)

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

247
Q

Risk factors for development of FIP

A
  • Young, intact males < 4 mos; most often 6 mos – 2 yr; but any age
  • Purebred cats (polygenic mode of inheritance suggested*)
  • Bengal, Abyssinian, Himalayan, Birman, Ragdoll, Rexes – reportedly at higher risk*
  • Group confinement
  • Concurrent infection with FeLV
248
Q

How is FCoV transmitted?

A
  • Excreted in oral & respiratory secretions, feces and urine
  • Ingestion (fecal-oral) most commonly; possibly inhalation also
249
Q

Lesions of FIP result from immune-mediated reactions to virus-infected ______

A

macrophages

250
Q

What are the 2 forms of FIP?

A

1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)

2) noneffusive = dry

251
Q

What are clinical signs of the wet form of FIP?

A

Fluid distention of the abdomen (ascites)

252
Q

What are clinical signs of the dry form of FIP?

A
  • neurological signs

- eye lesions

253
Q

Fatal neurologic disease of mammals caused by a Rhabdovirus in the genus Lyssavirus

A

Rabies

254
Q

____ is not technically a pansystemic disease but exposure & potential transmission occurs after examination of animal with vague signs that may be referable to various organ systems

A

Rabies

255
Q

What are the stages for the clinical signs in Rabies?

A

1) Prodromal-Characterized by changes in behavior (greatest risk of exposure for humans)
2) Furious (Excitatory phase)- animal may attack and be hyperactive
3) Paralytic-paralysis, difficulty swallowing, hypersalivation

256
Q

How is rabies spread?

A

Spread via saliva of an infected animal (enters body through bite or other open wound or through mucous membranes; aerosol transmission can occur

257
Q

What are considered the “Rabies species” in the US?

A

Raccoon, skunk, bat, fox & coyote

258
Q

T/F There is no specific tx for rabies and tx is not attempted with animals

A

true

259
Q

How do you prevent Rabies?

A

vaccination! -all dogs, cats, ferrets, horses

260
Q

Severe, highly contagious multisystemic dz caused by Canine Distemper Virus (CDV), a Paramyxovirus in the genus Morbillivirus

A

Canine Distemper

261
Q

Many wild carnivores are susceptible to Canine Distemper (canids, large felids (but not ____, mustelidae, procyonidae spp., etc.)

A

domestic cats

262
Q

How is Canine Distemper transmitted?

A

Shed in all body secretions and excretions. Primary source of exposure via aerosolized secretions.

263
Q

What are some clinical signs of Canine Distemper?

A
  • Respiratory-bronchopneumonia
  • GI – diarrhea, vomiting
  • Nervous – “chewing gum seizures”, myoclonus
  • Neurologic signs may appear wks to yrs after infection
  • Eye – conjunctivitis, uveitis
  • Hyperkeratosis of foot pads (“hard pad dz”)
264
Q

Canine Distemper prognosis guarded (for survival) to poor (for return to normal function) if neurologic signs are present. Euthanasia is recommended for ___ with CDV as it is about 100% fatal in this species even with treatment.

A

ferrets

265
Q

Acute, highly contagious viral enteritis

A

Canine Parvovirus

266
Q

How is Canine Parvovirus transmited?

A

Fecal-oral transmission

267
Q

What are some breeds prone to Canine Parvovirus?

A
  • Rott
  • Doberman
  • Am Staff/Pit bull terrier
  • GSD
  • Lab Ret
268
Q

What are some clinical signs of Canine Parvovirus?

A
  • Intractable fluid, bloody diarrhea
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Depression
  • Fever
269
Q

T/F Weak positives seen for 1-2 wks after vaccination of Canine Parvovirus

A

true

270
Q

What is the definition of rhinitis?

A

Inflammation of the nasal passages

271
Q

List 3 general causes of rhinitis.

A

Infectious, allergic, foreign body tumor/polyp

272
Q

What will one see when examining the oropharyngeal cavity of a dog with tonsillitis?

A

Reddened, hypertrophied (swollen/enlarged) tonsils that may be coated with mucus or pus or have superficial abscesses

273
Q

List 2 clinical signs seen with nasal tumors.

A

Unilateral, mucoid nasal discharge; nasal hemorrhage

274
Q

List a common type of nasal tumor.

A

SCC, adenoCA

275
Q

Why must animals who present with laryngitis or loss of voice initially be handled with caution?

A

Change in phonation or loss of voice occurs with infection with Rabiesvirus

276
Q

A canine patient presents with a dry, hacking cough of several days duration but otherwise appears healthy. The owner reports that his dog has received all of the vaccines on the immunization schedule recommended for his dog based on their lifestyle and wants to know why his dog has clinical signs. What do you tell him?

A

Vaccines for kennel cough (and CI also) are geared toward reducing the severity of clinical signs not to prevent infection.

277
Q

List the 3 most common clinical signs associated with infection with FHV-1.

A

Acute onset of sneezing, rhinitis (may be purulent), conjunctivitis

278
Q

List a clinical sign/lesion less commonly seen but is consistent with feline herpesvirus particularly when seen with respiratory signs.

A

Herpetic keratitis, ulcerated nasal planum (will accept abortion also)

279
Q

For how long should cats with signs of FVH-1 be isolated from healthy, uninfected cats? Why?

A

3 weeks, Shed virus for 3 wks

280
Q

Most dogs with Canine Influenza have mild disease consisting of a persistent soft, moist cough +/- a low-grade fever and purulent nasal discharge. What signs do dogs with the more severe form of CI have?

A

Signs of pneumonia -> fever of 104-106 F, increased RR & effort

281
Q

Cats with serous oculonasal discharge and oral ulceration most likely are infected with ___

A

FCV

282
Q

List 3 major differences between infection with common strains of feline calicivirus and virulent systemic calicivirus.

A

Vaccine doesn’t protect from VS-FCV; different more severe dz/clinical signs including cutaneous edema, ulceration & alopecia on head & limbs, coagulopathies due to DIC, liver necrosis & pancreatitis (icterus), pulmonary edema, TE; common strains affect young but VS-FCV most often in adults; 67% mortality with VS-FCV despite tx

283
Q

List all the possible components of Feline Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex.

A

FHV-1, FCV, Chlamydophila felis, Mycoplasma spp.

284
Q

Family Rickettsiaceae includes Spotted Fever Group (SFG) _____

A

Rickettsia

285
Q

T/F In most, transmission is suspected to require prolonged tick attachment and feeding of 5-24 hours or more

A

true

286
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia, some Neorickettsia spp. & possibly E. canis are _____

A

zoonotic

287
Q

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis is caused by ____ whose primary vector is the _____, Rhipicephalus sanguineus, but also can be transmitted by Dermacentor variabilis, the American Dog Tick .

A

Ehrlichia canis, Brown Dog Tick

288
Q

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis incubation period?

A

1-3 weeks

289
Q

E. chaffeensis, mainly transmitted by the ______, Amblyomma americanum, is the cause of human monocytic ehrlichiosis and occas. causes this dz in dogs

A

Lone Star Tick

290
Q

T/F Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis has multiple stages that occur which may not be easily distinguished in naturally infected dogs

A

true

291
Q

____ form of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis: Organism multiplies in circulating mononuclear cells & in spleen & liver and then spreads to other organs

A

acute

292
Q

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis has a wide variety of clinical signs occur, from mild to severe - some nonspecific including:

A

fever, lethargy/depression, anorexia, lymphadenomegaly

293
Q

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis signs of bleeding disorders

A

anemia, mild epistaxis

294
Q

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis ocular signs including anterior uveitis, hyphema, tortuous retinal vessels & subretinal hemor w/ detachment & blindness lasts ___ and signs usually resolve spontaneously

A

1-4 wks

295
Q

T/F Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis the subclinical Stage – dogs recovering from acute stage may remain subclinically infected for months or years

A

true

296
Q

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis ____ phase – commonly see fever, dep., weakness, anorexia, chronic weight loss, edema of limbs, tail, scrotum as well as bleeding disorders -> death

A

chronic

297
Q

How can you diagnose Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A
  • ELISA (IDEXX 4DX)
  • PCR
  • CBC/Chem – nonregenerative anemia, thrombocytopenia, +/- pancytopenia/hyperglobulinemia
298
Q

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis treatment? Prevention?

A
  • Doxycycline

- tick control

299
Q

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum (formerly Ehrlichia phagocytophila)transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks – incubation period = ___

A

1-14 days

300
Q

Also causes Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly E. equi) and Human Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly “the agent of Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis”)

A

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis

301
Q

T/F Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis Infects a wide range of mamals including dogs, cats, horses, ruminants, people & many wildlife spp. WT deer & several species of rodents are the primary reservoir hosts

A

true

302
Q

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis when clinical signs are present in dogs, they most often are assoc. w/ ____ phase of the infection – severity varies; usually lasts from one to several days

A

acute bacteremic

303
Q

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis clinical signs.

A

Most common more specific signs are joint pain & lameness due to polyarthritis (must R/O Lyme Dz). Less commonly seen signs include vom/diar, coughing, labored breathing and neuro. signs due to meningitis

304
Q

How can you diagnosis Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

A
  • Identification of morulae in neutrophils
  • PCR
  • ELISA (IDEXX SNAP 4Dx)
305
Q

Why do you take blood for testing purposed before giving antibiotics?

A

Take blood for testing before giving antibiotics or may get false negative results!

306
Q

What will you see on a blood smear with a dog that has Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis? CBC?

A
  • Thrombocytopenia (More than 80% will have this)
  • Lymphopenia initially then an increase Reactive lymphocytes
  • CBC: Hyperfibrinogenemia, Elevated serum Alk Phos
307
Q

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis treatment and prevention?

A
  • Doxycycline (Resolution of clinical signs usually accomplished but organisms may not be completely cleared)
  • tick control
308
Q

What type of organisms are rickettsiae?

A

Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria

309
Q

How are rickettsial diseases transmitted?

A

Tick-borne

310
Q

List 2 species (include full genus and species names) of rickettsial organisms that are zoonotic.

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia

311
Q

While evaluating a blood film from a dog you see a morula within the cytoplasm of a lymphocyte. Which rickettsial organism is the dog most likely infected with? What should be done next to support this finding?

A

Ehrlichia canis, IDEXX SNAP 4Dx

312
Q

List 2 physical examination findings that would suggest infection with Ehrlichia canis. What information in the history (or perhaps also from the physical exam) would support this?

A

Lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly, edema in hind legs & scrotum, anemia, mild epistaxis, petechiae & ecchymoses, hyphema, anterior uveitis. Tick problem/see ticks on the dog.

313
Q

Dogs that recover from the acute stage of ehrlichiosis may remain subclinically infected for long periods of time. What else can occur during the subclinical phase of the disease?

A

They also may clear the organism or develop chronic dz.

314
Q

The most common specific clinical sign/lesion seen with disease caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum in dogs is? What other disease is the major rule out based on the above?

A

joint pain/lameness due to polyarthritis. Lyme Dz

315
Q

List one clinical pathological (lab work) abnormality seen with both E. canis and A. phagocytophilum.

A

Thrombocytopenia, reactive lymphocytosis

316
Q

Your patient “Zeus,” a 10 yr old poodle with a history of depression, ataxia, and weakness. His owner reports that these clinical signs are intermittent and appear worse with exercise or excitement. Recently he exhibited odd behavior last night and had a seizure. He appears a little dull in the exam room but he perks up after eating several chewy dog snacks. Based on his history and clinical signs, but can be ruled out?

A

insulinoma

317
Q

Laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include:

A

fecal examination/analysis

318
Q

Your patient is “Bella” a 1 1/2 yr old intact female GSD presented for weight loss, very loose stool, and flatulence. Her owner reports that she’s always hungry and eats everything in sight including the cat’s as well as her own feces. Bella is BAR, bcs of 3 of 9, and a poor hair coat. Parasites are not seen on fecal examination, but there is a lot of fat droplets and her stool is pale tan to grey. You suspect she has

A

exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

319
Q

A heart murmur and dog’s cough are consistent with _____

A

chronic mitral valve insufficiency

320
Q

T/F Hypertropic cardiomyopathy is the most common form of myocardial disease in cats.

A

true

321
Q

What ventricle is affected with HCM?

A

left ventricle

322
Q

T/F Sinus bradycardia is not an uncommon finding in highly conditioned athletic dogs.

A

false-generally not recommended

323
Q

T/F Gastrointestinal and neurologic signs are usually seen in cats with heartworm disease

A

true

324
Q

What is the scientific name of heartworm

A

Dirofilaria immitis

325
Q

Individuals with arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy are symptomatic with ventricular arrhythmias and ____

A

syncope

326
Q

List 2 clinical signs or lab findings associated with Addison’s disease

A

lethargy, depression, weakness

327
Q

What would you tell Bella’s owners to educate them about EPi?

A

it’s never going away it can be managed not cured

328
Q

You examine a 1 yr old English Bulldog with a heart murmur and prominent jugular pulses a history of exercise intolerance and fainting. Radiographs reveal right ventricular enlargement. What is it most likely? Besides discussing the diagnosis and treatment options with the owner what else should the client be told?

A

pulmonic stenosis, don’t breed

329
Q

What is not true regarding the iris:

a) controls the amount of light entering the eye
b) may change color when inflamed
c) contains smooth muscles in mammals
d) contains striated muscle in birds and reptiles
e) all are correct

A

e) all are correct

330
Q

T/F The retinas of domestic mammals control mainly rods used for night vision.

A

true

331
Q

Pannus is a progressive, degenerative eye disease of the dog that can cause blindness. It is also known as? Name a breed with this as a predisposition.

A

kertoconjuncitivitis sicca, GSD

332
Q

T/F Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite that infests cats, dogs, rabbits, and ferrets

A

false

333
Q

A neurotoxin in the saliva of what causes an ascending flaccid paralysis in dogs?

A

hard tick

334
Q

T/F Demodex spp. mites are host specific and that infect dogs do not infect cats and vice versa

A

true

335
Q

List 2 endocrine diseases that produce bilateral alopica in the dog.

A

1) hypothyroidism

2) hyperadrenocorticism

336
Q

List 2 endocrine disease commonly found in the cat

A

1) hyperthyroidism

2) DM

337
Q

List 2 endocrine organs that become commonly effected in a ferret.

A

1) adrenal gland

2) pancreas

338
Q

List 2 clinical signs seen with diabetes mellitus

A

1) increased water intake

2) pu/pd

339
Q

Name clinical finding secondary to DM that is common in dogs but rare in cats

A

cataracts

340
Q

List 2 types of oral neoplasms

A

1) SCC

2) fibrosarcoma

341
Q

List 4 accessory organs.

A

1) liver
2) pancreas
3) gallbladder
4) teeth

342
Q

Explain why the liver is so susceptible to ingested toxins.

A

because its still part of the GI tract and it goes to the iiver first

343
Q

List 2 infectious causes of hepatitis in a dog

A

1) leptosporsis

2) infectious canine hepatitis (adenovirus 2)

344
Q

What is the most common liver disease in cats?

A

feline hepatic lipidosis

345
Q

What does supraventricular mean?

A

above the ventricles

346
Q

Name some difference in heatworm in a dog and a cat

A

1) cats are not as susceptible and are not the definite host
2) dogs have more worms
3) harder to diagnose in cats
4) no treatment in cats

347
Q

What is the main difference in cat heartworm vs ferrets

A

in ferrets you can see the microfilaria

348
Q

What is the term for inflammation of the eyelids?

A

blepharitits

349
Q

What is the function of the tapetum lucidium?

A

amplifies light for low light conditions

350
Q

Name 2 types of eye diseases/eye conditions

A

1) glaucoma

2) cataracts

351
Q

List the difference between demodectic and sarcoptic mange

A
  • demodectic can be hereditary
  • demodectic is not zoonotic
  • demodectic is associated with immunosuppression
352
Q

List 3 canine or feline disease that are zoonotic

A

1) Sarcoptic Mange-scabies
2) Ringworm
3) Noedrec mange

353
Q

List 3 diseases, from any of the organ systems, which the GSD is predisposed to

A

1) canine hypertropic cardiomyopathy
2) ventricular tachycardia
3) persistent right aortic arch

354
Q

Which of these do not cause immunosuppression:

a) CDV
b) FeLV
c) FIPV
d) CPV
e) FIV

A

c) FIPV

355
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for each virus:

1) FIV
2) CDV
3) RV
4) FPV
5) FeLV
6) CPV
7) FIPV

A

1) bite
2) aerosolized droplets
3) bite
4) fecal-oral
5) oronasal
6) fecal-oral
7) fecal-oral

356
Q

What’s the difference between vertical and horizontal transmission?

A

vertical: parent to offspring
horizontal: everything else animal to animal, fomite

357
Q

When maternal immunity is too low in the young to protect against disease, why is it helpful in determining frequency of vaccinations?

A

it counteracts the vaccine

358
Q

List 2 reasons for CORE vaccines

A

1) morbidity and mortality

2) widespread (risk of exposure)

359
Q

Give 1 reasons for performing a vaccine titer

A

if they have a titer to see if we can vaccinate or to find a nonresponder

360
Q

What might i mean if there is a negative titer but has been vaccinated several times throughout their life?

A

the animal does not respond

361
Q

List 3 clinical signs that may be from acute vaccine reactions

A

1) acute anaphylaxis
2) swelling
3) inflammation

362
Q

When discharging a patient who has had previous reactions to vaccines what do you tell the owner?

A

don’t leave animal alone and watch for signs of a reaction

363
Q

2 things that are important when caring for a hospitalized CPV patient.

A

1) isolation

2) strict aseptic of IV catheter

364
Q

List 2 of the 3 organ systems affected with CPV

A

1) neuro

2) respiratory

365
Q

List 2 clinical forms of FIP and which is most common.

A

1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)

2) noneffusive = dry

366
Q

What is the most common clinical sign seen with the common form of FIP?

A

ascites

367
Q

How is FIV prevented other than vaccination

A

restrict free roaming cats

368
Q

Why is the FIV vaccination generally not recommended for shelter cats?

A

Does not protect against all strains of virus

369
Q

What can be used as a prognostic indicator in patients with parvovirus?

A

total WBC count

370
Q

What advice would you give an owner with a young clinically normal but positive FeLV test

A

retest the kitten

371
Q

List 2 species that are not felids that are susceptible to FPV

A

1) racoons

2) coati

372
Q

List 3 species that are not felids that are susceptible to CPV

A

1) ferrets
2) racoons
3) coati

373
Q

What is the usual incubation period of rabies?

A

3-8 weeks

374
Q

What is the appropriate specimen for rabies virus? What is important to remember about specimen handling?

A

brain tissue, don’t freeze it and appropriate biohazard labeling

375
Q

List the vaccine administration sites: FeLV ____, RV _____, FVRCP ____

A

left rear leg, right rear leg, left front limb

376
Q

T/F Primary organs of the immune system include thymus, bone marrow, and spleen

A

false-spleen secondary

377
Q

Natural killer cells (lymphocytes) are part of the innate immune system and can rapidly recognize and destroy abnormal cells. Which is true:

a) they detect ab on the surface
b) they release substances that cause cell destruction
c) they engulf and destroy abnormal cells
d) they bind to pathogens and destroy them

A

b) they release substances that cause cell destruction

378
Q

When a virus infects cells of the body, the cells are stimulated to release small proteins that prevent replication of the virus in neighboring cells. These protective proteins are called

A

interferons

379
Q

The production of antibodies in response to specific antigen stimulation is known as the immune response. The cells of the immune system that produce antibodies are

A

b cell lymphocytes

380
Q

Where are b lymphocytes found after birth?

A

spleen and lymph nodes

381
Q

Which class of antibody has the highest concentration in serum and is the smallest molecule that can escape from blood vessels easiest.

A

igG

382
Q

Give 2 examples of noncore vaccines

A

Lepto, FeLV

383
Q

T/F Noncore vaccines are either directed against disease of little clinical significance or confer protection against infection or development of clinical signs

A

false-not recommended

384
Q

T/F Passive immunity provides immediate protection but it short lived compared to active immunity

A

true

385
Q

The presence of an antigen stimulates the production of antibodies and of memory cells which can recognize and respond to that antigen if it presented to them again. This is the process utilized by vaccines. The memory cells are:

A

b lymphocytes

386
Q

Which class of antibody is associated with class I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

387
Q

A good effective vaccine should protect ____ of animals

A

80%

388
Q

An acute inflammatory response that occurs when antigen binds IgE receptors on mast cells is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? If this is was an acute allergic reaction it would be called?

A

type I, anaphylaxis

389
Q

A positive reaction to tuberculin testing is an example of a type of

A

IV

390
Q

In the US, standardized laboratory methods for determining serum antibody titers for vaccine antigens have only been established for?

A

RV-rabies virus

391
Q

Perinatal infection with this virus can cause cerebellar hypoplasia

A

FPV-feline panleukopenia virs

392
Q

List 2 other neurological clinical signs seen in young animals with FPV

A

ataxia, falling to side

393
Q

Which of the following is labile (cannot survive in environment):

a) FPV
b) CDV
c) CPV
d) FIPV

A

b) CDV

394
Q

The great exposure to RV to humans is the ____ stage

A

prodomal

395
Q

List 2 clinical signs seen with rabies in humans

A

1) change in behavior

2) fever

396
Q

The vaccine for this virus is noncore but i highly recommended for all kittens after a negative test.

A

FeLV

397
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for FIP:

a) exposure to feline coronovirus
b) housing in a shelter/multi cat household
c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)
d) being purebreed

A

c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)

398
Q

T/F FIV is a lentivirus that has characteristics of HIV but is not a health threat to humans.

A

true

399
Q

T/F Feline asthma is cured.

A

false-managed not cured

400
Q

Progressive disease of incompletely known cause in which there is a defect in hyaline cartilage resulting in tracheal rings that lose the ability to remain rigid and collapse during respiration “goose honk.” Most common in what breed?

A

collapsing trachea, yorkies (managed not cured)

401
Q

Canine Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii is transmitted by the _____, Dermacentor variabilis, & D. andersonii, the _________; Brown Dog Tick has been assoc. w/ outbreaks, also

A

American Dog Tick, Rocky Mountain Wood Tick

402
Q

T/F Most cases of RMSF occur in SE & south central US (NC, OK, AK, TN, MO account for over 60% of RMSF cases in people)but geographic distribution is expanding

A

true

403
Q

Human RMSF is a _____ disease in the US.

A

reportable-zoonotic

404
Q

Organisms infect & replicate in vascular endothelial cells causing inflammation (vasculitis), necrosis & increased vascular permeability resulting in: Abnormal hemostasis (thrombocytopenia), edema & microthrombosis

A

RMSF

405
Q

Severe dz of RMSF may occur in what breed?

A

GSD

406
Q

RMSF clinical signs.

A
  • Lymphadenomegaly is common
  • Ocular signs discharge
  • Mucocutaneous & cutaneous hyperemia, petechiae, ecchymosis, edema and necrosis
  • rule out other tick-borne diseases
407
Q

RMSF lab findings:

A
  • Thrombocytopenia = most common lab finding (83%)

- Leukocytosis w/ toxic change in neutrophils

408
Q

RMSF diagnosis:

A
  • Serology - microimmunofluorescence

- PCR

409
Q

Lyme is a complex multiorgan dz caused by _____, a spirochete bacterium transmitted by ____ ticks

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, Ixodes spp

410
Q

Lyme Borrelisosis is a sporadic dz that occurs worldwide but it is endemic in most of the NE states w/ 90% of cases occurring in _______

A

CT, NY, NJ & PA

411
Q

T/F There are no hematologic or biochemical changes characteristic of Lyme Dz, the only way to diagnose it is the Idexx snap 3DX.

A

true

412
Q

Toxoplasmosis is caused by ____, an intracellular coccidian with worldwide distribution

A

Toxoplasma gondii

413
Q

T/F For Toxoplasmosis, Felines are the only definitive hosts, but other animals and humans serve as intermediate hosts (IH)

A

true

414
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

Transmission occurs by eating meat from infected IH, fecal-orally and transplacentally

415
Q

Toxoplasmosis, oocysts are not infective until they sporulate which takes ____, but can remain infective in soil for mos to years. After ingestion of ____ oocysts, tachyzoites form & invade tissues.

A

24 – 48 hrs, sporulated

416
Q

Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in cats:

A

lung & eye (anterior uveitis, glaucoma, retinal lesions) in the cat

417
Q

Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in people:

A

influenza-like w/ swollen lymph nodes or muscle aches & pains that last for a month or more; w/ severe dz in immunocompromised people the brain and eye are often affected

418
Q

Prevention of Toxoplasmosis

A
  • Don’t allow cats to hunt or feed them raw meat
  • Follow good hygiene practices when handling cat feces
  • Wear gloves when gardening & wash hands after
  • Immunosuppressed people should avoid w/ contact kittens or infected cats
  • Avoid immunosuppressive drugs in seropositive cats
  • Avoid acquiring a new kitten/cat during pregnancy
  • Treatment: Antibiotics (Clindamycin)
419
Q

What is sinusitis? What is a clinical sign?

A

Inflammation of sinuses, most commonly due to tooth root abscess in dogs (horses too). Swelling under eye on the side of the bad tooth.

420
Q

AKA Kennel cough

A

Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis, Bordetella bronchiseptica

421
Q

Influenza A subtype H3N8 virus mutated from Equine H3N8 Influenza Virus and adapted to canine species to emerge as a canine-specific virus

A

Canine Influenza (CI)-First recognized outbreak believed to occur in racing greyhounds at a track in Florida

422
Q

25 % of cases have BM suppression resulting in

A

pancytopenia (GSD!)-Canine Monocytic ehrilichiosis

423
Q

What pansystemic disease can cause Cerebellar Hypoplasia?

A

Feline Panleukopenia

424
Q

Where are the lesions found in cats with feline scabies?

A

Head, face

Shina (5 decks)

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