Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 1011 > Animal Biology > Flashcards

Animal Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Give an overview of animal development

A
  • fertilization forms the diploid zygote
  • three embryonic stages:
    - cleavage: converts the unicellular zygote into a multicellular embryo
    - blastula: a hollow ball of cells
    - gastrulation: 3 germ layers are formed
  • differential gene expression is the foundation of the diverse cell types and behaviours seen throughout development
  • morphogenesis occurs via changes in cell position, shape, survival, and forms organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why are model organisms easy to study for development?

A
  • developmental genes and mechanisms are very similar across animal species
  • studying development provides knowledge about development in general
    THESE ORGANISMS ARE ONLY BROADLY REPRESENTATIVE!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fertilization: ______ ______ join to form a _____ ______

A

haploid gamete; diploid zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain fertilization in sea urchins

A
  • sperm and egg are the haploid gametes
  • contact with the jelly coat triggers the acrosomal reaction
  • surface proteins on acrosomal process bind to receptors on egg cell membrane
  • plasma membranes fuse triggering fast block to polyspermy
  • sperm nucleus enter and cortical reaction causes slow block to polyspermy
  • fusion of sperm and egg nuclei form the diploid nucleus of the zygote
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is cleavage?

A

the unicellular zygote divides to become multicellular while maintaining the same overall size
- rapid cell division with little growth of individual cells (minimal G1 and G2 phases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are blastomeres?

A

the small cells resulting from cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a blastula?

A

a hollow ball of cells with a fluid-filled cavity called the blastocoel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can cells that possess the same genome look and behave differently?

A
  • differential gene expression:
    • cells express different genes depending on their location and the stage of development
    • expressing different genes leads to the production of different proteins, which in turn determine the structure and behaviour of the cell at any given time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does a cell know what gene to express?

A
  1. cytoplasmic determinants: the signal comes from within the cell
  2. inductive signals: the signal comes from outside the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do cytoplasmic determinants express genes?

A

there are molecules within the cytoplasm that can be distributed differently to daughter cells to regulate gene expression differently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do inductive signals determine gene expression?

A

the signal molecules that a cell is exposed to depend on its location within the embryo, and the stage of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is preventing polyspermy important?

A

to ensure the zygote has the correct number of maternal and paternal DNA (chromosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false? A frog blastula is essentially the same size as the zygote from which is developed

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or false? Every cell in a multicellular organism contains an identical genome

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which mechanism is responsible for a muscle cell turning into a skin cell when moved to a new location?

A

induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is morphogenesis?

A

the rearrangement of cells or sheets of cells in the embryo
- gastrulation: the stage when 3 germ layers are established, and the basic body plan is set up
- organogenesis: the formation of organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gastrulation results in a 3-layered _____

A

gastrula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the steps of gastrulation?

A
  1. cells in the vegetal hemisphere push inward
  2. outer cells (future mesoderm and endoderm) roll inward
  3. blastocoel collapses and a new cavity (archenteron) is formed
  4. cells at the animal pole (future ectoderm) spread over the outer surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is convergent extension?

A

an example of cells changing their position (morphogenesis)
- produces a longer, narrower structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the formation of the neural tube

A

microtubules and actin filaments change the shape of ectodermal cells causing them to curve into each other. This forms a circle of cells which breaks off from the other ectodermal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an example of programmed cell death

A

apoptosis (cell death) removes the webbing between digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two major systems that control responses to stimuli, coordinate body activities, and maintain homeostasis?

A

the nervous system and endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endocrine vs. nervous signaling

A

endocrine:
- uses hormones as signal
- transported through blood
- occurs quickly or slowly
- lasts for a short or long period of time
- specificity is achieved by hormone/receptor interaction
nervous:
- uses electrical impulses and chemical neurotransmitters
- transported through neurons
- occurs very rapidly
- duration is very short
- specificity is achieved by close connection of neurons and target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the different functions of the endocrine and nervous systems?

A

the endocrine system is specialized for coordinating gradual changes that affect the entire body
the nervous system is specialized for directing immediate and rapid responses to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are neurons?

A

cells that are responsible for generating and transmitting the electrochemical impulses of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are glia?

A

cells that maintain homeostasis, form myelin, nourish, and provide support and protection for neurons in the central and peripheral nervous systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are signals transmitted through the nervous system?

A
  • electrical impulses are triggered at the dendrites
  • with sufficient stimulus (action potential), a new electrical impulse is generated and sent down the axon
  • neurotransmitter is released and crosses the synapse to bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the central nervous system made up of?

A

the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system made up of?

A

cranial nerves, ganglia (concentration of neuron cell bodies) outside CNS, spinal nerves (bundles of axons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the three stages of information processing in the nervous system?

A

sensory input -> integration -> motor output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do endocrine cells do?

A

they secrete hormones into the bloodstream that affect target cells to regulate physiology and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the major endocrine glands? (9)

A
  • hypothalamus *
  • pineal gland
  • pituitary gland *
  • thyroid gland
  • parathyroid glands
  • adrenal glands
  • pancreas
  • ovaries
  • testes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the organs containing endocrine cells? (6)

A
  • thymus
  • heart
  • liver
  • stomach
  • kidneys
  • small intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the hypothalamus’ role in the endocrine system and where is it located?

A

the hypothalamus is located in the brain and it acts as the master regulator of the endocrine system, primarily through the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two components of the pituitary gland?

A

the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the posterior pituitary work?

A

it is made up of the axons of neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. neurosecretory cells are neurons that produce a hormone and secrete it directly into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does the anterior pituitary work?

A

it is made up of endocrine cells that respond to hormones from the hypothalamus by secreting their own hormones
- hypothalamic hormones arrive via portal vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 5 core concepts of biology that relate to animal development and physiology?

A
  1. structure and function
  2. evolution
  3. systems
  4. information flow
  5. transformations of energy and matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are defining features of animals? (what makes an animal an animal?)

A
  • develop into different stages of life
  • heterotrophic
  • need to move at one point in development
  • respond to stimuli
  • lack of cell walls
  • multicellular
  • possess regulatory genes called hox genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are hox genes?

A

they code for proteins in a particular way to create specific structures (i.e., proteins for anterior, proteins for trunk, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What functions do animals need to carry out?

A
  • reproduce
  • respire (gas exchange)
  • maintaining internal functions (homeostasis)
  • grow/develop
  • bring in nutrients/ expel waste
  • obtain energy and transport throughout body
  • protect body from external harm
  • support + movement of body parts
  • obtain water and solute concentrations in internal environment
  • coordination of body functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the hierarchical organization of animal structure?

A
  • molecules
  • organelles
  • cells
  • tissues
  • organs
  • organ systems
  • organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is structure related to function?

A
  • structure enables function
  • a structure’s physical and chemical characteristics influence its interactions with other structures, and therefore its function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are functional trade-offs

A

when the specialization for one function limits the structure’s ability to perform other functions
- it is impossible to optimize for all parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is an example of a functional trade-off

A

two connective tissues:
cartilage- flexible, but not strong
bone- strong, but not flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is function related to structure?

A

evolution: if the function works well, it improves fitness, which is passed on through genes and this keeps the structure intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Biological ________ interact to form _______ _______

A

structures; complex systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are emergent properties?

A

emergent properties are the ‘properties’ that a higher level of organization exhibits but lower levels do not
(many components work together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Do all cells need to exchange material with the external environment?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the system(s) of the body that exchange material with the external environment?

A
  • digestive
  • excretory
  • respiratory
  • integumentary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the system(s) that transport material within the body?

A

circulatory + it interacts with all the systems that exchange externally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two ways systems of animals are able to perceive and respond to changes in their internal and external environments?

A

through 1) chemical and 2) electrical signaling between cells that coordinate responses at the cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Does homeostasis rely on positive or negative feedback?

A

negative - we want to return our environment to what it originally was, not reinforce whatever is altering it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why is homeostasis important?

A

cells are optimal under certain conditions (e.g., enzymes and membranes are sensitive to changes in surroundings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Negative feedback vs. positive feedback

A

negative: control mechanism in which the response opposes the original stimulus
positive: control mechanism in which the response reinforces the original stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Are uterine contractions during labor that cause more contractions an example of a (+/-) feedback? What about a high [CO2] triggering more rapid breathing?

A

positive; negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Do animals ever change set points and normal ranges of physiological parameters?

A

yes, animals will undergo REGULATED changes for altering stages of life, cyclic events (menstrual cycle), and as a response to environmental change (acclimatization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where do animals get energy and what is the ‘currency unit’ they use for energy within their bodies?

A

food; ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why do resource trade-offs occur?

A

organisms have limited energy and material resources so they must efficiently allocate across competing functional demands
- trade-off is where the energy will be used for best outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What kind of trade-off is this: the ability of skin to protect is limited by its need to exchange materials

A

functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What kind of trade-off is this: animals that produce many offspring at once provide little care for those offspring

A

life-history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why do animals eat?

A

all physiological functions require energy and/or matter
- food is how we get both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is bioenergetics?

A

the overall flow and transformation of energy within an organism
IMPORTANT: not all molecules from food are used - some are lost in feces and nitrogenous waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How much energy does an animal need?

A
  • enough to maintain basic metabolic functions
    • maintain cellular activity, blood flow, respiration, temperature
  • the MORE ACTIVE an animal is, the MORE ENERGY is needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Metabolic rate

A

amount of energy used per unit time (hour, day, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

metabolic rate of a NON-GROWING endotherm that is AT REST, has an EMPTY digestive tract, and is NOT experiencing stress (i.e., the min amount of energy to maintain basic functions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How can an animal’s energy use be measured?

A
  • measure amount of food eaten and feces released
  • heat production
  • oxygen consumption
  • CO2 production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the two types of BMR (think mouse and elephant)?

A
  1. absolute/total amount
  2. amount per unit body weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the chemical energy from food used for?

A

used in cellular respiration to produce ATP or the energy is stored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are organic molecules needed for?

A

biosynthesis (they are essentially building blocks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What functions are carried out by the digestive system?

A
  1. ingestion
  2. digestion
  3. absorption
  4. elimination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the difference between mechanical digestion and chemical digestion?

A

mechanical digestion is done through chewing and muscle movements (churning), chemical digestion is done through the use of enzymes
BOTH occur in the mouth AND stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Why are structures related to ingestion the most diverse part of the digestive system?

A

the food an animal consumes is very diverse among animals
- animals have evolved structures that allow them to exploit these various food sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the four main feeding mechanisms?

A
  1. suspension and filter feeders
  2. substrate feeders
  3. fluid feeders
  4. bulk feeders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

the wave-like movement of food from the mouth through the esophagus to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the purpose of sphincters?

A

to prevent food from going where it is not supposed to
- traveling back up the esophagus
- traveling to the small intestine before fully digested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does saliva contain?

A
  • mucus: protects lining of mouth and lubricates food
  • buffers: help prevent tooth decay by neutralizing acid
  • antimicrobial agents: kill bacteria
  • salivary amylase: enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the epiglottis do?

A

while swallowing food, the epiglottis covers the trachea to keep food from entering; after swallowing, it goes back up to allow air into the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Explain the path of food once it enters an animal’s mouth

A
  1. teeth mechanically digest the food and enzymes in the saliva chemically digest to produce a bolus
  2. the epiglottis closes off the trachea as the bolus passes down the throat and through the esophageal sphincter, which closes after food goes through it
  3. the food travels down the rest of the esophagus and through the sphincter and into the stomach
  4. food is further mechanically digested in the stomach by gastric juice to become chyme
  5. absorption of nutrients occurs in the small intestine
  6. small amounts of water is absorbed in the large intestine before waste is excreted from the anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why don’t we digest ourselves?

A

the components of gastric juice remain inactive until they enter the lumen of the stomach; parietal cells separately release hydrogen and chlorine and chief cells release an inactive form of pepsin: pepsinogen; in addition, mucus cells line the stomach to protect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Is the conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin an example of negative feedback? Why or why not?

A

no, because it is reinforcing the production of more pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where are carbohydrates chemically digested?

A
  • oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus
  • small intestine: pancreatic enzymes, epithelial enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where are proteins digested?

A
  • stomach
  • small intestine: pancreatic enzymes, epithelial enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where are nucleic acids digested?

A
  • small intestine: pancreatic and epithelial enzymes
83
Q

Why do bile salts play a role in the digestion of lipids?

A

chyme is mostly water based and lipids are insoluble in water, which means they do not dissolve well. Digestion can only happen when molecules are broken down well, so bile salts emulsify lipids to break them down further

84
Q

Where does the digestion of lipids happen and by what enzyme?

A

in the small intestine by pancreatic enzymes

85
Q

Why is the structure of the small intestine well suited for absorption?

A

the small intestine is made of large circular folds which contain villi to increase surface area. On the surface of the villi are microvilli which increase surface area even more. Blood vessels are closely connected to the outside of the small intestine

86
Q

What do lymph vessels do?

A

they carry lipids from the small intestine

87
Q

Why is the liver important in the digestive system?

A

it regulates the distribution of nutrients to the rest of the body and functions in detoxification

88
Q

What are the 3 parts of the large intestine?

A
  • colon
  • cecum
  • rectum
89
Q

How do the digestive tracts of carnivores and herbivores differ?

A
  • the cecum is MUCH larger in herbivores as it ferments plant material
  • overall, the digestive tract of herbivores is longer than that of carnivores
90
Q

What does the colon do?

A
  • responsible for some water reabsorption
  • formation and elimination of feces
    - feces: undigested material and bacteria
91
Q

What triggers the secretion of digestive hormones?

A

the presence of food

92
Q

What do digestive hormones trigger?

A

the secretion of gastric juices and digestive enzymes

93
Q

How do insulin and glucagon regulate energy storage?

A
  • insulin causes excess energy to be stored as glycogen in liver and muscle, then as fat in adipose cells
  • glucagon is secreted during energy deficit and causes the breakdown of liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen and fat
94
Q

How do hormones regulate appetite? What are leptin, insulin, peptide YY, and ghrelin?

A

a satiety center in the brain generates nerve impulses that make us feel hungry or full
- leptin: produced by adipose and regulates long-term appetite
- insulin and peptide YY are secreted after a meal
- ghrelin is secreted when stomach is empty

95
Q

Diffusion is only ______ over ______ distances

A

rapid; short

96
Q

Rate of diffusion is _________ proportional to distance

A

inversely

97
Q

To maximize diffusion rate, exchange surfaces should have:

A

a large surface area and be thin

98
Q

Do all cells in a multicellular organism need to exchange molecules with the environment?

A

yes

99
Q

How do animals with many cell layers exchange molecules with the external environment?

A

by the use of a circulatory system

100
Q

What are the 3 basic components of the circulatory system that all animals share?

A
  1. a circulatory fluid
    • blood in a closed system
    • hemolymph in an open system
  2. set of interconnecting vessels
  3. a muscular pump
101
Q

Explain the path of deoxygenated blood?

A
  1. it return to the right atrium of the heart through two major veins: the superior and inferior vena cava
  2. the right atrium contracts, pushing the blood into the right ventricle
  3. the right ventricle contracts and pushes the blood into the pulmonary artery, sending it to the lungs where it is oxygenated
  4. oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium
  5. the left atrium contracts, pushing the blood into the left ventricle
  6. the left ventricle contracts, sending the blood into the aorta and throughout the body
102
Q

Why are valves only in veins?

A

by the time blood is in the veins, the pressure at which it is being pushed back to the heart is very weak. Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards

103
Q

Diastole vs. systole

A

diastole = relaxation
systole = contraction

104
Q

Explain the cardiac cycle (diastole/systole)

A
  1. atrial and ventricular diastole
  2. atrial systole and ventricular diastole
  3. ventricular systole and atrial diastole
105
Q

How does blood vessel structure reflect function?

A

arteries have much thicker walls (endothelium, smooth muscle, connective tissue) while veins have thinner walls
veins have valves to prevent backflow as pressure is not strong enough to push it through to heart

106
Q

What type of blood vessel has the greatest area? Highest velocity? Most pressure?

A

capillaries; arteries; arteries
velocity: slows in capillaries but increases a bit in veins (not as fast as arteries though)
pressure: arteries have systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

107
Q

What regulates blood flow?

A
  • nerve impulses
  • hormones
  • local chemicals that affect arteriole diameter and pre-capillary sphincters
108
Q

Why do capillaries have thin walls and why does the blood travel through at such a slow velocity?

A

both characteristics allow for efficient exchange of materials between the blood and the interstitial fluid between the capillary and another cell

109
Q

What is blood?

A

blood is a tissue made up of different cell types that are suspended in a liquid called plasma

110
Q

What is plasma?

A

plasma is the fluid in which blood is suspended in:
- water
- ions
- proteins
- nutrients, metabolites, and wastes

111
Q

What are the cellular components of blood?

A
  • erythrocytes (red blood cells)
  • lymphocytes (white blood cells)
  • platelets
112
Q

What makes respiratory surfaces so specialized for gas exchange?

A

they have very large surface areas and very thin exchange surfaces
ex: gills, tracheae, lungs

113
Q

Why are gills unsuitable for terrestrial environments?

A

respiratory surfaces must be moist, therefore, terrestrial animals have an ENCLOSED respiratory surface to prevent excess water loss (gills are external)

114
Q

What are the components of the mammalian respiratory system?

A
  • nasal cavity (and mouth)
  • pharynx
    -larynx
  • trachea
  • lungs
  • bronchus
  • bronchioles
  • terminal bronchiole
  • alveoli
  • diaphragm
  • capillaries
  • pulmonary vein and artery
115
Q

How is hemoglobin important to the respiratory system?

A

red blood cells are packed with hemoglobin which binds with O2 that is respired. Then, the O2 can be transported throughout the body of larger, more complex animals

116
Q

How many oxygen binding sites does hemoglobin have?

A

4

117
Q

What is the difference between a temperature regulator and a temperature conformer?

A

a regulator will regulate their physiological parameters no matter the external temp while a conformer conforms to external conditions

118
Q

Regulators use ______ mechanisms to control internal changes

A

homeostatic; this allows for small internal fluctuations even in the case of larger external fluctuations

119
Q

What are the two physiological parameters being regulated in animals?

A
  • thermoregulation
  • osmoregulation
120
Q

What is thermoregulation and why does it matter?

A

the maintenance of an internal temperature within a tolerable range
why:
-biochemical and physiological processes are sensitive to temp changes
- animal species have optimal internal temp ranges

121
Q

What is a poikilotherm?

A

an animal who’s body temperature varies with the environment

122
Q

What is a homeotherm?

A

an animal that has a relatively stable body temperature

123
Q

What is an endotherm?

A

an animal that relies on metabolism as their major heat SOURCE

124
Q

What is an ectotherm?

A

an animal that relies mostly on their external environment as their major heat SOURCE - they do not produce enough heat on their own

125
Q

Are all poikilotherms ectotherms? Are all homeotherms endotherms?

A

NO! It depends on habitat in some cases

126
Q

What are the anatomical/physiological processes involved in thermoregulation?

A
  • evaporative heat loss: water lost from moist surfaces cools, adaptations of this include panting and sweating
  • circulatory adaptations: vasoregulation, countercurrent heat exchangers
  • metabolic heat production: all metabolic activity produces heat, muscle contraction (activity, shivering), brown adipose tissue
  • insulation: fur, feathers, fat
127
Q

Explain countercurrent heat exchangers

A

heat is transferred between fluids flowing in opposite directions; heat from warm arterial blood is transferred to cooler venous blood as it returns to body core

128
Q

Explain vasoregulation (thermoregulation)

A
  • achieved through nerve impulses and hormones
  • vasodilation (relaxation): allows more blood to flow from core to surface for cooling
  • vasoconstriction (tensed): reduces blood flow from core to surface to prevent heat loss
129
Q

What are some examples of behavioural responses involved in thermoregulation?

A
  • shade seeking, sun-basking, migration
130
Q

Water crosses cell membranes via…

A

simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

131
Q

What is osmoregulation?

A

the control of solute concentrations and the balance of water gain and loss from the body

132
Q

What is a hyperosmotic solution?

A

a solution containing a higher solute concentration and lower free H2O concentration

133
Q

What is a hypoosmotic solution?

A

a solution with a lower solute concentration and a higher free H2O concentration

134
Q

What is osmosis?

A

the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane

135
Q

What is hyperosmotic fluid?

A
  • higher [solutes] outside cell
  • water leaves cell through osmosis
  • cells that lose too much water shrivel and (may) die
136
Q

What is hypoosmotic fluid?

A
  • lower [solutes] outside cell; higher inside
  • water enters cell through osmosis
  • cells that gain too much water burst and die
137
Q

What is isoosmotic fluid?

A
  • same [solutes] inside and outsideof cell
  • no net movement of water in or out of cells (water moves an equal amount in and out)
138
Q

What are osmoconformers?

A

marine animals that are isoosmotic with their environment (no loss or gain of water)
- some have stable osmolarities while other tolerate variability
- actively transport specific solutes to maintain homeostasis

139
Q

What are osmoregulators?

A

marine, freshwater, and terrestrial living animals that maintain a stable internal osmolarity
- particular internal osmolarity is achieved by actively transporting solutes into or out of cells

140
Q

Explain osmoregulation in a marine fish. Are they hypoosmotic or hyperosmotic relative to the seawater?

A

they are hypoosmotic relative to seawater because seawater has a higher solute concentration
- osmotic water loss through gills + other parts of body surface (this loss of water increases internal osmolarity)
- gain of water and salt ions from food
- gain of water and salt ions from drinking seawater (marine fish drink seawater to replace water lost across body surfaces)
- excretion of salt ions from gills
- excretion of salt ions and small amounts of water in concentrated urine

141
Q

Explain osmoregulation in a freshwater fish

A

freshwater fish = hyperosmotic relative to external water
- osmotic water gain through gills and other parts of body surface
- gain of water and some ions through food (freshwater fish drink almost no water)
- uptake of salty ions by gills
- excretion of salt ions and large amounts of water in dilute urine (freshwater fish take up salt ions and excrete water to bring internal osmolarity back up)

142
Q

What are some adaptions to prevent water loss (dehydration) in terrestrial animals?

A
  • body coverings: cuticle, shells, keratinized skin
  • nocturnal
143
Q

How do terrestrial animals prevent dehydration?

A

they maintain water balance by drinking and eating moist food and producing metabolic water through cellular respiration

144
Q

How do transport epithelia help animals control solute concentrations of internal body fluids?

A

they are specialized for moving particular solutes in controlled amounts in specific directions

145
Q

Explain transport epithelia in more detail

A
  • they have large surface areas
  • some face the external environment directly (gills), most line tubular networks that connect to the outside by an opening on the body surface (salt glands, kidneys)
  • closely connected to circulatory fluid
146
Q

How do seabirds, sea turtles, and marine iguanas remove excess salt?

A

through salt-excreting glands

147
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

the recognition of traits shared by broad ranges of pathogens, using a small set of receptors; all animals have it; rapid response

148
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

the recognition of traits specific to particular pathogens, using a vast array of receptors; vertebrates only; slower response

149
Q

What are the three lines of defense in immunity?

A
  1. barrier defenses: skin, mucous membranes, secretions
  2. internal defenses: phagocytotic cells, natural killer cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammatory response
  3. humoral response: antibodies defend against infection in body fluids
    OR
  4. cell-mediated response: cytotoxic cells defend against infection in body cells
150
Q

What do barrier defenses do and what are they?

A

they prevent most pathogens from entering the body
- skin/shells/cuticle: thickened outer surface inhibits entry of pathogens
- mucous membranes: mucus secreted by internalized external surfaces traps microbes and other particles
- secretions (saliva, tears): washing action prevents microbial colonization, hostile chemical environment: lysozyme and acidic pH

151
Q

How do phagocytotic cells know what’s a pathogen and what isn’t?

A

they recognize molecules that are characteristic of a set of pathogens; the recognized molecule must be absent from the vertebrate itself but essential to the survival of the pathogen (i.e., pathogen should not survive w/o molecule)

152
Q

How do phagocytotic cells help defend against pathogens?

A

they destroy the pathogens through phagocytosis: engulfing the pathogen in a vacuole and digesting it with enzymes in a lysosome, then excreting the waste from the pathogen

153
Q

Where are phagocytotic cells located?

A
  • blood
  • skin
  • mucous membranes
  • lymph
154
Q

What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?

A

to collect leaked fluid from an injury (open wound) and eliminate any pathogens that could be in it (i.e., they filter the leaked fluid)

155
Q

How do natural killer cells protect against pathogens?

A

natural killer cells are a part of the internal defense and they work by recognizing surface proteins of virus-infected or cancerous cells; once they have recognized one of these cells, they release chemicals that cause apoptosis in these cells

156
Q

How do antimicrobial proteins work and what are two examples?

A

they attack pathogens or impede their reproduction
ex: interferons: secreted by virus-infected cells, trigger surrounding cells to produce chemicals that inhibit viral reproduction
ex: complement proteins: plasma proteins that are activated by substances on the surface of many microbes, lead to lysis of invading cells, also involved in inflammation and adaptive immunity

157
Q

What is lysis? (immunity)

A

the breakdown of a cell by damaging its plasma membrane

158
Q

What is the inflammatory response and what are the two examples given?

A

signaling molecules are released by injured or infected (flu) tissue and they cause local inflammation (e.g., sore throat)
ex: histamine- triggers vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability in affected area, more white blood cells and proteins can enter interstitial fluid
ex: cytokines- further increase blood flow to the affected area

159
Q

Explain the role of signaling molecules in the inflammatory response including what happens after what they do

A

they cause capillaries to dilate and increase blood flow, as a result, the phagocytotic cells (neutrophils), activated complement proteins, and other microbial proteins arrive from the blood and work together to fight the infection

160
Q

What is a systematic inflammatory response?

A

it is an exaggerated response to a more serious infection
- releases more white blood cells from the bone marrow
- reset body’s thermostat to cause fever

161
Q

Histamines increase local blood flow, which leads to the arrival of blood cells that release cytokines that promote local blood flow. This is an example of what kind of feedback? (+/-)?

A

positive because it is reinforcing blood flow

162
Q

How is specificity achieved in adaptive immunity?

A

through interactions between antigens and antigen receptors

163
Q

What is an antigen and what is an antigen receptor?

A

an antigen is a large molecule found on the surface of specific pathogen or secreted by that pathogen (there are many)
an antigen receptor is a protein produced by B or T cells and it recognizes a specific antigen (like lock and key)

164
Q

What is an epitope?

A

it is a small, accessible portion of an antigen that binds to an antigen receptor (antigens have many epitopes)

165
Q

An immune system that is able to recognize multiple epitopes of a single antigen molecule is advantageous because?

A

it is less likely that multiple epitopes will mutate than it is that one epitope will mutate

166
Q

B cells and T cells are what type of blood cell?

A

lymphocytes

167
Q

Where do B and T cells mature?

A

B cells: in the bone marrow
T cells: migrate to the thymus (from the bone marrow) and mature there

168
Q

How many types of antigen receptors does a single B or T cell produce?

A

only one

169
Q

How many epitopes can each antigen receptor bind to?

A

only one

170
Q

What produces the specificity of antigen-binding sites?

A

variable regions of the antigen receptors

171
Q

What is the humoral response?

A

B cell antigen receptors bind to intact antigens in the blood or lymph
- antigens may be on the surface of the pathogen or secreted by the pathogen

172
Q

What is the cell-mediated response?

A

T cell antigen receptors can only bind to antigen FRAGMENTS that are presented on the surface of the HOST cells (not the pathogen itself)

173
Q

What is proliferation? Why do B and T cells do it?

A

proliferation is the production of many more B and/or T cells when they encounter their epitope because there are many more viruses to attack
B and T cells proliferate into two types of cells: effector cells and memory cells

174
Q

What are effector cells?

A

short-lived cells that take effect immediately against a pathogen or its antigen

175
Q

What are memory cells?

A

long-lived cells that give rise to effector cells if the same epitope is encountered again

176
Q

What is the effector form of B cells?

A

plasma cells that secrete antibodies

177
Q

What are antibodies?

A

soluble forms of the antigen receptor; they are specific for the same epitope as the og B cell

178
Q

What do anitbodies do?

A

they mark pathogens for inactivation and destruction:
- neutralization prevents pathogen entry into cells
- antibody binding increases the ability of phagocytotic cells to recognize the pathogens
- leads to increased phagocytosis of pathogens
- antibodies activate the complement system (complement proteins) which leads to pore formation (for lysis)

179
Q

What are the two effector forms of T cells?

A

helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

180
Q

How do helper T cells work?

A

help to activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells by releasing cytokines

181
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

they secrete proteins that lead to cell death in infected cells; they bind to infected cells and release perforin and granzymes

182
Q

What does perforin do?

A

it causes pores to form in the cell membrane of infected cells, allowing fluids to enter

183
Q

What do granzymes do?

A

they initiate apoptosis

184
Q

Explain memory cells

A

they are responsible for long-term protection provided by a prior infection or vaccination
- they give rise to effector cells only if the epitope is encountered again
- secondary immune response -> rapid

185
Q

What is a hydrostatic skeleton?

A

fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment
ex: worms, jellyfish, sea anemone

186
Q

What is an endoskeleton?

A

hardened internal skeleton
ex: sponges, echinoderms, chordates

187
Q

What is an exoskeleton?

A

hardened external skeleton
ex: mollusc shells, arthropod cuticles

188
Q

How do animals with a hydroskeleton locomote?

A

squeeze -> elongate
through a peristaltic motion:
ex: earthworms have longitudinal muscle and circular muscle
- when the longitudinal muscle is relaxed and the circular muscle is contracted, that portion of their body elongates
- when the longitudinal muscle is contracted and the circular muscle is relaxed, that portion of their body is shortened

189
Q

How do endoskeletons and exoskeletons generate movement?

A

by using muscles attached to the hard parts of a skeleton

190
Q

What are antagonistic muscles?

A

muscles that generate opposite movements across a joint
when one is contracted, the other is relaxed

191
Q

Flexor vs. extensor muscles

A

a flexor muscle (ex: biceps) brings the joint together when contracted while an extensor muscle (triceps) opens the joint when contracted

192
Q

What is the hierarchical organization of vertebrate muscle?

A
  • skeletal muscle
    is composed of
  • muscle fibers (multinucleated cells)
    are composed of
  • myofibrils (tube-long organelles)
    are composed of
  • thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments
193
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A

a functional unit of muscle composed of multiple thick and thin filaments bounded by Z lines
(where contractions happen)

194
Q

What is the thin filament of muscle? The thick filament?

A

thin: two chains of actin molecules
thick: multiple myosin molecules with their heads exposed

195
Q

Why is skeletal muscle also called striated muscle?

A

because of its striated appearance do to the strands of thick and thin filaments

196
Q

Do the filaments change their shape when the muscle contracts?

A

no, they slide past each other

197
Q

How do muscle contractions happen?

A
  • first, a contraction is initiated by motor neurons which results in an increase in free Ca2+ in the myofibrils of muscle cells
  • the Ca2+ interacts with tropomyosin and troponin to expose the myosin binding site on actin molecules
  • for myosin to bind, it requires ATP to increase its energy configuration
  • once bonded, ATP breaks down into ADP + P and the myosin head is now in high energy configuration
  • the P molecule breaks off allowing for myosin to bind to the binding site on actin forming a cross-bridge
  • the myosin head pulls the actin filament towards the M line in the center of the sarcomere, causing overlapping
198
Q

What do tropomyosin and troponin do?

A

Tropomyosin covers the binding sites on actin, preventing myosin heads from attaching
Troponin complexes are binding sites for Ca2+ and once Ca2+ binds, the complex alters the shape of tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding sites

199
Q

What would happen if a muscle was injected with a drug that degrades tropomyosin?

A

the muscle would contract, but ONLY when ATP is available

200
Q

Locomotion is ______ ______ from place to place

A

active travel

201
Q

How do animals move (think ATP)?

A

they must expend energy to overcome gravity (land) and friction (water)

202
Q

How do adaptions aid in locomotion?

A

natural selection favours adaptations that reduce energy costs
e.g., fusiform body shape, springy tendons
behavioural: passive descent in diving mammals

203
Q

How do land animals oppose gravity?

A

with powerful muscles and strong skeletal support to propel themselves and remain upright

204
Q

How do land animals maintain balance?

A

walking: bipedal animals keep one leg on ground; multi-legged animals keep three legs on ground
running/ jumping: all legs can leave the ground, momentum keeps the body upright

205
Q

How do tendons reduce energy expenditure?

A

when they stretch, they store energy in elastic fibres; the energy is then released to help in the next jump

206
Q

How do flying animals oppose gravity?

A

they must generate enough lift to overcome the downward force from gravity; they also tend to have low body mass and a fusiform body to help reduce drag

207
Q

How do animals living in water oppose friction?

A

most aquatic animals are fairly buoyant (i.e., overcoming gravity requires little energy)
however, water is very dense compared to air so drag IS a problem; fusiform body shapes reduce drag

BIOL 1011 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions