Animal Behaviour Flashcards

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1
Q

what is a heterotroph?

A

obtain energy and nutrients from other organisms

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2
Q

what are the two major systems that control responses to stimuli and coordinate body activities?

A

endocrine and nervous system

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3
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment

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4
Q

homeostasis relies on _____ ______

A

negative feedback

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5
Q

where do animals get energy?

A

Animals obtain chemical energy and molecular building blocks from food

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6
Q

what is a trade off?

A

sacrificing in exchange for something else

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7
Q

natural selection leads to trade offs, true or false?

A

true

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8
Q

Haploid _____ join to form a diploid _____

A

gametes, zygote

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9
Q

what is an acrosome?

A

vesicle that contains hydrolytic enzymes

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10
Q

what is the purpose of the jelly coat around an egg?

A

protects egg, secretes signal molecules that attract sperm

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11
Q

what is the order of the 3 layers in an egg?

A

Plasma membrane, vitelline layer, jelly coat

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12
Q

what triggers the acrosomal reaction?

A

Contact with the (peanut butter) jelly coat

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13
Q

_____ _____ on acrosomal process bind to receptors on egg cell membrane

A

surface proteins

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14
Q

what is polyspermy?

A

when more than one spermie gets to the egg

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15
Q

what triggers fast block to polyspermy?

A

when Plasma membranes fuse

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16
Q

what causes slow block to polyspermy?

A

when Sperm nucleus enters/cortical reaction

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17
Q

which layer of the egg hardens in the fertilization envelope after the sperm nucleus enters?

A

vitelline layer

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18
Q

Influx of calcium also _____ the egg

A

activates

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19
Q

what results from Initiation of metabolic reactions that trigger the onset of development?

A

Increased cellular respiration and Increased protein synthesis

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20
Q

what do sperm and egg nuclei fuse to form?

A

the diploid nucleus of the zygote

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21
Q

what happens to the zygote during cleavage?

A

it becomes multicellular

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22
Q

what is a blastula?

A

a hollow ball of cells

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23
Q

what is the fluid filled cavity within the blastula called?

A

blastocoel

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24
Q

cleavage results in many smaller cells called _____

A

blastomeres

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25
Q

In frogs, the zygote becomes a ____

A

blastula

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26
Q

the top pole is the ____ pole, and the bottom pole is the ____ pole

A

animal,vegetal

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27
Q

which pole contains smaller cells, with blastocoel?

A

animal

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28
Q

what is differential gene expression?

A

cells that possess the same genome can look and behave differently

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29
Q

Cells express different genes depending on………?

A

their location and the stage of development

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30
Q

All animals are capable of movement, true or false?

A

true

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31
Q

blood is a connective tissue, true or false?

A

true

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32
Q

why has the similar fusiform body shape of diverse animals, such as sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals evolved?

A

this is the body shape that makes it possible for aquatic animals to swim rapidly.

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33
Q

______ is a protein with a specific shape that allows it to bind oxygen for transport in the
blood.

A

hemoglobin

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34
Q

how does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?

A

the positive feedback’s responses are in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than
opposite to it.

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35
Q

Expressing different genes leads to the production of the same proteins, true or false?

A

false, Expressing different genes leads to the production of different proteins

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36
Q

what ensures that cells know what genes to express at which time?

A

cytoplasmic determinants

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37
Q

what are cytoplasmic determinants?

A

Molecules within the cytoplasm that regulate gene expression

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38
Q

the signal molecules that a cell is exposed to depends on its location within the embryo, and the stage of development, is an example of what?

A

inductive signalling

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39
Q

what is morphogenesis?

A

the rearrangement of cells or sheets of cells in the embryo

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40
Q

______ establishes the three germ layers and sets up the basic body plan

A

gastrulation

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41
Q

what is organogenisis?

A

the formation of the organs

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42
Q

what is the new cavity formed when the blastocoel collapses?

A

archenteron

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43
Q

Gastrulation results in a _____ layered gastrula

A

three

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44
Q

describe how the cells in the animal and vegetal pole behave during frog gastrulation

A

cells in the vegetal pole push inward, animal pole spread over the outer surface

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45
Q

during frog neurulation, the cells in the dorsal mesoderm form the _____

A

notochord

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46
Q

in frog neurulation, the ectoderm above the notochord becomes….

A

the neural plate

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47
Q

in frog neurulation, the neural ____ rolls into the neural _____

A

plate, tube

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48
Q

what does the neural tube become during frog neurulation?

A

the brain and spinal cord

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49
Q

where do the neural crest cells develop during frog neurulation?

A

where neural tube separates from ectoderm

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50
Q

how is morphogenesis achieved?

A

through changes in cell position, shape, and survival

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51
Q

what kind of cells change shape during neural tube formation in frogs?

A

ectodermal cells

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52
Q

what is the result of convergent extension?

A

cells producing a longer, narrower structure

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53
Q

programmed cell death (apoptosis) shapes embryos, true or false?

A

true

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54
Q

A cell that would normally develop into a muscle cell is moved to a different location within the embryo
where cells normally develop into bone cells. The relocated cell still develops into a muscle cell. What
mechanism is responsible for determining this cell’s fate?

A

cytoplasmic determinants

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55
Q

If a mutation occurred in sea urchin sperm that prevented the acrosomal reaction from occurring, which
of the following would be the result?

A

Sperm would be unable to penetrate the jelly coat of an egg.

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56
Q

In a newly fertilized egg, the vitelline layer……

A

hardens to form a protective cover.

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57
Q

During cleavage, the size of the embryo increases with each doubling of the number of cells, true or false?

A

false

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58
Q

The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is….

A

ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.

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59
Q

The formation of the fertilization envelope and the slow block to polyspermy are dependent on the _____ of _____ ions from/into the egg

A

entrance, calcium

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60
Q

The cavity inside the blastula is called the ______

A

blastocoel

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61
Q

what is fertilization?

A

The joining of haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote.

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62
Q

what is used as a signal for endocrine signalling?

A

hormone

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63
Q

what is used as a signal in the nervous system?

A

electrical impulse

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64
Q

what are glia and what system are they located in?

A

housekeeping cells, nervous system

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65
Q

the ____ system is specialized for direction immediate and rapid responses to the environment

A

nervous

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66
Q

the ____ system is specialized for coordinating gradual changes that affect the entire body

A

endocrine

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67
Q

where is the neurotransmitter initially before a signal is sent?

A

the synapse

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68
Q

the signal travelling from the axon hillock to the synaptic terminal triggers….

A

the release of neurotransmitters

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69
Q

what does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

A

brain, spinal cord

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70
Q

what does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) consist of?

A

cranial nerves, ganglia outside of CNS, spinal nerves

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71
Q

what are the three stages that information processing in the nervous system is composed of?

A

sensory input, integration, motor output

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72
Q

Endocrine cells secrete _____ into the bloodstream, affecting target cells to regulate physiology and behaviour

A

hormones

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73
Q

Posterior pituitary is composed of ______ cells of the hypothalamus

A

neurosecretory

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74
Q

what is known as the “master regulator” of the endocrine system?

A

the hypothalamus

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75
Q

the short term stress response is also known as….

A

the fight or flight response

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76
Q

The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ____

A

synapse

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77
Q

A simple nervous system includes these 3 things

A

sensory information, an integrating centre, and effectors.

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78
Q

A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that hormone’s ____ cell

A

target

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79
Q

what part of the nervous system is activated during the fight or flight response? (parasympathetic or sympathetic)

A

sympathetic nervous system

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80
Q

All hormones elicit the same biological response from all of their target cells, true or false?

A

false

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81
Q

Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected
to reveal high levels of _____

A

glucagon

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82
Q

All hormones are carried to target cells in the blood, true or false?

A

true

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83
Q

what are some effects of epinephrine and noepinephrine?

A

increased blood glucose, increased breathing rate and metabolic rate, increased alertness, and decreased digestive, excretory, and reproductive system activity

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84
Q

what two hormones are involved in the stress response?

A

epinephrine and noepinephrine

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85
Q

where is the receptor located for a lipid soluble hormone?

A

inside the nucleus or cytosol

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86
Q

where is the receptor located for a water soluble hormone?

A

on the membrane

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87
Q

lipid soluble hormones are responsible for gene regulation, true or false?

A

false, water soluble are

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88
Q

____ soluble hormones regulate gene expression

A

lipid

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89
Q

the ______ secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

adrenal medulla

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90
Q

The response of a target cell to a hormone depends on which two things?

A
  • The type of receptor on the target cell

* The signaling pathways within the target cell

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91
Q

what are antagonistic hormones?

A

Pairs of hormones whose actions oppose each other

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92
Q

what do antagonistic hormones do?

A

Maintain a physiological parameter within an acceptable range

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93
Q

As body mass increases, absolute body metabolic rate _____

A

increases

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94
Q

Elephants have a lower or higher BMR per unit body mass?

A

lower

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95
Q

An animals diet must supply……

A

energy, organic molecules, and essential nutrients

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96
Q

Chemical energy in food is used in cellular respiration to produce _____

A

ATP

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97
Q

what are the 4 types of organic molecules needed for biosynthesis?

A

Nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids

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98
Q

What are the 4 functions carried out by digestive systems?

A

ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination

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99
Q

Structures associated with digestion are the most diverse part of the digestive system , true or false?

A

false, ingestion is

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100
Q

what are suspension feeders/filter feeders?

A

feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water

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101
Q

what is substrate feeder?

A

feeder that lives in or on surface

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102
Q

what is an example of a fluid feeder?

A

a mosquito drinking blood from human

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103
Q

what is a bulk feeder?

A

a feeder that consumes large pieces of food

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104
Q

what 2 things does the esophagus connect?

A

the pharynx and the stomach

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105
Q

what are the 4 things that saliva contains?

A

Mucus , Buffers, Antimicrobial agents, Salivary amylase

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106
Q

what is the function of buffers in saliva?

A

neutralize acidity and prevent tooth decay

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107
Q

what is the function of antimicrobial agents in saliva?

A

attack bacteria and viruses

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108
Q

what prevents food from coming back up from the stomach ?

A

Sphincter

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109
Q

the sphincter is usually kept open, true or false?

A

false, closed

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110
Q

____ travels via peristalsis

A

food

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111
Q

Mechanical and chemical digestion ______ in the stomach

A

continues

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112
Q

what is the interior space of the stomach called?

A

the lumen

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113
Q

what is pepsin responsible for?

A

digesting proteins

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114
Q

food is mixed by hydrochloric acid to become ____

A

chime

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115
Q

in the stomach, the epithelium secretes _____ ___

A

gastric juices

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116
Q

how do we not digest ourselves?

A

HCl and digestive enzymes maintained in inactive forms until released in lumen

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117
Q

____ provides protection for cells lining alimentary canal

A

mucus

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118
Q

in the oral cavity, polysaccharides are broken down by ____ into _____

A

Salivary amylase, smaller polysaccharides and maltose

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119
Q

what produces bile?

A

the liver

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120
Q

in the stomach, proteins are broken down by ____ into _____

A

pepsin, small polypeptides

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121
Q

what stores bile?

A

the gallbladder

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122
Q

bile is released into ______ to emulsify fats

A

duodenum

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123
Q

what do villi and microvilli do in the small intestine?

A

increases surface area

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124
Q

in the large intestine, the ____ contains bacteria that ferments plant material

A

cecum

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125
Q

a carnivore will have a longer cecum with larger surface area, compared to a herbivore. true or false?

A

false, the opposite is true

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126
Q

the majority of water is reabsorbed in the ____ ______

A

small intestine

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127
Q

The colon functions in ………?

A

water reabsorption and formation and elimination of the feces

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128
Q

what does feces consist of?

A

undigested material and bacteria

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129
Q

what triggers the secretion of digestive hormones?

A

the presence of food

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130
Q

hormones regulate _____, _____ ____, and ______

A

digestion, energy storage, and appetite

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131
Q

Hormones _____ and ______ regulate energy storage

A

insulin, glucagon

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132
Q

Excess energy is stored as ______ in liver and muscle, then as ____ in adipose cells

A

glycogen, fat

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133
Q

what generates the nerve impulses that make us feel hungry or full?

A

A satiety center in the brain

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134
Q

_____ is produced by adipose tissue (body fat) and regulates long-term appetite

A

Leptin

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135
Q

a fat animal will have higher concentration of leptin circulating in blood, true or false?

A

true

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136
Q

Insulin, PYY, and ghrelin are secreted in response to _______

A

lack of a meal, promotes hunger

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137
Q

Chemical digestion in the mouth is limited to _______

A

carbohydrates

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138
Q

in the stomach, pepsinogen is converted into ____

A

pepsin

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139
Q

Compared to that of herbivores, carnivores’ intestines are generally ___ convoluted

A

less

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140
Q

Mechanical digestion occurs in the mouth, stomach, and the small intestine. true or false?

A

false, not the small intestine

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141
Q

the gall bladder is responsible for the production of bile, true or false?

A

false, it only stores bile

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142
Q

Between a human, an elephant, a penguin, a lizard, and a mouse, which animal would have the greatest
basal metabolic rate (L O2/hr)?

A

elephant

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143
Q

An organ responsible for absorbing food molecules should……

A

have a large internal surface area, & be well connected with the blood supply.

144
Q

Diffusion is only rapid over long distances, true or false?

A

false, short distances only

145
Q

Random movement causes a net flow from an area of ___ concentration to an area of ___ concentration

A

high, low

146
Q

Animals with many layers require a circulatory system to _____ _____

A

transport materials

147
Q

what are the 3 basic components in any animal’s circulatory system?

A

A circulatory fluid, Set of interconnecting vessels, A muscular pump

148
Q

circulatory systems are always closed, true or false?

A

false, they are either open or closed

149
Q

what does the Interstitial fluid do within the circulatory system?

A

exchanges materials with cells of the body

150
Q

what two types of animals have closed double circulation ?

A

Mammals and birds

151
Q

the heart consists of…..

A

4 chambers, 2 atria, 2 ventricles (left and right)

152
Q

Blood flows in from ____, enters towards heart at ____

A

veins, atria

153
Q

Ventricles pump blood out of the heart (away) by _____

A

arteries

154
Q

how is backflow prevented in the circulatory system?

A

AV valve and semilunar valve

155
Q

the wall of the heart is composed of…

A

cardiac muscle

156
Q

Atria have much thinner walls than ventricles, true or false?

A

true

157
Q

why is the Left ventricle wall is somewhat thicker than right ventricle wall?

A

because of the distance that the blood needs to be pumped

158
Q

____ _____ structure reflects function, needs to be stretchy

A

blood vessel

159
Q

what are the 3 layers of artery walls?

A

connective tissue, Smooth muscle layer, endothelium

160
Q

why are the walls thicker in arteries compared to veins?

A

because under greater pressure

161
Q

blood velocity is highest in the ____

A

aorta

162
Q

why are valves important in the veins in legs?

A

to help prevent backflow, particular veins in legs moving against gravity in low pressure system

163
Q

what two things allow for exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid?

A

thin capillary walls and slow blood velocity

164
Q

exchange occurs via 3 things:

A

endocytosis and exocytosis, diffusion, bulk flow

165
Q

blood is a tissue consisting of cells suspended in ____

A

plasma

166
Q

blood is __% plasma, __% cellular elements

A

55, 45

167
Q

what are erythrocytes and leukocytes also known as?

A

red blood cells, white blood cells

168
Q

what are platelets responsible for assisting in in the circulatory system?

A

blood clotting

169
Q

gills, trachea, and lungs all have:

A

large surface areas (greater than rest of body exterior) & very thin exchange surfaces (a single epithelial layer)

170
Q

air has a high concentration of o2, ___ has a low concentration

A

water

171
Q

animals that obtain o2 from water need to be much more efficient than animals that obtain o2 from air, true or false?

A

true

172
Q

gills are efficient at extracting o2 but are unsuitable in _____ environments

A

terrestrial

173
Q

Respiratory surfaces of terrestrial animals are enclosed within the body to……

A

prevent excess water loss

174
Q

Respiratory surfaces must be dry, true or false?

A

false, must be moist cringe

175
Q

Air sacs called ____ are covered with capillaries at end of each terminal bronchiole

A

alveoli

176
Q

___ binds to hemoglobin for transport in red blood cells

A

oxygen

177
Q

how many oxygen binding sites does hemoglobin have?

A

4

178
Q

what is the function of the rings of trachea?

A

rings of cartilage to prevent lungs from collapsing

179
Q

When one site binds, the other three bind more easily.. this is an example of ________

A

increased affinity

180
Q

When one site unloads, the other three unload more easily.. this is an example of ________

A

decreased affinity

181
Q

what 2 things may affect affinity?

A

temperature and pH

182
Q

the majority of Co2 produced in body cells travels:

A

in blood plasma as bicarbonate (hco3-) (70%)

183
Q

___ reacts with ___ to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into HCO3- and H+ within red blood cells

A

co2, water

184
Q

H+ binds to hemoglobin to prevent decrease in ______

A

blood pH

185
Q

why are circulatory systems necessary?

A

because diffusion is only rapid over very short distance

186
Q

The innermost tissue layer of arteries is composed of ______

A

Endothelium

187
Q

Unidirectional valves that prevent the blood from flowing backward are found in the ____

A

veins

188
Q

All gas exchange between air and blood in mammals occurs across the walls of the ____

A

Alveoli

189
Q

the ______ vein contains oxygenated blood in an adult human

A

pulmonary

190
Q

Hormones are transported in the blood, true or false?

A

true

191
Q

how do regulators control internal changes?

A

by using homeostatic mechanisms

192
Q

Conformers allow their internal condition to change in response to _____ _____

A

external changes

193
Q

what are the 3 types of physiological parameters that are

regulated?

A

Thermoregulation, Osmoregulation, Excretion

194
Q

what is thermoregulation?

A

the maintenance of an internal temperature within a tolerable range

195
Q

enzyme reaction rates and membrane fluidity vary with _______

A

temperature

196
Q

Endotherms rely on ______ as their major heat source

A

metabolism

197
Q

Ectotherm body temperature depends on _____ ______

A

external conditions

198
Q

____________ requires maintaining equal rates of heat gain and heat loss

A

Thermoregulation

199
Q

what happens during Evaporative heat loss ?

A

Water lost from moist surfaces carries away heat

200
Q

WHAT ARE EXAMPLES OF BEHAVIOURAL responses?

A

Shade seeking/Sun basking, migration, hibernation

201
Q

______ relaxes smooth muscle walls of surface blood vessels

A

Vasodiliation

202
Q

_______ tenses smooth muscle walls of surface blood vessels

A

Vasoconstriction

203
Q

what is the function of vasodiliation?

A

Allows more blood to low from core to surface for cooling

204
Q

what is the function of vasoconstriction?

A

Reduces blood flow from core to surface to prevent heat loss

205
Q

Heat is transferred between fluids flowing in opposite directions, true or false?

A

true

206
Q

Heat from ____ arterial blood is transferred to ____ venous blood as it returns to the body core

A

warm, cooler

207
Q

muscle contraction occurs during thermogenesis by….

A

shivering, activity

208
Q

in Brown adipose tissue (some mammals), there is a high concentration of ______, and cellular respiration produces ____ instead of ATP

A

mitochondria, heat

209
Q

the ________ is responsible for detecting change in body temperature and directing a response

A

hypothalamus

210
Q

what is osmoregulation?

A

the control of solute concentrations and the balance of water gain and loss

211
Q

what are some physiological parameters for osmoregulation?

A

Total solute concentration, Individual solute concentrations, Body water (volume)

212
Q

_____ is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane

A

Osmosis

213
Q

Animal cells are affected by the relative _____ of their surrounding fluid

A

osmolarity

214
Q

_______ fluid occurs in cells that lose too much water to their surrounding fluid will shrivel and die

A

Hyperosmotic

215
Q

_______ fluid occurs in cells that gain too much water from their surrounding fluid will burst

A

Hypoosmotic

216
Q

_______ fluid occurs when solute concentrations are balanced, and there is no net movement of water into or out of cells

A

Isoosmotic

217
Q

___________ maintain a stable internal

osmolarity

A

Osmoregulators

218
Q

where are osmoregulators found?

A

in marine, freshwater, and terrestrial environments

219
Q

how are changes in internal osmolarity achieved?

A

by actively transporting solutes into or out of cells

220
Q

Water flows in response to osmotic gradients, true or false?

A

true

221
Q

Osmoconformers are hypoosmotic with their environment , true or false?

A

false, they are isoosmotic

222
Q

__________ actively transport specific solutes to maintain homeostasis

A

Osmoconformers

223
Q

all osmoconformers have stable osmolarities, true or false?

A

false, some have stable osmolarities while others tolerate variable osmolarities

224
Q

does osmoregulation require energy?

A

yes

225
Q

how are energy costs reduced during osmoregulation?

A

by minimizing osmotic differences between body fluids and the surrounding environment

226
Q

Marine animals ‐ ___ water
Freshwater animals ‐ ____ water
Terrestrial animals ‐ ___ water

A

lose, gain, lose

227
Q

marine fish gain ____ & ______ from food

A

water and salt ions

228
Q

how are salt ions excreted by marine fish?

A

using gills, also urine

229
Q

how do marine fish gain water and salt ions?

A

by drinking seawater

230
Q

in marine fish, osmotic water loss occurs through ____ and other parts of body surface

A

gills

231
Q

freshwater fish gain water and some ions from _____

A

food

232
Q

freshwater fish Osmotic water gain through _____

A

gills and other parts of body surface

233
Q

in freshwater fish, Excretion of salt ions and large amount of water dilute in _______

A

urine from kidneys

234
Q

______ fish spend part of their lives in marine environments and part in freshwater environments

A

Diadromous

235
Q

_____ is a challenge for terrestrial animals

A

dehydration

236
Q

what kind of adaptations help terrestrial animals reduce water loss ?

A

– Body coverings
– cuticle, shells, keratinized skin
– Nocturnal

237
Q

how to terrestrial animals maintain water balance?

A

by drinking and eating moist food and producing metabolic water through cellular respiration

238
Q

Animals control the ______ concentration of an internal body fluid

A

solute

239
Q

what is transport epithelia ?

A

One or more layers of epithelial cells specialized for moving particular solutes in controlled amounts in specific directions

240
Q

Transport epithelia have small surface areas, true or false?

A

false, large

241
Q

do all transport epithelia face the external environment directly?

A

no, some face the external environment directly, but many line tubular networks that connect to the outside by an opening on the body surface.

242
Q

Seabirds, sea turtles, and marine iguanas remove excess salt taken in when drinking sea water through _____________

A

salt‐excreting glands

243
Q

what is the purpose of excretion?

A

Excretion rids the body of nitrogenous metabolites and other metabolic wastes

244
Q

since it is toxic, do all animals excrete ammonia?

A

Most freshwater animals excrete ammonia, but other animals expend energy to convert it to less toxic urea or uric acid

245
Q

Proteins and nucleic acids contain amino
groups that form _______ when broken
down

A

ammonia

246
Q

what happens during the filtration step of excretion?

A

Hydrostatic pressure drives the filtration of body fluid through a selectively permeable barrier

247
Q

filtration is non-selective, true or false?

A

true, aside from size

248
Q

during filtration, water and small solutes such as salts, sugars, amino acids, and nitrogenous wastes cross the filter to form the ____

A

filtrate

249
Q

what happens during the reabsorption step of excretion?

A

useful solutes are actively transported back to the body fluid

250
Q

what happens during the secretion stop of excretion?

A

Nonessential solutes and wastes can be actively transported to the filtrate

251
Q

what are the 4 steps of excretion?

A

filtration, reabsorption, secretion, excretion

252
Q

what type of transport of solutes/wastes adjusts osmotic movement of water into or out of the filtrate? (during secretion)

A

active transport

253
Q

what happens during the final step of excretion?

A

Processed filtrate is released from the body as urine

254
Q

Mammalian excretory system consists of ……..

A

kidneys, blood vessels, and structures that carry urine

255
Q

_____ are the functional units of mammalian kidneys

A

Nephrons

256
Q

Kidney is divided into renal ____ and renal _____

A

cortex, medulla

257
Q

in which step of excretion is water and solutes filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus, into the Bowman’s capsule?

A

filtration

258
Q

nonessential solutes are selectively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule, distal tubule, loop of Henle, and collecting duct during absorption, true or false?

A

false, they are useful

259
Q

Nonessential solutes and wastes are added to the filtrate in the proximal tubule, distal tubule, and loop of Henle during which step of excretion?

A

secretion

260
Q

From the renal pelvis, urine travels along the ureter to the ______ where it is stored

A

bladder

261
Q

during excretion, urine leaves the body via the ____

A

urethra

262
Q

Animals can ______ physiological parameters or _______ environmental conditions

A

regulate, conform to

263
Q

Animals have _______, _______, and _______ mechanisms for thermoregulation

A

anatomical, physiological, behavioural

264
Q

Which type of feedback systems are more common in vertebrates, positive or negative?

A

negative

265
Q

The tube that leads from the kidney to the bladder is called the ____

A

ureter

266
Q

Why would you expect a person living in a cold climate such as Yellowknife to have a larger percentage
of brown fat than an individual living in a hot climate like Florida?

A

Brown fat is important for non-shivering thermogenesis.

267
Q

Aquatic organisms that are hypoosmotic relative to the surrounding water tend to…..

A

gain salts from the environment

268
Q

The countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels in a goose’s leg causes…..

A

the temperature difference between the contents of the two sets of vessels to be minimized.

269
Q

What is innate immunity? What kind of response?

A

The recognition of traits shared by broad ranges of pathogens using a small set of receptors. Gives a rapid response.

270
Q

What are 3 barrier defenses?

A

skin
mucous
secretions

271
Q

What are 4 internal defenses?

A

phagocytic cells
natural killer cells
antimicrobial proteins
inflammatory response

272
Q

What is adaptive immunity? What kind of response does it give?

A

recognition of traits specific to particular pathogens, using a vast array of receptors. gives a slow response

273
Q

What is a humoural response?

A

antibodies defend against infection in body fluids

274
Q

What is a cell-mediated response?

A

cytotoxic cells defend against infection in body cells

275
Q

What is the purpose of skin, shells and cuticle?

A

The thickened outer surface prevents pathogens from entering

276
Q

What is the point of secretions like saliva, mucous and tears?

A

Washing action prevents microbial colonization and hostile chemical environment: lysozyme, acidic pH

277
Q

Phagocytic cells recognize molecules as a characteristic of what?

A

A set of pathogens

278
Q

What 4 phagocytic cells destroys pathogens by phagocytosis?

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. macrophages
  3. dendritic cells
  4. eosinophils
279
Q

What do natural killer cells recognize?

A

They recognize the surface proteins of virus-infected or cancerous cells

280
Q

What do natural killer cells release?

A

They release chemicals that cause cell death in infected or cancerous cells

281
Q

What does antimicrobial proteins attack?

A

attack pathogens or impede their reproduction

282
Q

What are interferons?

A

They are secreted by virus-infected cells and trigger surrounding cells to produce chemicals that inhibit viral reproduction

283
Q

What are complement proteins?

A

Plasma proteins activated by substances on the surface of many microbes

284
Q

T or F: Signalling molecules released by injured or infected tissue cause inflammation

A

true

285
Q

T or F: Histamine is released by very few cells

A

False, it is released by most cells

286
Q

What does histamine trigger?

A

Vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability in affected area

287
Q

What are cytokines and what do they do?

A

released by neutrophils and macrophages. they increase the blood flow to the affected area

288
Q

T or F: A serious infection can cause a systemic inflammatory response

A

True

289
Q

What two things must happen to cause an inflammatory response from an infection?

A
  1. the release of more WBCs from bone marrow

2. reset body’s thermostat to cause fever

290
Q

What does adaptive immunity involve?

A

pathogen-specific recognition

291
Q

How is specificity achieved?

A

Through interactions between antigens and antigen receptors

292
Q

T or F: Antigens are typically large, foreign molecules found on the surface of pathways or secreted by pathogens.

A

True

293
Q

T or F: Antigen receptors are proteins produced by only B cells

A

False, they are produced by B cells and T cells

294
Q

T or F: B cells and T cells are lymphocytes

A

True

295
Q

T or F: Antigens contain very few epitopes

A

False, they contain multiple

296
Q

What is an epitope?

A

An epitope is a small, accessible portion of an antigen that binds to an antigen receptor

297
Q

Lymphocytes are a type of:

a) RBC
b) T cell only
c) B cell only
d) Antigen binding site
e) WBC

A

e) WBC

298
Q

Where are WBCs produced?

A

The bone marrow

299
Q

Where in the body do T cells migrate for maturation?

A

The thymus

300
Q

Where in the body do B cells mature?

A

The bone marrow

301
Q

T or F: Each B or T cell produces a single type of antigen receptor

A

true

302
Q

Each antigen receptor binds to what?

A

A single epitope of a single antigen

303
Q

T or F: Variable regions of antigen receptors produce the specificity of the antigen-binding site

A

true

304
Q

Where do B cell antigen receptors bind to intact antigens?

A

The blood or lymph

305
Q

T cell antigen receptors can only bind to what?

A

Antigen fragments presented on the surface of host cells

306
Q

When do B and T cells proliferate?

A

when they encounter their specific epitope

307
Q

What are memory cells?

A

Long-lived cells that give rise to effector cells if the same epitope is encountered again

308
Q

What are effector cells?

A

Short-lived cells that take effect immediately against the pathogen or antigen

309
Q

T or F: Antibodies do not mark pathogens for inactivation or destruction

A

False, antibodies DO mark pathogens for inactivation or destruction

310
Q

What is the purpose of neutralization?

A

To prevent entry into cells

311
Q

T or F: toxins can be neutralized by antibodies

A

True

312
Q

Antibody binding increases the the ability of _______ cells to recognize the pathogens

A

phagocytic

313
Q

What are the 2 effector forms of T cells?

A

helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

314
Q

How do helper T cells actually help?

A

help by activating B cells and cytotoxic T cells

315
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

to secrete proteins that lead to cell death in infected cells

316
Q

What do cytokines from helper T cells help activate?

A

B cells and cytotoxic T cells

317
Q

Where do cytotoxic T cells bind? What do they secrete after they bind?

A

They bind to infected cells and secrete perforin and granzymes

318
Q

What is perforin?

A

Perforin causes pores to form in the cell membrane of infected cells

319
Q

What does granzymes do?

A

Initiate apoptosis

320
Q

T or F: Effector cells are responsible for long-term protection provided by a prior infection or vaccination

A

False, memory cells are responsible for long-term protection provided by a prior infection or vaccination

321
Q

T or F: secondary immune response is slower than first

A

False, secondary immune response is rapid

322
Q

Which of the following statements about complement proteins is INCORRECT?
a) Complement proteins participate in both innate and adaptive immunity.
b) Complement proteins circulate in the blood plasma.
c) Activation of complement proteins leads to the formation of membrane attack complexes,
which create pores in the membranes of foreign cells.
d) Activation of complement proteins causes target cells to lyse.
e) Complement proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.

A

e) Complement proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.

323
Q

In vertebrates, phagocytic cells recognize molecules that are characteristic of a group of pathogens.
Why is it important to the vertebrate that the molecules recognized are essential components of the
pathogens?
a) If it is a molecule that vertebrates possess, then the phagocytic cells would attack the host’s
own cells.
b) If the molecules are not essential, then natural selection will rid the pathogen population of
those molecules.
c) If only a small number of pathogens possess the molecule, it will not be an effective target for
the phagocytic cells.
d) If the molecules are not essential, then the phagocytic cells will not be able to recognize them.

A

b) If the molecules are not essential, then natural selection will rid the pathogen population of
those molecules.

324
Q

During an inflammatory response, histamine increases local blood flow. This leads to the arrival of blood
cells that release cytokines that promote local blood flow.
a) This is an example of negative feedback.
b) This is an example of positive feedback.

A

b) This is an example of positive feedback.

325
Q

Memory cells

a) produce histamine
b) are responsible for innate immunity
c) prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
d) provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
e) all of the above

A

d) provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen

326
Q

Which type of T cell lyses cells that have been infected with viruses?

a) inducer T cells
b) helper T cells
c) cytotoxic T cells
d) suppressor T cells
e) none of the above

A

c) cytotoxic T cells

327
Q

Antibodies are secreted by

a) B cells
b) Cytotoxic T cells
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma cells
e) Helper T cells

A

d) Plasma cells

328
Q

What is the hydrostatic skeleton? Give example

A

Fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment (no hardened structures). I.e. worms, jellyfish, sea anemone

329
Q

What is the endoskeleton? Give example

A

Hardened internal skeleton. I.e. sponges, echinoderms, chordates

330
Q

What is the exoskeleton? Give example

A

Hardened external skeleton. I.e. mollusc shells, arthropod cuticles

331
Q

What is the function of an antagonistic muscle?

A

To generate opposite movements across a joint (420 turn tf up). When one contracts, the other must relax.

332
Q

Vertebrate skeletal muscle is an excellent example of hierarchical organization in biological structures. Give this hierarchy beginning with skeletal muscle.

A

Skeletal muscle –(is composed of)–> Muscle fibers (cells) –(are composed of)–> Myofibrils –(are composed of)–> Thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments

333
Q

What is a sarcomere composed of?

A

Multiple thick and thin filaments bounded by Z lines

334
Q

What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

A

Striated muscle

335
Q

How does a muscle know when to contract?

A

Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by motor neurons which results in an increase in free Ca2+ in myofibrils. The Ca2+ interacts with thin filament regulatory proteins to allow myosin binding

336
Q

What is locomotion?

A

Active travel from place to place

337
Q

In order for an animal to move, what must he do?

A

Expend energy to overcome friction and gravity

338
Q

Why does an animal’s environment determine which force (gravity or friction) it must use? Give one example of an environment for each force, also.

A

It depends on the environment because it is needed as the dominant force opposing locomotion.
Water: friction
Land & air: Gravity

339
Q

What type of adaptation does natural selection favour?

A

Adaptations that reduce energy costs of locomotion

340
Q

An example of a ______ animal walks by keeping one leg on the ground at a time.

A

bipedal

341
Q

An example of a _____ animal keeps 3 legs on the ground when walking

A

multi-legged

342
Q

When running or hopping, legs can leave the ground. What keeps the animal upright in these cases?

A

Momentum

343
Q

What can adaptations reduce?

A

Energy expenditure

344
Q

When tendons stretch as the animal lands, they store _____ in _____ fibers. This storage is released to aid the next jump.

A

energy, elastic

345
Q

T or F: aquatic animals are reasonably buoyant and overcoming gravity requires little energy

A

True fam come on now

346
Q

T or F: Water is denser and more viscous medium than air; drag (friction) is a problem

A

True

347
Q

The fusiform body is an adaptation to reduce what?

A

Drag

348
Q

The rate of energy use during locomotion can be determined by measuring what?

A

Measuring O2 consumption or CO2 production

349
Q

The contracting units of a myofibril are called

a) Muscle cells
b) Myofibres
c) Sarcoplasms
d) Flexors
e) Sarcomeres

A

e) Sarcomeres

350
Q

Calcium prevents the attachment of myosin to the binding sites on the actin molecule.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

351
Q

What is attached to M lines in a sarcomere?

a) Myosin heads
b) Actin filaments
c) Myosin tails
d) Cross-bridges
e) Neurons

A

c) Myosin tails

352
Q

What changes shape during contraction of a sarcomere?

a) Actin heads
b) Actin tails
c) M lines
d) Myosin heads
e) Myosin tails

A

d) Myosin heads

353
Q

Which of the following does NOT represent an adaptation to reduce the energy cost of locomotion?

a) The fusiform body shape of fish, seals, and whales/dolphins.
b) Hollow air-filled regions within bird bones.
c) The use of buoyancy to move through the water column.
d) The thick layer of fat below the skin of seals and whale/dolphins.
e) Springy tendons in the legs of jumping animals

A

d) The thick layer of fat below the skin of seals and whale/dolphins.

354
Q

Which of the following require(s) alternating contraction and relaxation of a muscle or muscles?

a) Peristalsis in the digestive system
b) Pumping of a mammalian heart
c) Earthworm locomotion
d) A and B
e) A, B, and C

A

e) A, B, and C

355
Q

If Ca2+ was injected into a muscle cell, which of the following would you expect to occur?
a) The Ca2+ would bind to tropomyosin causing troponin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
b) The Ca2+ would bind to tropomyosin causing troponin to block myosin binding sites, preventing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
c) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
d) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
e) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites, preventing
contraction of the sarcomeres.

A

c) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.