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Surgery Shelf > Anesthetics > Flashcards

Anesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

Pt receiving lidocaine for local anesthesia develops cyanosis, headache, tachycardia, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and fatigue. Diagnosis?

A

Methemoglobinemia

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2
Q

Optimal distance above carina for an endotracheal tube

A

2 cm above carina

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3
Q

Relate lipid solubility, speed of induction, and potency for an inhalational agent with a low MAC

A

Low MAC means that agent is more lipid-soluble and more potent, but slower speed of induction

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4
Q

What inhalational agent has the fastest speed of induction, high MAC, and low potency?

A

Nitrous oxide (NO2)

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5
Q

Contraindications to use of nitrous oxide

A

Middle ear occlusion
Pneumothorax
SBO

Any other instance where there is air-filled body pocket

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6
Q

Which inhalational agent can cause eosinophilia, fever, increased LFTs, and jaundice, and is associated with the highest degree of cardiac depression and arrhythmias?

A

Halothane

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7
Q

Pleasant smelling and ideal for induction in children

A

Sevoflurane

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8
Q

What induction agent should not be used in pts with egg allergy?

A

Propofol

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9
Q

Induction agent contraindicated in head injury

A

Ketamine

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10
Q

Which induction agent can cause adrenocortical suppression with continuous infusion?

A

Etomidate

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11
Q

First muscle to be paralyzed after administration of paralytic

A

Face and neck muscles

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12
Q

Last muscle to be paralyzed after administration of paralytic

A

Diaphragm

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13
Q

Triggering agents for malignant hyperthermia

A

Volatile anesthetics (halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane) and depolarizing paralytic succinylcholine

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14
Q

Mechanism leading to malignant hyperthermia

A

Mutation of ryanodine receptors on SR resulting in drastic increase in intracellular calcium levels inducing an uncontrolled increase in skeletal muscle oxidative metabolism

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15
Q

First sign seen with malignant hyperthermia

A

Increase in end-tidal CO2

[other signs: acidosis, fever, hyperkalemia, rigidity, tachycardia]

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16
Q

Use of succinylcholine should be avoided in which pts?

A

Extensive burns, crush injuries/extensive trauma, eye trauma or glaucoma, neuro disorders/injury, spinal cord injury, acute renal failure with increased potassium

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17
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine without epinephrine

A

5 mg/kg

(Remember 1% of drug = 10 mg/mL)

[max dose of bupivacaine is 3 mg/kg]

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18
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine with epinephrine

A

7 mg/kg

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19
Q

Earliest symptoms of lidocaine toxicity

A

Perioral numbness or tingling of the tongue

May progress to lightheadedness or visual disturbance, CV symptoms such as arrhythmias and arrest

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20
Q

In patients on MAOIs, the concurrent use of narcotics can cause _____ _____

A

Hyperpyrexic coma

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21
Q

Histamine release is characteristic of what narcotic?

A

Morphine

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22
Q

Which benzodiazepine is contraindicated in pregnancy because it crosses placenta?

A

Versed (midazolam)

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23
Q

What is the best determinant of esophageal vs. tracheal intubation?

A

End-tidal CO2

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24
Q

Risk factors for post-op MI

A 
Age >70
CHF
DM
Previous MI
Unstable angina
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25
Q

What is the risk in administering a depolarizing anesthetic agent such as succinylcholine in quadriplegics, paraplegics, or after burns and severe trauma?

A

Life-threatening hyperkalemia from release of intracellular potassium

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26
Q

Effects of inhaled anesthetics include ______ cardiac output, respiratory ______, and post-op atelectasis

A

Decreased; depression

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27
Q

Propofol 10 mg/mL dosage for general anesthesia induction

A

ASA-I, II — 2 to 2.5 mg/kg IV; Administer in approx. 40 mg increments every 10 seconds until onset of anesthesia

ASA-III, IV — 1-1.5 mg/kg IV; Administer in approx. 20 mg increments every 10 seconds until onset of anesthesia

Children age 3-16 — 2.5-3.5 mg/kg IV as single dose over 20-30 seconds

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28
Q

Propofol 10 mg/mL dosage for general anesthesia maintenance

A

Intermittent dosing: 20-50 mg IV as needed

Continuous infusion: 9-12 mg/kg/hr IV for 10-15 mins, then decrease to 6-12 mg/kg/hr; infusion rates of 3-6 mg/kg/hr should be achieved to optimize recovery times

29
Q

Average continuous IV infusion rate of propofol for ICU sedation maintenance of mechanically ventilated pts

A

About 1.6 mg/kg/hr

30
Q

MOA of propofol

A

Inhibits NMDA subtype of glutamate receptors

Agonist at GABA-A receptor

31
Q

Propofol is highly _____ and is thus rapidly distributed to all tissues in the body. There is fast equilibration between plasma and brain.

It is metabolized in the ______ where it rapidly undergoes ___________ to inactive metabolites. The steady state concentration is generally proportional to the infusion rate.

A

Lipophilic

Liver; glucuronide conjugation

32
Q

Elimination and terminal half life of propofol

A

Elimination half life: 3-12 hours

Terminal half life: 1-3 days

33
Q

After IV administration of propofol, loss of consciousness usually occurs within 40 seconds. The duration of action of a 2-2.5 mg/kg bolus injection is __________.

Recovery from anesthesia is rapid, about _______ minutes for 2 hours of anesthesia, and is associated with minimal psychomotor impairment. Recovery times may vary depending on degree and duration of sedation

A

3-5 minutes

8-19 minutes

34
Q

Fentanyl dose for general surgery induction

A

50-100 mcg/kg

35
Q

Fentanyl dose for adjuvant management of general anesthesia maintenance and intraoperative pain and stress response during major surgery

A

2-20 mcg/kg

36
Q

MOA of fentanyl

A

Strong agonist at mu and kappa opioid receptors

37
Q

Fentanyl is highly _____, rapidly distributed to brain, heart, lungs, kidneys, and spleen. It is slower to redistribute to skeletal muscle and fat, where it is released more slowly into the blood.

It is metabolized in the ____ via _____and excreted by the ______

A

Lipophilic

Liver; CYP3A4; kidneys

38
Q

Onset and duration of action of fentanyl

A

After IV admin, peak analgesia occurs within minutes and lasts 30-60 mins after single dose

39
Q

Preop dosing of versed

A

1-5 mg IV over 2 minute period, then titrate up as needed

40
Q

Versed dosing for general anesthesia induction and maintenance in adults <55 vs >55

A

Adults <55 = 200-350 mcg/kg IV

Adults >55 = 150-300 mcg/kg IV

[reduce if ASA III or IV, or if premedicated]

41
Q

Versed dosing for sedation during rapid sequence intubation

A

0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg IV, allow 1-3 mins for onset prior to administration of paralytic

42
Q

MOA of versed

A

GABA agonist

43
Q

Metabolism and excretion of versed

A

Metabolized in liver via CYP3A4

Renally excreted

44
Q

Half life of versed

A

2-6 hrs

45
Q

Onset and duration of action of versed

A

Onset after IV admin is 1.5 to 5 mins

Duration 30-45 mins after single dose, recovery time of 2-6 hrs

46
Q

MSMAIDS check for anesthesia setup

A

M = Machine (run low-circuit pressure test, adjust parameters to patient, check gas levels, bag valve mask ready)

S = Suction (have suction and OG tube ready)

M = Monitors (EKG leads, pulse ox, temp probe, BP cuff)

A = Airway (ET tube with stylette and cuff checked for leak, laryngoscope of choice, oral airway, LMA)

I = IV access

D = Drugs

S = Special (OG/NG tubes, bair hugger, fluid warmer, etc)

47
Q

Elimination half time is the time necessary for the plasma concentration of drug to decrease 50% during elimination phase. How many elimination half times are typically required for almost complete elimination of drug?

A

5

[Note - as with elimination half times, the time necessary for a drug to achieve a steady state plasma concentration with intermittent doses is 5 elimination half times]

48
Q

Maintaining a constant and optimal __________ of inhaled anesthetic is an indirect but useful method for controlling the brain partial pressure. This parameter is used as an index of anesthetic depth, reflection of the rate of induction and recovery from anesthesia, and a measure of equal potency

A

Alveolar partial pressure

49
Q

The alveolar partial pressure of inhaled anesthetic is determined by input/delivery into alveoli minus the uptake/loss of drug from alveoli into pulmonary arterial blood. Input is determined by inspired partial pressure, alveolar ventilation, and characteristics of anesthetic breathing system. What 3 factors determine uptake/loss of drug into arterial blood?

A

Solubility
Cardiac output
Alveolar-to-venous partial pressure difference

50
Q

What is the second gas effect?

A

The ability of the large volume uptake of one gas (first gas) to accelerate the rate of increase of the alveolar partial pressure of a concurrently administered companion gas (second gas)

[example: initial large volume uptake of nitrous oxide accelerates the uptake of companion gases such as volatile anesthetics and oxygen]

51
Q

_______ ______ may occur at the conclusion of nitrous oxide administration if patients are allowed to inhale room air

A

Diffusion hypoxia

[initial high volume outpouring of nitrous oxide from blood into alveoli when inhalation of this gas is discontinued can so dilute the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen that arterial oxygen decreases. This can be prevented by filling the pts lungs with O2 at the conclusion of nitrous oxide administration]

52
Q

Clinically, greater than 1 MAC is necessary because by definition 50% of pts respond to surgical stimuli at 1 MAC. Administration of approx. _____ MAC prevents skeletal muscle movement in response to surgical stimuli in nearly all pts during surgery

A

1.3

53
Q

What are some physiologic and pharmacologic factors that increase the MAC necessary to prevent a response to surgical stimuli?

A

Hyperthermia

Drugs that increase CNS catecholamines (MAOIs, TCAs, cocaine, acute amphetamine ingestion)

Infants

Hypernatremia

Chronic ethanol abuse (?)

54
Q

What are some physiologic and pharmacologic factors that decrease the MAC necessary to prevent a response to surgical stimuli?

A 
Hypothermia
Preop medications
IV anesthetics
Neonates
Elderly
Pregnancy
Postpartum
Alpha-2 agonists
Acute ethanol ingestion
Lithium
Hyponatremia
Cardiopulmonary bypass
Systemic BP <40 mmHg
Neuraxial opioids
PaO2 <38 mmHg
55
Q

Beta-1 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Heart

Increased HR, increased contractility, increased conduction velocity

56
Q

Beta-2 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Fat cells —> lipolysis

Blood vessels —> dilation

Bronchioles —> dilation

Uterus —> relaxation

Kidneys —> renin secretion

Liver —> glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis

Pancreas —> insulin secretion

57
Q

Alpha-1 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Blood vessels —> constriction

Pancreas —> inhibition of insulin secretion

Intestine and bladder —> relaxation, constriction of sphincters

58
Q

Alpha-2 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Postganglionic (presynaptic sympathetic nerve ending) —> inhibition of NE release

CNS (postsynaptic) —> increase in K+ conductance

Platelets —> aggregation

59
Q

Dopamine-1 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Blood vessels —> dilation

60
Q

Dopamine-2 receptors are associated with what effector organ and response to stimulation?

A

Postganglionic (presynaptic) sympathetic nerve endings —> inhibition of NE release

61
Q

Clonidine is a centrally acting antihypertensive that stimulates alpha-2 receptors in the depressor area of the vasomotor center, leading to a decreased outflow of SNS impulses to the periphery. The net effect of this decreased SNS activity is a decrease in CO, SVR, and systemic BP. How does this affect the MAC?

A

MAC is decreased

62
Q

Effects of propofol on systemic BP, HR, SVR, cerebral blood flow, and intracranial pressure

A

BP decreased

HR unchanged to decreased

SVR decreased

Cerebral blood flow decreased

Intracranial pressure decreased

63
Q

Effects of midazolam on systemic BP, HR, SVR, cerebral blood flow, and intracranial pressure

A

BP unchanged to decreased

HR unchanged

SVR unchanged to decreased

Cerebral blood flow decreased to unchanged

Intracranial pressure unchanged to decreased

64
Q

Steps of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI) in 70 kg adult

A

Preparation

Preoxygenation

Pretreatment (Fentanyl 200 mcg IV)

Paralysis with induction (Propofol 105-210 mg IV, Midazolam 14 mg IV, Succinylcholine 100 mg IV or Rocuronium 70 mg IV)

Passive oxygenation

Protection and positioning (cricoid pressure, sniff position)

Placement with proof (intubate and assess end tidal CO2)

Postintubation management (IV sedation, ventilator settings)

65
Q

Succinylcholine produces significant myoclonal fasciculations on its own, prompting a rise in ICP and potential for increased O2 demand. How can this be avoided?

A

Administer defasciculating agent at 10% of paralyzing dose 3-5 mins prior to giving Succinylcholine

Common agents include rocuronium, vecuronium, and pancuronium

66
Q

General guidelines for ET tube depth in adult women vs. adult men

A

Adult women = 21 cm

Adult men = 23 cm

[measured from corner of mouth]

67
Q

Why is it common practice to administer an opioid 1-3 minutes prior to administration of induction drug for general anesthesia?

A

The opioid is intended to blunt the subsequent pressor and heart rate responses to direct laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation, and also to initiate preemptive analgesia

68
Q

Stages of anesthetic depth

A

Stage I: Analgesia — pt is conscious and rational, with decreased perception of pain

Stage II: Delirium — pt is unconscious, body responds reflexively, irregular breathing pattern with breathholding

Stage III: Surgical anesthesia — increasing degrees of muscle relaxation, unable to protect airway

Stage IV: Medullary depression — there is depression of cardiovascular and respiratory centers

Surgery Shelf (2 decks)

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