Anesthesiology Flashcards
Rohypnol is a: Flunitrazepam Nitrazepam Flumazenil Propofol
Flunitrazepam
The oculocardiac reflex (Aschner reflex) may be induced in what procedure: Ocular surgery Open heart surgery Open chest surgery During manipulation of cardiac arteries
Ocular surgery
Which of the following drugs acts as the fastest: Sevofluran Desfluran Izofluran Enfluran Halotan
Desfluran
At what concentration is oxygen toxic: 80% 70% 60% 50% 20-35%
60%
The nasal catheter: Dries the mucous Causes (roztrenn) liver ???? Amount of oxygen depends on patient’s breathing All of above None of above
All of above
How much blood has an adult (in kg/m²):
70 ml/kg
How many chest compressions are performed in BLS with two rescuers:
100/min
Pulsoxymetry: Increases O2 in smokers Decreases O2 in smokers Increases O2 in CO poisoning Decreases O2 in CO poisoning
Increases O2 in smokers
Increases O2 in CO poisoning
Laryngeal mask can be used in: Surgery in patients with a full stomach In pulmonectomy Mouth surgery None All
None
When in reanimation not performed: Wide, stiff (unresponsive) pupil Hypothermia Drowning None All
None
What drugs can be used in ZOP: Lidocaine, bupiwacaine Morfine, fentanyl Ketonal, pyralgine A and B All
A and B
Amount of CO2 we exhale depends on: Ventilation Perfusion CO2 production A and B All
All
Fentanyl can be administered: iv im sc plaster All of above
All of above
Sudden cardiac arrest is defined according to ERC:
Mechanical heart disturbance due to sudden and potentially reversible causes
Mechanical disturbances of the circulatory system and the heart due to sudden and potentially reversible causes
Mechanical failure of the circulatory system and the heart due to sudden causes which may be not reversible
Mechanical failure of the heart due to sudden and potentially reversible causes
Mechanical disturbances of the circulatory system and the heart due to sudden and potentially reversible causes
Arterial gazometry after 15min CPR: pO2 100mmHG, pCO2 75mmHG, pH 7.01, HCO3 19.3, BE -5.0:
Is an indication to admin 50ml 8.4% sodium bicarbonate
Is an indication to admin 25ml 8.4% sodium bicarbonate
Is an indication for intervention without sodium bicarbonate and to repeat gazometry
Is an indication to admin 25ml 8.4% sodium bicarbonate + additional interventions + repeated gazometry
Is an indication to admin 25ml 8.4% sodium bicarbonate + additional interventions + repeated gazometry
According to the ERC (BLS in adults) CPR is started when (outside hospital): Patient not reactive Patient does not breath normally Absent pulse in radial artery A and B
A and B
According to ERC (BLS in adults) the proper way to start CPR is:
2 initial breaths followed by 30 compressions immediately after SCA diagnosis
5 initial breaths followed by 30 compressions immediately after SCA diagnosis
No initial breath and 30 compressions immediately after SCA diagnosis
2 initial breaths, lasting no longer than 1s, followed by 30 compressions immediately after SCA diagnosis
No initial breath and 30 compressions immediately after SCA diagnosis
Proper use of amiodarone during CPR (according to ERC):
If VF/VT persists after 3 defibrillations, admin a bolus of 300mg amiodaron
If VF/VT persists after 5 defibrillations, admin 300mg amiodaron iv. Over 2 hours, then an additional bolus of 300mg
Admin a bolus of 300mg amiodarone prior to first defibrillation
The dose used for amiodarone depends on times of defibrillations and the energy used, there is no written algorithm
If VF/VT persists after 3 defibrillations, admin a bolus of 300mg amiodaron
Safe position for intubation of a patient that is unconscious, "with a full stomach" is by : a placing head down b placing head up c Place "flat" d placing on its side e placing on its stomach
b placing head up
In shock, drugs should be given by which route: a intra arterial b oral c intramuscular d intravenous e subcutaneous
d intravenous
Complication of subclavian vein cannulation can be: a pneumothorax b toxic reaction c clotting disorders d "cauda equina" syndrome e Anaphylactic reaction
pneumothorax
Not given by peripheral veins:
a NSAIDs / inflammatory (Ketonal, pargyline)
b catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine)
c opioids (morphine, dolantina)
d corticoids (hydrokortison)
e-hypertensive Drugs (ebrantil, nitroglycerin)
catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine)
A characteristic symptom of toxicity of local anesthetics:
a breathing disorder
b arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation in the form of
c impaired consciousness and convulsions
d hypertension
e rash and itching
impaired consciousness and convulsions
The rapid drop in blood pressure during administration of local anesthesia may indicate the occurrence of: a toxic Reaction b anaphylactic reaction c spastic reaction d pain reaction e stress reaction
anaphylactic reaction
Contraindication to regional anesthesia are: a No consent b Liver Disease c Respiratory Diseases d Kidney e Diseases of the pancreas
No consent
Due to the systemic action of lignocaine, it is used in the treatment of: a emphysema b inflammation of bronchi c Liver Failure d Disorders of heart rhythm e Kidney Failure
Disorders of heart rhythm
If the shock causes primary respiratory arrest, the next step
is:
a The administration of oxygen through a nasal cannula
b The administration of oxygen by mask,
c Ventilation of patient with Ambu bag
d Indirect cardiac massage
e Direct cardiac massage
Ventilation of patient with Ambu bag
In the treatment of hypertensive crisis are used: a dopamine b nitroprusside c hydrokortison d lignocaine e noradrenaline
nitroprusside
The cause of rapidly increasing respiratory failure in a patient after injury chest can be: a Emphysema b Bronchitis c Pneumothorax d Tuberculosis e Lung Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
Not used In the treatment of chronic pain: a alfentanil b fentanyl c morphine d Ketonal e ibuprofen
alfentanil
In septic shock, systemic vessel resistance is: a unchanged b unchanged or slightly increased c unchanged or slightly reduced d Significantly reduced e Significantly elevated
Significantly reduced
The increase in the release of endogenous catecholamines in shock causes: a circulatory centralization b The decrease in renal blood flow c The increase in renal blood flow D. correct(a + b) E correct (a + c)
correct(a + b)
Segmental intravenous anesthesia is called: a trimalleolar block b Winni block c Bier block d Oberst block e Moore block
Bier block
adrenaline is added to local anesthesia in order to:
a Raise blood pressure
b Prevention of bradycardia
c Slows absorption into the systemic circulation
d acceleration of action of anesthesia drug
Slows absorption into the systemic circulation
In the prevention of seizures, resulting from the toxic action of regional anesthesia, the following is used: a catechol amines b benzodiazepines c opioids d ketamine e adrenal steroids
benzodiazepines
Contraindication to spinal anesthesia are:
a History of myocardial infarction within the last two years
b Asthma
c Pneumothorax
d a history of tuberculosis
e tumor in the central nervous system
tumor in the central nervous system
Contraindication to infiltration anesthesia is:
a patient Age> 65 years
b Acute myocardial infarction
c Inflammatory changes in the area in which you perform anesthesia
d Treatments in the extremities
e facial region treatments
Inflammatory changes in the area in which you perform anesthesia
Inflammatory changes in the area, which is carried out infiltration, are
cause:
a Increased binding of drug with receptor
b reduced binding of drug with the receptor
c Reduced dissociation and faster decay of drug
D. increased dissociation and the decreased migration to intracellular space
e Increased dissociation and increased migration to receptor
increased dissociation and the decreased migration to intracellular space
regional Anesthetics pass into the cell in the following form“ a sulfuric acid bond B. hydrochloric acid bond C. glucose bond d dissociated e undissociated
undissociated
Spinal subarachnoid space puncture may be a complication of the following anesthesia:
a regional vein block
b epidural block
c sciatic nerve block
d jaw block
e brachial plexus block via axillary access
epidural block
Cocaine, an ester anesthesia agent, is currently not used in
regional anesthesia due to:
a rapid vasodilating action
b causing bronchospasm
c central nervous system stimulatory action
d nephrotoxicity
e hepatotoxicity
central nervous system stimulatory action
Ester local anesthetics are broken down by: a Liver enzymes b plasma cholinesterase c Hofmann reaction d glucuronic acid reaction e do not decompose
plasma cholinesterase
In hemorrhagic shock fluid replacement therapy is controlled by the following measurement:
a intraocular pressure
b partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
c intracranial pressure
d partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
e central venous pressure
central venous pressure
The fastest and shortest-acting relaxant agent is: a rocuronium b pancuronium c pipecuronium d succynylocholine e atracurium
rocuronium
The means used for the reversal of neuromuscular block is: a atropine b prostygmine c scopolamine d polokaina e lignocaine
prostygmine
Indicate true sentence, concerning epidural anesthesia“
a can be carried out on any part of the spine, with the exception of the
cervical
b only local anesthetics can be given tot he epidural space
C. drugs given through the epidural catheter may be used to treat
pain in the postoperative period
d epidural anesthesia is the best way of
patients in hypovolemic shock
e epidural anesthesia cannot be performed in children
drugs given through the epidural catheter may be used to treat
pain in the postoperative period
Actions referred to as “pediatric basic life suport” are made in
cases of cardiac arrest and no breathing in children up to:
a 1 year
b 5 years
c 8 years
d 15 years
E. 18 years
8 years
Respiratory alkalosis can be:
a Caused by excessive intravenous bicarbonate
b Caused poor lung perfusion in patients with atelectasis
C. The cause of the increase in the concentration of ionized calcium in the blood of patients
d reason of cerebral vasospasm and ischemia of the brain
e reason of hyperkalemia
reason of cerebral vasospasm and ischemia of the brain
The cause of acute respiratory failure, peripheral is not: a epiglottitis b laryngitis c Tension pneumothorax d myasthenia gravis e Hemorrhagic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Indicate false statement about malignant hyperthermia (HZ):
a drug of choice in the HZ is dantrolene
b HZ can be induced by the use of inhaled anesthetics
c HZ is a very rare complication of general anesthesia
d perioperative hyperthyroidismcan cause false identification of
HZ
e local anesthesia to the same extent as a general anesthetic
may lead to HZ
local anesthesia to the same extent as a general anesthetic
may lead to HZ
Mark the druk of the longest relaxant action: a succynylocholina b vecuronium c mivacurium d pipecuronium e rocuronium
pipecuronium
inhalation induction is used: a thiopental b hypnomidat c midazolam d sevoflurane e ketalar
sevoflurane
Intravenous anesthetic with analgesic properties is: a thiopental b metoheksital c hypnomidat d propofol e ketamine
ketamine
Midazolam is not used for:
a sedation
b monoanestezji (anesthesia with the use of one measure)
c induction of complex general anesthesia
d premedication
e analgosedation for diagnostic procedures
monoanestezji (anesthesia with the use of one measure)
In the treatment of hypertensive crisis is not used: a nitrendipine b vasopressin c nitroglycerin d sodium nitroprusside e urapidil
vasopressin
The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is: a burn over 50% of the body surface b Myocardial infarction c carbon monoxide poisoning d overdose of calcium channel blockers e long bone injuries
Myocardial infarction
After the introduction of the endotracheal tube into the respiratory tract, in the first instance
should be performed:
a blood pressure measurement
b blood gases
c evaluation for ECG arrhythmias
d Evaluation of ECG for ST-segment abnormalities
e chest auscultation
chest auscultation
For the assessment of proper endotracheal tube position is not useful: a Observation of movement of the chest b auscultation of the chest c percussing the chest d evalutaing capnography curve e pulsoxymetry
percussing the chest
the End of the endotracheal tube should be inserted: a piriform sinus b between the vocal cords c the bifurcation of the trachea d in the right main bronchus e in the left main bronchus
the bifurcation of the trachea
In order to open the airway is used: a facial mask b laryngeal mask c nasal cannula d mustache cannula e Oxygen mask with reservoir
laryngeal mask
Endotracheal tube can be inserted: a in mouth b in the nose c The opening of a tracheotomy d (a + c) e all true
all true
The prerequisite is general anesthesia: a endotracheal intubation b the use of muscle relaxants c breath replacement measures d abolition of consciousness e ensure backward oblivion
abolition of consciousness
Select the false statement about endotracheal intubation:
a is the surest way to ensure a patent airway
b can be made through the nose or through the mouth
c enables positive-pressure ventilation of
d Requires striated muscle relaxation
e can be made using bronchofiberoskopu
Requires striated muscle relaxation
In the case of cardiac arrest, if an automatic defibrillator is available
(AED) rescuer should:
a Turn defibrillator (AED), connect the defibrillator electrodes, adhere to
the voice or visual instructions on the screen;
b Immediately call an ambulance and wait quietly for the
arrival;
c Connect the defibrillator (AED), and as soon as possible press
defibrillation;
d Perform basic life support until the arrival of an ambulance, and
then connect the defibrillator (AED),
e Turn on the defibrillator (AED), connect the defibrillator electrodes and
not shock, until the arrival of an ambulance.
Turn defibrillator (AED), connect the defibrillator electrodes, adhere to the voice or visual instructions on the screen
Indication for precordial thump is:
a cardiac arrest in a patient who is in the hospital;
b patient cardiac arrest outside the hospital;
c Cardiac arrest in the presence of witnesses, or the patient
monitored;
d Cardiac arrest in asystole;
e Cardiac arrest
Cardiac arrest in the presence of witnesses, or the patient
monitored
The advantages of the Combitube tube:
a Simple technique
b can be effective ventilation even with esophageal tube position;
c Always an effective hedge against the possibility of regurgitation and aspiration;
d a and b;
e a and c
a and b
During CPR, you can use the following routes of administration: a Intravenous; b endotracheal; c intramedullary; d a and b; e a, b and c
a, b and c
Spinal anesthesia was performed for the first time by: a Augusta Bier! Spinal anesthesia b William Morton! first used ether c Horace Wells! first coined N2O d William Clarke! ? e Carl Koller! cocaine to the eye
Augusta Bier! Spinal anesthesia
the increse in release of endogenous catecholamines in shock causes: a. circulatory centralization b. the decrease in renal blood flow c. the increase in renal blood flow d. a+b e a+c
a+b
adrenaline is added to the anesthesia in order to:
a. raise the BP
b. prevent cardiac release
c. prevent absorption into the systemic circulation
d. acceleration of the anesthesia
e. its not given at all
prevent absorption into the systemic circulation
in the prevention of seizures resulting in toxic action of anesthesia, are used:
a. cathecholamines
b. benzodiazepines
c. opioids
d. ketamine
e. steroids
benzodiazepines
following the introduction of an endotracheal tube into the airways, first thing that should be done is:
a. BP assessment
b. blood gas and acid-base balance
c. ECG evaluation for arrhythmia
d. evaluation of ST-segment abnormalities
e. chest auscultation
chest auscultation
at the end of the endotracheal tube if inserted properly you should find:
a. piriform sinus
b. between the vocal cords
c. above the bifurcation of trachea
d. the right main bronchus
e. the left main bronchus
above the bifurcation of trachea
the endotracheal tube can be made for:
a. the mouth
b. the nose
c. open tracheotomy
d. a+c
e. all of above
all of above
ASA scale is used for:
a. rating the capacity of organs in a sepic shock
b. evaluation of trauma caused by multiple injuries
c. assessment of the patients stat of consciousness
d. assesses the physical condition of the patient
e. evaluation of the difficulties with intubation
assesses the physical condition of the patient
which premedication isn’t used:
a. benzodiazepines
b. opioids
c. anticholinergic
d. medications that reduce the volume and acidity of gastric contents
e. muscle relaxants
muscle relaxants
an endotracheal tube cuff in a patient with a full stomach should be inflated when:
a. after removal out of the sterile package
b. after entering the trachea
c. after introducing it into the oral cavity
d. after 5 breaths
e. after the connection to a fan
after entering the trachea
if you anticipate difficulties in intubation before induction of anesthesia, you should use:
a. bronchofiberoscope
b. camera with x-ray fluoroscope
c. usg with Doppler
d. pleural drainage set
e. variable volume ventilator
bronchofiberoscope
A complication of the laryngeal mask may be
a. pneumothorax
b. damage to the trachea
c. damage to the main bronchus
d. bleeding from the nasal cavity
e. aspiration of gastric contents
aspiration of gastric contents
a characteristic symptom of toxic effects of anesthesia are:
a. breathing disorder
b. cardiac arrhythmias in the form of ventricular fibrillation
c. distorted consciousness and convulsions
d. hypertension
e. rash and itching
distorted consciousness and convulsions
contraindications to regional anesthesia are:
a. no consent of the patient
b. liver disease
c. respiratory disease
d. kidney disease
e. pancreatic disease
no consent of the patient
whats true about NO
a. it’s a powerful anesthetic and weak analgesic
b. it’s a weak anesthetic and strong analgesic
c. doesn’t affect the CVS
d. it doesn’t cause diffusion hypoxia
e. if used at the same time is increases the MAC of inhaled anesthetics
it’s a weak anesthetic and strong analgesic
For nonbarbiturate IV anesthetic we shouldn’t use:
a. propofol
b. ketamine
c. midazolam
d. thiopental
e. etomidate
thiopental
Patients undergoing reposition of the jaw need during the surgery:
a. Oropharyngeal intubation with a zbrojona tube
b. Tracheostomy
c. Nasal intubation
d. Local anesthesia
Tracheostomy
Patients having major difficulties in opening the mouth due to changes in the temporomandibular joint/ degenerative processes, fractures, metastatic infiltrations, etc./ require for intubation:
a. Tracheostomy prior to surgery
b. Wykonania na oddechu własnym, po zsedowaniu chorego i znieczuleniu przewodu nosowego i gardzieli, intubacji „na ślepo” przez nos
c. Fiberoptic intubation
d. B and C
Tracheostomy prior to surgery
Patients after extensive surgery of the inferior part of the oral cavity and the neck need after the surgery:
a. Leave the intubation tube for several days
b. Extubation after the surgery and give oxygen via mask
c. Extubation when patient regains full consciousness and putting him into recovery position
d. Try to extubate the patient after surgery; in case of respiratory tract obstruction reintubate
Leave the intubation tube for several days
To the group of causes of SCA there are 4 Ts:
a. Mechanical obstruction of respiratory tract is not included
b. Hypovolemia has been changed as a factor of arterial pressure
c. Acidosis has been changed to not have an effect on the perfusion caused by hypovolemia
d. Effect of toxic substances has been added as a factor
Acidosis has been changed to not have an effect on the perfusion caused by hypovolemia
Proper relation between ventilation and chest compressions during CPR is:
a. Patient intubated: 100 chest compressions/min and 10 ventilations/min synchronized
b. Patient not intubated: 30 chest compressions/min and 2 breaths/min synchronized
c. Patient not intubated: 2 breaths and than 15 chest compressions if only one rescuer
d. Patient intubated: 100 chest compressions/min and 12 ventilations/min synchronized
Patient intubated: 100 chest compressions/min and 10 ventilations/min synchronized
The cvp is the hydrostatic pressure generated by the blood in the great veins. It can be used as a surrogate by the right atrial pressure.
A. Both sentences a true
B. the first sentence is true and the second sentence false
C. Both sentences are false
D. The first sentence is also and the second true
Both sentences a true
The PAWD may be used as a surrogate to left atrial pressure, therefore LVEDP
A. Both parts of the sentence are true
B. both parts of the sentence are false
C. The first part of the sentence is true, not the second part
D. The second part of the sentence is true, not the fist part
Both parts of the sentence are true
The correct placement of the S-G catheter is A. Right atrium B. right ventricle C. Pulmonary artery D. Left atrium
Pulmonary artery
In the case of metabolic alkalosis with rise in HCO3- concentration compensation occurs by A. Hypoventilation B. hyperventilation C. No change in ventilation D. Loss of HCO3- to normalize pH
Hypoventilation
Capnography is used as 1. An indicator of adequate ventilation 2. a disconnection indicator 3. Indicator of correct placement of the endotracheal tube. 4. An indicator of CO A. All answers are true B. 4 is false C. 2 and 4 are false D. 1 is true
All answers are true
Mixed venous oxygen saturation is a measure of
A. Adequacy of tissue perfusion
B. adequacy of aerobic metabolism
C. Adequacy of tissue anaerobic metabolism
D. Of tissue metabolic acidosis
Adequacy of tissue perfusion
Contraindications to enteral feedings are1 1. Irretractable vomiting 2. shock 3. Bowel obstruction 4. GI bleeding A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,3,4
1,2,3,4
Direct lung injury that cause ARDS are 1. Pneumonia 2. Aspiration 3. Pulmonary contusion 4. Lung transplantation A. 1,2,3 B.1,2 C.2,4 D. 1,2,3,4
1,2,3,4
Hypoxemia defined as pO2FiO2
A.<300 in ARDS and <200 in ALI
B. <300 in ALI and <200 in ARDS
C. <300 in ARDS and <200 in ALI in the absence of left atrial hypertension
D. <300 in ALI and <200 in ARDS in the absence of left atrial hypertension
<300 in ALI and <200 in ARDS in the absence of left atrial hypertension
Type 2 respiratory failure is defined as A. Hypoxia without hypercapnia B. hypoxia with hypercapnia C. Hypercapnia without hypoxia D. None of the above
hypoxia with hypercapnia
The recommended dose of atropine given IV in adults CPR is A. 1 mg B. 2 mg C. 3 mg D. 30 mg
3 mg
The recommended dose of adrenaline given IV in adults CPR is A. 1 mg B. 0,1mg/10kg C. 10 mg D. 0,5 mg
1 mg
Indications for giving calcium during CPR is 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Hypokalemia 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Overdose of CCBs A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,2,3 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,4
1,4
Tuchy needle is used to perform A. Epidural anesthesia B. spinal anesthesia C. Arterial pressure D. Central vein puncture
Epidural anesthesia
Spinal anesthesia results from the injection of a local anesthetic directly A. Outside dura B. into spinal cord C. To the nerve roots D. Into the CSF
Into the CSF
The spinal needle can only be inserted below the second lumbar and above the first sacral vertebrae
A. This sentence is true
B. this sentence is false
C. First part is true, second part is false
D. First part is false, second part is true
This sentence is true
A patient with systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is according to ASA classification A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4
Gastric fluid pH elevation (1) and volume reduction (2) are some of the aims of preoperative medications A. 1&2 are true B. 1&2 are false C. 1 is false and 2 is true D. 1 is true and 2 is false
1&2 are true
System of CO measurement used in PiCCO or S-G catheter is A. Thermomodulation B. dye dilution C. Both D. None
Thermomodulation
The current chain of survival is composed of the following, EXCEPT:
Early recognition and call for help
Early CPR initiation
Early defibrillation
Early initiation of advanced resuscitation procedures
Early initiation of advanced resuscitation procedures
Steps of action with unconscious victim during basic resuscitation procedures are:
Asses safety of the surroundings, call for help, asses breathing
Asses level of consciousness, call for help, asses breathing
Asses safety of surroundings, asses level of consciousness and breathing, call for help
Asses safety of surroundings, asses level of consciousness, call for help, asses breathing
Asses safety of surroundings, asses level of consciousness, call for help, asses breathing
In adult circulatory-respiratory resuscitation we start from:
30 chest compressions
2 breaths
15 chest compressions
30 chest compressions (1 rescuer) or 15 chest compressions (2 rescuers)
30 chest compressions
For chest compressions we place our hands:
Mid sternal
Lower sternum
Middle of the chest
To the left from mid sternum over the heart
Middle of the chest
Chest compressions should be done as the following, EXCEPT
Depth of 4-5cm
100/minute
Time of relaxation to compression should be 2:1
In adults done with both hands
Time of relaxation to compression should be 2:1
The ratio of compressions to breaths in adult should be:
50: 2
30: 2
15: 2
10: 1
30:2
During CPR asses the state of the patient
Every 1 minute
Every 5 cycles
When patient starts to breathe on their own
Before sticking on the electrodes
When patient starts to breathe on their own
Rescue breaths should be done using all, EXCEPT:
Open victims airway
Pinch the nose closed, and seal the victims lips with your own
Exhale into the victim for 1 second
Observe if during inhalation the chest wall falls
Observe if during inhalation the chest wall falls
If the 1st rescue breaths does not raise the chest wall, do the following, EXCEPT:
Check if the head is tilted back and chin lifted
Check with your hand, and remove any foreign bodies
Remove only the visible foreign bodies
Every time perform no more than 2 ties of ventilation
Check with your hand, and remove any foreign bodies
Continue resuscitation until, EXCEPT: Rescue worker arrives AED prompts you to stop The victim begins to breathe on their own Till you succumb to exhaustion
AED prompts you to stop
Adult CPR begins with resuscitation breaths when: Cardiac arrest caused by trauma Cardiac arrest caused by pregnancy Cardiac arrest caused by poisoning Cardiac arrest caused drowning
Cardiac arrest caused drowning
Secondary position (on one’s side) is determined safe for the patient because all of the below, EXCEPT It’s stable Allows for easier breathing Ensures open airways Protects against aspiration
Allows for easier breathing
In case of a patient with symptoms of airway obstruction, the rescuer should
Encourage the victim to cough
Perform 5 hits to the inter-scapular space on the back
Perform 5 hits to the upper abdomen
Perform 5 hits inter-scapular and then 5 hits to the upper abdomen
Encourage the victim to cough
AED is made up of all the following elements, EXCEPT:
Module analyzing cardiac rhythm
“spoons” used for defibrillation
Memory recording the course of the incident
Voice commands
“spoons” used for defibrillation
Space suitable for the implementation of the public access to defibrillation can be determined based on the probability of at least one case of cardiac arrest within: 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years
2 years
After the AED defibrillation operating in accordance with the guidelines of 2005, should advise: Heart rate assessment Circulatory assessment Respiratory assessment Begin CPR
Begin CPR
If the AED recommends defibrillation in the first place: Press the defibrillation button Check if the victim has a pulse Make sure no one is touching the victim Check if the victim is breathing
Make sure no one is touching the victim
