Anesthesia Terms Flashcards

1
Q

rapid and or severe onset

A

acute

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2
Q

long lasting/ re-current

A

chronic

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3
Q

chest pain; caused by blocked coronary artery

A

angina

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4
Q

What are the three types of anesthesia?

A

general anesthesia, monitored anesthesia care (MAC), and regional anesthesia

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5
Q

patient is completely “out”, or asleep (not arousable)

A

general anesthesia

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6
Q

includes induction and maintenance of anesthesia

A

general anesthesia

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7
Q

surgeon localizes (numbs) the area of incision, patient is sedated but not completely out

A

monitored anesthesia care

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8
Q

epidural, spinal, and peripheral nerve block

A

regional anesthesia

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9
Q

What are the two types of induction options?

A

IV induction and mask induction

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10
Q

iv medications induce anesthesiA

A

IV induction

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11
Q

patient breathes vapor to induce anesthesia; popular in kids b/c they cannot tolerate an IV

A

mask induction

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12
Q

What are the two ways to maintain general anesthesia?

A

inhaling anesthetic vapor through an airway device and total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA)

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13
Q

most common way to maintain general anesthesia?

A

inhaling anesthetic vapor

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14
Q

constant infusion IV meds (mostly propofol) to keep the patient asleep

A

total intravenous anesthesia

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15
Q

what stage of anesthesia is awake?

A

stage I

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16
Q

what stage of anesthesia is lightly anesthetized?

A

stage II

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17
Q

what stage of anesthesia is deeply anesthetized?

A

stage III

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18
Q

what stage of anesthesia is anesthetic overdose?

A

stage IV

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19
Q

absence of breathing

A

apnea

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20
Q

greyish, white skin and a sign of poor oxygen perfusion

A

ashen

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21
Q

abnormal heart rhythm

A

arrhythmia

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22
Q

collapsed alveoli caused by hypoventilation

A

atelectasis

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23
Q

build up of fatty plaques that causes narrowing of the artery

A

atherosclerosis

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24
Q

atherosclerosis in the heart can lead to possible:

A

angina, ischemia, and heart attack

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25
Q

angina in the head is possible ____

A

stroke

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26
Q

listening like with a sthethoscope

A

auscultation

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27
Q

obese

A

bariatric

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28
Q

refers to the amount of blood flowing through the body per minute

A

cardiac output

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29
Q

the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

A

strove volume

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30
Q

what is the equation for cardiac output?

A

strove volume x heart rate

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31
Q

a large IV catheter is inserted into a large central vein

A

central line

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32
Q

sweating

A

diaphoresis

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33
Q

away from the center of the body

A

distal

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34
Q

diuresis

A

urine excretion

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35
Q

no teeth (has dentures)

A

edentulous

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36
Q

percentage of the volume that’s pumped out of the left ventricle with each heart beat

A

ejection fraction

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37
Q

What is the percentage of normal ejection fraction?

A

65-75%

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38
Q

planned, non-emergency can wait if needed

A

elective surgery

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39
Q

moving blood clot

A

embolism

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40
Q

nose bleed

A

epistaxis

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41
Q

reddening of the skin usually in patches as result of injury or irritation

A

erythema

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42
Q

cause of disease or symptoms

A

etiology

43
Q

to be drained of blood

A

exsanguinate

44
Q

fever, >38 degrees celsius

A

febrile

45
Q

what is the fraction of inspired air (FiO2) for room air>

A

21%

46
Q

what is the fraction of inspired air for a patient with an oxygen mask?

A

60-90%

47
Q

infusion of a drug or fluid

A

gtt

48
Q

elevated plasma CO2 concentration

A

hypercarbia/ hypercapnia

49
Q

elevated plasma potassium (K+) concentration

A

hyperkalemia

50
Q

elevated plasma sodium (Na+) concentration

A

hypernatremia

51
Q

elevated body temperature

A

hyperthermia

52
Q

low blood volume

A

hypovolemia

53
Q

poor oxygen delivery or oxygenation

A

hypoxia

54
Q

a condition induced inadvertently by medical treatment or diagnostic procedures

A

latrogenic

55
Q

injecting a drug into muscle

A

intramuscular

56
Q

insufficient oxygen supply to an organ

A

ischemia

57
Q

What causes ischemia?

A

a lack of blood flow, ( hypotension or blocked artery), insufficient ventilation, increased oxygen demand (tachycardia)

58
Q

when the abdomen is insufflated with CO2 and the organs can be visualized with viewing scopes through small incisions

A

laparoscopic surgery

59
Q

Why is Co2 used in laparoscopic surgeries?

A

it is less combustible than air

60
Q

volume of one normal breath

A

tidal volume

61
Q

maximal inspiratory volume

A

inspiratory reserve volume

62
Q

maximal exhaled volume

A

expiratory reserve volume

63
Q

maximal inhalation + maximal expiration

A

vital capacity

64
Q

amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration

A

residual volume

65
Q

Why is a large residual volume beneficial?

A

it prevents the alveoli from collapsing

66
Q

amount of air remaining after a normal exhalation

A

functional residual capacity

67
Q

all of the lung volumes combined

A

total lung capacity

68
Q

refers to volume of breathing that occurs over a one minute period

A

minute ventilation

69
Q

what is the equation for minute ventilation?

A

respiratory rate x tidal volume

70
Q

what is the normal respiratory rate for a patient on a ventilator?

A

8-10 breaths per minute

71
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a spontaneously breathing patient?

A

12-16 breaths per minute

72
Q

What would you see in a patient experiencing pain?

A

faster respiratory rate and higher minute ventilation

73
Q

heart attack

A

myocardial infarction

74
Q

nothing by mouth

A

NPO. nil per os;

75
Q

is used to determine whether or not a patient should have an elective operation

A

NPO nil per os

76
Q

how long should patients not have food or clear liquids prior to 2 hours before surgery?

A

6-8 hours

77
Q

shortness of breath while lying flat

A

orthopnea

78
Q

the outer region (away from the center) of an organ or body part

A

peripheral

79
Q

sudden increase or return of symptoms

A

paroxysmal

80
Q

intestinal motility

A

peristalsis

81
Q

occurs when there is a partial or complete airway obstruction during sleep

A

obstructive sleep apnea

82
Q

how is OSA treated?

A

with a continuous positive airway pressure mask

83
Q

unable to regulate body temperature

A

poikilothermic

84
Q

situated nearer to the center of the body or point of attachment

A

proximal

85
Q

itching

A

pruritus

86
Q

an unhealthy pale looking appearance

A

pallor

87
Q

blood flow (oxygen delivery) to the tissues

A

perfusion

88
Q

PONV

A

Post operative nausea and vomiting

89
Q

head up position in the OR

A

reverse trendelenburg

90
Q

narrowing

A

stenosis

91
Q

temporary lack of blood flow to the brain. “mini stroke”

A

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

92
Q

decreased effectiveness of a drug over time

A

tachyphylaxis

93
Q

swelling

A

turgidity

94
Q

hives

A

urticaria

95
Q

sudden onset of hypotension and/or bradycardia

A

vagal response

96
Q

what are the common causes of the vagal response?

A

stimulation of the vagus nerve, needle sticks, sight of blood

97
Q

how do you treat a patient experiencing a vagal response?

A

dose the patient with anticholinergic drug (atropine or robinul) to increase heart rate

98
Q

normal every day breathing

A

negative pressure ventilation

99
Q

why is it called negative pressure ventilation?

A

when the diaphragm contracts, the intrathoracic pressure becomes negative. causes air to move from an area of higher pressure to enter the lungs “lower pressure”

100
Q

this is when the diaphragm is forced open with positive pressure

A

positive pressure ventilation

101
Q

positive pressure ventilation is referred to as _____

A

mechanical/ control

102
Q

negative pressure ventilation is referred to as ___.

A

spontaneous

103
Q

Name the volatile agents used in the OR.

A

isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane