Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Orientation to Simulation and Clinical Expereince > Anesthesia Terms > Flashcards

Anesthesia Terms Flashcards

1
Q

rapid and or severe onset

A

acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

long lasting/ re-current

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chest pain; caused by blocked coronary artery

A

angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three types of anesthesia?

A

general anesthesia, monitored anesthesia care (MAC), and regional anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

patient is completely “out”, or asleep (not arousable)

A

general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

includes induction and maintenance of anesthesia

A

general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

surgeon localizes (numbs) the area of incision, patient is sedated but not completely out

A

monitored anesthesia care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

epidural, spinal, and peripheral nerve block

A

regional anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two types of induction options?

A

IV induction and mask induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

iv medications induce anesthesiA

A

IV induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

patient breathes vapor to induce anesthesia; popular in kids b/c they cannot tolerate an IV

A

mask induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two ways to maintain general anesthesia?

A

inhaling anesthetic vapor through an airway device and total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common way to maintain general anesthesia?

A

inhaling anesthetic vapor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

constant infusion IV meds (mostly propofol) to keep the patient asleep

A

total intravenous anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what stage of anesthesia is awake?

A

stage I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what stage of anesthesia is lightly anesthetized?

A

stage II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what stage of anesthesia is deeply anesthetized?

A

stage III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what stage of anesthesia is anesthetic overdose?

A

stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

absence of breathing

A

apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

greyish, white skin and a sign of poor oxygen perfusion

A

ashen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

abnormal heart rhythm

A

arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

collapsed alveoli caused by hypoventilation

A

atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

build up of fatty plaques that causes narrowing of the artery

A

atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

atherosclerosis in the heart can lead to possible:

A

angina, ischemia, and heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
angina in the head is possible ____
stroke
26
listening like with a sthethoscope
auscultation
27
obese
bariatric
28
refers to the amount of blood flowing through the body per minute
cardiac output
29
the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
strove volume
30
what is the equation for cardiac output?
strove volume x heart rate
31
a large IV catheter is inserted into a large central vein
central line
32
sweating
diaphoresis
33
away from the center of the body
distal
34
diuresis
urine excretion
35
no teeth (has dentures)
edentulous
36
percentage of the volume that's pumped out of the left ventricle with each heart beat
ejection fraction
37
What is the percentage of normal ejection fraction?
65-75%
38
planned, non-emergency can wait if needed
elective surgery
39
moving blood clot
embolism
40
nose bleed
epistaxis
41
reddening of the skin usually in patches as result of injury or irritation
erythema
42
cause of disease or symptoms
etiology
43
to be drained of blood
exsanguinate
44
fever, >38 degrees celsius
febrile
45
what is the fraction of inspired air (FiO2) for room air>
21%
46
what is the fraction of inspired air for a patient with an oxygen mask?
60-90%
47
infusion of a drug or fluid
gtt
48
elevated plasma CO2 concentration
hypercarbia/ hypercapnia
49
elevated plasma potassium (K+) concentration
hyperkalemia
50
elevated plasma sodium (Na+) concentration
hypernatremia
51
elevated body temperature
hyperthermia
52
low blood volume
hypovolemia
53
poor oxygen delivery or oxygenation
hypoxia
54
a condition induced inadvertently by medical treatment or diagnostic procedures
latrogenic
55
injecting a drug into muscle
intramuscular
56
insufficient oxygen supply to an organ
ischemia
57
What causes ischemia?
a lack of blood flow, ( hypotension or blocked artery), insufficient ventilation, increased oxygen demand (tachycardia)
58
when the abdomen is insufflated with CO2 and the organs can be visualized with viewing scopes through small incisions
laparoscopic surgery
59
Why is Co2 used in laparoscopic surgeries?
it is less combustible than air
60
volume of one normal breath
tidal volume
61
maximal inspiratory volume
inspiratory reserve volume
62
maximal exhaled volume
expiratory reserve volume
63
maximal inhalation + maximal expiration
vital capacity
64
amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration
residual volume
65
Why is a large residual volume beneficial?
it prevents the alveoli from collapsing
66
amount of air remaining after a normal exhalation
functional residual capacity
67
all of the lung volumes combined
total lung capacity
68
refers to volume of breathing that occurs over a one minute period
minute ventilation
69
what is the equation for minute ventilation?
respiratory rate x tidal volume
70
what is the normal respiratory rate for a patient on a ventilator?
8-10 breaths per minute
71
What is the normal respiratory rate for a spontaneously breathing patient?
12-16 breaths per minute
72
What would you see in a patient experiencing pain?
faster respiratory rate and higher minute ventilation
73
heart attack
myocardial infarction
74
nothing by mouth
NPO. nil per os;
75
is used to determine whether or not a patient should have an elective operation
NPO nil per os
76
how long should patients not have food or clear liquids prior to 2 hours before surgery?
6-8 hours
77
shortness of breath while lying flat
orthopnea
78
the outer region (away from the center) of an organ or body part
peripheral
79
sudden increase or return of symptoms
paroxysmal
80
intestinal motility
peristalsis
81
occurs when there is a partial or complete airway obstruction during sleep
obstructive sleep apnea
82
how is OSA treated?
with a continuous positive airway pressure mask
83
unable to regulate body temperature
poikilothermic
84
situated nearer to the center of the body or point of attachment
proximal
85
itching
pruritus
86
an unhealthy pale looking appearance
pallor
87
blood flow (oxygen delivery) to the tissues
perfusion
88
PONV
Post operative nausea and vomiting
89
head up position in the OR
reverse trendelenburg
90
narrowing
stenosis
91
temporary lack of blood flow to the brain. "mini stroke"
transient ischemic attack (TIA)
92
decreased effectiveness of a drug over time
tachyphylaxis
93
swelling
turgidity
94
hives
urticaria
95
sudden onset of hypotension and/or bradycardia
vagal response
96
what are the common causes of the vagal response?
stimulation of the vagus nerve, needle sticks, sight of blood
97
how do you treat a patient experiencing a vagal response?
dose the patient with anticholinergic drug (atropine or robinul) to increase heart rate
98
normal every day breathing
negative pressure ventilation
99
why is it called negative pressure ventilation?
when the diaphragm contracts, the intrathoracic pressure becomes negative. causes air to move from an area of higher pressure to enter the lungs "lower pressure"
100
this is when the diaphragm is forced open with positive pressure
positive pressure ventilation
101
positive pressure ventilation is referred to as _____
mechanical/ control
102
negative pressure ventilation is referred to as ___.
spontaneous
103
Name the volatile agents used in the OR.
isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane

Orientation to Simulation and Clinical Expereince (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions