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BASIC EXAM Part I | Question Bank > ANESTHESIA TECHNIQUES | ACLS > Flashcards

ANESTHESIA TECHNIQUES | ACLS Flashcards

1
Q

The value of PETCO2 that is indicative of a maintained and adequate chest compression:

A. greater than 10mmHg

B. greater than 5 mmHg

C. less than 5 mmHg

D. chest compression ratio of 30:2

A

A. greater than 10mmHg

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2
Q

brain ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is depleted if there is no blood flow for:

A. 1 - 2 minutes

B. 4 - 6 minutes

C. 2 - 4 minutes

A

B. 4 - 6 minutes

Brain adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is depleted after 4 to 6 minutes of no blood flow. It returns to nearly normal within 6 minutes of starting effective CPR.

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3
Q

chest compression adequacy is reflected through which of the following parameter or findings:

A. sCVO2 less than 30%

B. pETCO2 greater than 5mmHg

C. sCVO2 greater than 30%

D. arterial diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10mmHg

A

C. sCVO2 greater than 30%

THE RULE of TENS

less than 10s to check for a pulse

less than 10s to place and secure the airway

target compression adequacy to maintain pETCO greater than 10 mmHg

target sCVO2 greater than 30%

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4
Q

TRUE or FALSE

The severity of the underlying cardiac disease is the major determining factor in the success or failure of resuscitation attempts.

A

TRUE

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5
Q

Which of the following is INACCURATE regarding the cardiac arrest algorithm?

A. The most rapid and highest drug levels occur with administration into the endotracheal tube

B. Aortic diastolic pressure (mmHg) of <40 is indicative of a good perfusion

C. The minimum ETCO2 that corresponds to an effective CPR is >10 mmHg

D. Myocardial blood flow 10mL/min/100 g is indicative of a good perfusion

A

C. The minimum ETCO2 that corresponds to an effective CPR is >10 mmHg

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6
Q

Maximum dose of LIDOCAINE in the ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm?

A. 3.0 mg/kg

B. 2.0 mg/kg

C. 1.5 mg/kg

A

A. 3.0 mg/kg

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7
Q

Flow rate via humeral IO access is:

A. 50 cc/min

B. 100 cc/min

C. 150 cc/min

A

B. 100 cc/min

Flow rate via humeral IO access is about 100 cc/min
under pressure, about six times the rate of tibial IO flow

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8
Q

Which of the following medications CANNOT be given via ET during ACLS?

A. Lidocaine

B. Na bicarbonate

C. Vasopressin

D. Atropine

A

B. Na bicarbonate

If IV or IO access cannot be established, the endotracheal tube is an alternative route for administration of epinephrine, vasopressin, lidocaine, and atropine.

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9
Q

TRUE or FALSE

In general, doses 2 to 2.5 times higher than the intravenous dose are recommended when endotracheal route is used.

A

TRUE

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10
Q

How to administer Epinephrine during CPR?

A

Current AHA recommendations are to give 1 mg of epinephrine IV every 3 to 5 minutes in the adult. The easiest way to manage this is to administer 1 mg of epinephrine approximately every other 2-minute cycle of CPR

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11
Q

Ho to administer Vasopressin during CPR?

What is the dose of bolus Vasopressin during CPR?

A

40 u IV or IO (intraosseous)

Arginine vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) has been used as an alternative to epinephrine in a dose of 40 U administered IV or IO

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12
Q

TRUE or FALSE

The half-life Vasopressin in the intact circulation is longer than epinephrine during CPR.

A

TRUE

The half-life in the intact circulation is 10 to 20
minutes and much longer than epinephrine during CPR.

Compared with epinephrine, the hemodynamic effects of vasopressin are especially impressive during long cardiac arrests.

  • However, Vasopressin is not superior to Epinephrine during ACLS.
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13
Q

This drug is used to aid defibrillation when VF is refractory to electrical countershock therapy during ACLS:

A. Lidocaine

B. Vasopressin

C. Adenosine

D. Na bicarbonate

A

A. Lidocaine

Amiodarone and lidocaine are used during cardiac arrest to aid defibrillation when VF is refractory to electrical countershock therapy or when fibrillation recurs following successful conversion.

Lidocaine, primarily an anti-ectopic agent with few hemodynamic effects, tends to reverse the reduction in VF threshold caused by ischemia or infarction. It depresses automaticity by reducing the slope of phase 4 depolarization and reducing the heterogeneity of ventricular refractoriness.

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14
Q

What is the total dose of Amiodarone when used during ACLS?

A. 2g

B. 1g

C. 3g

A

In cardiac arrest, amiodarone is initially administered as a
300-mg rapid infusion. Supplemental infusions of 150 mg can be repeated as necessary for recurrent or resistant dysrhythmias to a maximum total daily dose of 2 g.

Total dose: 2g

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15
Q

TRUE or FALSE

The most important treatment for asystole and PEA is effective chest compressions, ventilation, and epinephrine to improve coronary perfusion and myocardial oxygenation.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

When employed or used during ACLS, the usual dose of Calcium in the form of calcium gluconate or calcium chloride is:

A. 1 - 1.5 mg/kg

B. 0.8 - 1.2 mg/kg

C. 2 - 4 mg/kg

A

C. 2 - 4 mg/kg

When calcium is administered, the chloride salt is recommended because it produces higher and more consistent levels of ionized calcium than other salts. The usual dose is 2 to 4 mg/kg of the 10% solution administered slowly intravenously.

Calcium gluconate contains one-third as much molecular calcium as does calcium chloride and requires metabolism of gluconate in the liver.

17
Q

This is the most common ECG pattern found during witnessed sudden cardiac arrest in adults:

A. Ventricular Fibrillation

B. Ventricular tachycardia

C. PEA

D. Asystole

A

VF is the most common ECG pattern found during witnessed sudden cardiac arrest in adults.

The most important controllable determinant of failure to
resuscitate a patient with VF is the duration of fibrillation.

18
Q

TRUE or FALSE

If defibrillation occurs within 1 minute of fibrillation, CPR is unnecessary for resuscitation.

A

TRUE

The only consistently effective treatment is electrical
defibrillation.

1 minute
Defibrillate
Successful Resuscitation

19
Q

TRUE or FALSE

The AED recognizes VF, charges automatically, and gives a defibrillatory shock.

A

TRUE

20
Q

What PHASE of the UNTREATED Ventricular fibrillation does defibrillation plays a critical role?

A. Electrical phase

B. hemodynamic phase

C. metabolic phase

A

A. Electrical phase

The electrical phase occurs during the first 4 to 5 minutes of the arrest, and early defibrillation is critical for success during this time.

The hemodynamic phase follows for the next 10 to 15 minutes, when perfusing the myocardium and brain with oxygenated blood is critical.

This is followed by what has been called the metabolic phase, when the ischemic injury to the heart is so great that it is not clear what interventions will be successful.

21
Q

The most important intervention during the hemodynamic phase of cardiac arrest is:

A. CPR

B. Defibrillation

C. Securing the airway

A

A. CPR

By about 4 minutes, the ATP levels in the heart have fallen to levels that make restoration of normal contractile function problematic.

Effective chest compressions help replete or delay reductions in ATP by generating an adequate coronary perfusion pressure to restore myocardial blood flow.

Therefore, the most important intervention during the hemodynamic phase of cardiac arrest is producing coronary perfusion with chest compressions before any attempt to defibrillate.

22
Q

What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio when there 2 providers during BLS :

A. 15:2

B. 30:2

C. 15:1

A

B. 30:2

23
Q

What is the recommended chest rate compression for an infant or small child?

A

For both infants and children, compressions should be at least one-third the depth of the chest at a rate of 100 to 120/min. For a single rescuer, a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio should be used and with two or more rescuers a 15:2 ratio is recommended.

24
Q

What is the recommended starting energy when providing defibrillation to a child?

A. 1.5 J/kg

B. 2 J/kg

C. 2.5 J/kg

A

The recommended starting energy is 2 J/kg.

First shock: 2J/kg

Second shock: 4J/kg

25
Q

Which of the following confirmatory signs of a poor neurologic outcome after ROSC has the highest reliability?

A. absence of the N20 wave on somatosensory evoked
potentials at 24 to 72 hours

B. unreactive burst suppression on electroencephalogram

C. diffuse anoxic injury on computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging

D. markedly and persistently elevated neuron-specific endolase

A

A. absence of the N20 wave on somatosensory evoked
potentials at 24 to 72 hours

Confirmatory signs that have nearly a 0% false-positive rate are the absence of a pupillary light reflex at 72 hours and absence of the N20 wave on somatosensory evoked
potentials at 24 to 72 hours.

Less reliable confirmatory signs include unreactive burst suppression or status epilepticus on electroencephalogram, status myoclonus (lasting >30 minutes) during first 72 hours after ROSC, diffuse anoxic injury on computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging of the brain, and markedly and persistently elevated neuron-specific endolase

26
Q

The most common type of cardiac arrest in the OR is:

A. PEA

B. Asystole

C. VF

D. VT

A

A. PEA

27
Q

What is the maximum dose of LIDOCAINE during ACLS?

A. 2mg/kg

B. 1.5mg/kg

C. 3mg/kg

A

C. 3mg/kg

28
Q

If there is no advanced airway established, the compression-ventilation ratio should be:

A. 30:1

B. 30:2

A

B. 30:2

29
Q

ADULT CARDIAC ARREST ALGORITHM

A
30
Q

ADULT TACHYARRYTHMIA WITH A PULSE ALGORITHM

A
31
Q

PEDIA TACHYARRYTHMIA ALGORITHM

A
32
Q

ADULT BRADYCARDIA ALGORITHM

A
33
Q

Biphasic versus Monophasic Defibrillator

A

BASIC EXAM Part I | Question Bank (30 decks)

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