Anesthesia Equipment and Physics Flashcards

1
Q
1. A 58-year old patient has severe shortness of breath and “wheezing”. On examination, it is found that the patient has inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Further evaluation reveals marked extrinsic compression of the midtrachea by a tumor. The type of airflow at the point of obstruction within the trachea is
A. laminar flow
B. orifice flow
C. undulant flow
D. stenotic flow
E. none of the above
A
  1. B Orifice flow occurs when gas flows through a region of severe constriction such as described in this question. Laminar flow occurs when gas flows down parallel-sided tubes at a rate less than critical velocity. When the gas flow exceeds the critical velocity, it becomes turbulent. Hall 1
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2
Q
  1. Concerning the patient with extrinsic compression of the midtrachea by a tumor and severe SOB and wheezing, administration of 70% helium in O2 instead of 100% O2 will decrease the resistance to airflow through the stenotic region within the trachea because
    A. helium decreases the viscosity of the gas mixture
    B. helium decreases the friction coefficient of the gas mixture
    C. helium decreases the density of the gas mixture
    D. helium increases the reynolds number of the gas mixture
    E. none of the above
A
  1. C During orifice flow, the resistance to gas flow is directly proportional to the density of the gas mixture. Substituting helium for nitrogen will decrease the density of the gas mixture, thereby decreasing the resistance to gas flow (as much as threefold) through the region of constriction. Hall 2
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3
Q
3. A 56-year-old patient is brought to the OR for elective replacement of a stenotic aortic valve. An awake 20-gauge arterial catheter is placed into the right radial artery and is then connected to a transducer located at the same level as the patient’s left ventricle. The entire system is zeroed at the transducer. Several seconds later, the patient raises both arms into the air such that his right wrist is 20 cm above his heart. As he is doing this, the blood pressure (BP) on the monitor reads 120/80. What would this patient’s true BP be at this time?
A. 140/100 mm Hg
B. 135/95 mm Hg
C. 120/80 mm Hg
D. 105/65 mm Hg
E. 100/60 mm Hg
A
  1. C Modern electronic blood pressure monitors are designed to interface with electromechanical transducer systems. These systems do not require extensive technical skill on the part of the anesthesia provider for accurate usage. A static zeroing of the system is built into most modern electronic monitors. Thus, after the zeroing procedure is accomplished, the system is ready for operation. The system should be zeroed with the reference point of the transducer at the approximate level of the aortic root, eliminating the effect of the fluid column on the system of arterial BP readings. Hall 3
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4
Q
4. An admixture of room air in the waste gas disposal system during an appendectomy in a paralyzed, mechanically ventilated patient under general volatile anesthesia can best be explained by which mechanism of entry?
A. venous air embolism
B. positive pressure relief valve
C. negative pressure relief valve
D. soda lime canister
E. ventilator bellows
A
  1. C Waste gas disposal systems, also called scavenging systems, are designed to decrease pollution of the OR by anesthetic gases. These scavenging systems can be passive (waste gases flow from the anesthesia machine to a ventilated system on their own) or active (anesthesia machine connected to a vacuum system then to the ventilation system). The amount of air from a venous gas embolism would not be enough to be detected in the disposal system. Positive pressure relief valves open if there is an obstruction between the anesthesia machine and the disposal system, which would then leak the gas into the OR. A leak in the soda lime canisters would also vent to the OR. Since most ventilator bellows are powered by oxygen, a leak in the bellows would not add air to the evacuation system. The negative pressure relief valve is used in active system and will entrap room air if the pressure in the system is less than -0.5 cm H2O. Hall 4
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5
Q
5. The relationship between intra-alveolar pressure, surface tension, and the radius of an alveolus is described by
A. Graham’s law
B. Beer’s law
C. Newton’s law
D. Laplace’s law
E. Bernoulli’s law
A
  1. D The relationship between intra-alveolar pressure, surface tension, and the radius of alveoli is described by Laplace’s law for a sphere, which states that the surface tension of the sphere is directly proportional to the radius of the sphere and pressure within the sphere. With regard to pulmonary alveoli, the mathematical expression of Laplace’s law is as follows: T = ½ PR where T is the surface tension, P is the intra-alveolar pressure, and R is the radius of the alveolus. In pulmonary alveoli, surface tension is produced by a liquid film lining the alveoli. This occurs because the attractive forces between the liquid film and gas. Thus, the surface area of the liquid tends to become as small as possible, which could collapse the alveoli. Hall 5
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6
Q
6. A size “E” compressed-gas cylinder completely filled with N2O contains how many liters?
A. 1160 L
B. 1470 L
C. 1590 L
D. 1640 L
E. 1750 L
A
  1. C The World Health Organization requires that compressed-gas cylinders containing N2O for medical use be painted blue. Size “E” compressed-gas cylinders completely filled with N2O contain approximately 1590 L of gas. Hall 6
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7
Q
  1. Which of the following methods can be used to detect all leaks in the low-pressure circuit of any contemporary anesthesia machine?
    A. oxygen flush test
    B. oxygen gas outlet occlusion est
    C. traditional positive-pressure leak test
    D. negative-pressure leak test
    E. no test can verify the integrity of all contemporary anesthesia machines
A
  1. D Many anesthesia machines have a check valve downstream from the rotameters and vaporizers but upstream from the oxygen flush valve. When the oxygen flush valve button is depressed and the Y piece (which would be connected to the ETT or the anesthesia mask) is occluded, the circuit will be filled and the needle on the airway pressure gauge will indicate positive pressure. The positive pressure reading will not fall, however, even in the presence of a leak in the low-pressure circuit of the anesthesia machine. If a check valve is present on the common gas outlet, the positive-pressure leak test can be dangerous and misleading. In 1993, the US FDA established the FDA Universal Negative Pressure Leak Test. With the machine master switch, the flow control valves and the vaporizers turned off, a suction bulb is attached to the common gas outlet and compressed until it is fully collapsed. If a leak is present the suction bulb will inflate. It was so named because it can be used to check all anesthesia machines regardless of whether they contain a check valve in the fresh gas outlet. Hall 7
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8
Q
8. Which of the following valves prevents transfilling between compressed-gas cylinders?
A. fail-safe valve
B. pop-off valve
C. pressure-sensor shutoff valve
D. adjustable pressure-limiting valve
E. check valve
A
  1. E Check valves permit only unidirectional flow of gases. These valves prevent retrograde flow of gases from the anesthesia machine or the transfer of gas from a compressed-gas cylinder at high pressure into a container at a low pressure. Thus, these unidirectional valves will allow an empty compressed-gas cylinder to be exchanged for a full one during operation of the anesthesia machine with minimal loss of gas. The adjustable pressure-limiting valve is a synonym for a pop-off valve. A fail-safe valve is a synonym for a pressure-sensor shutoff valve. The purpose of a fail-safe valve is to discontinue the flow of N2O if the O2 pressure within the anesthesia falls below 25 psi. Hall 8
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9
Q
9. The expression that for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume is constant is known as
A. Graham’s law
B. Bernoulli’s law
C. Boyle’s law
D. Dalton’s law
E. Charles’ law
A
  1. C Boyle’s law states that for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume is constant. This constant can be used to estimate the volume of gas remaining in a compressed-gas cylinder by measuring the pressure within the cylinder. Hall 9
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10
Q
10. The pressure gauge on a size “E” compressed-gas cylinder containing O2 reads 1600 psi. How long could O2 be delivered from this cylinder at a rate of 2L/min?
A. 90 minutes
B. 140 minutes
C. 250 minutes
D. 320 minutes
E. cannot be determined
A
  1. C US manufacturers require that all compressed-gas cylinder containing O2 for medical use be painted green. A compressed-gas cylinder completely filled with O2 has a pressure of approximately 2000 psi and contains approximately 625 L of gas. According to Boyle’s law the volume of gas remaining in a closed container can be estimated by measuring the pressure within the container. Therefore, when the pressure gauge on a compressed-gas cylinder containing O2 shows a pressure 1600 psi, the cylinder contains 500 L of O2. At a gas flow of 2L/min, O2 could be delivered from the cylinder for approximately 250 minutes. Hall 10
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11
Q
  1. A 25-year-old healthy patient is anesthetized for a femoral hernia repair. Anesthesia is maintained with isoflurane and N2O 50% in O2 and the patient’s lungs are mechanically ventilated. Suddenly, the “low-arterial saturation” warning signal on the pulse oximeter alarms. After the patient is disconnected from the anesthesia machine, he is ventilated with an Ambu bag with 100% O2 without difficult and the arterial saturation quickly improves. During inspection of your anesthesia equipment, you notice that the bobbin in the O2 rotameter is not rotating. This most likely indicates
    A. the flow of N2O through the O2 rotameter
    B. no flow of O2 through the O2 rotameter
    C. a flow of O2 through the O2 rotameter that is markedly lower than indicated
    D. a leak in the O2 rotameter above the bobbin
    E. a leak in the O2 rotameter below the bobbin
A
  1. B All the choices listed in this question can potentially result in inadequate flow of O2 to the patient; however, given the description of the problem, no flow of O2 through the O2 rotameter is the correct choice. In a normally functioning rotameter, gas flows between the rim of the bobbin and the wall of the Thorpe tube, causing the bobbin to rotate. If the bobbin is rotating you can be certain that gas is flowing through the rotameter and that the bobbin is not stuck. Hall 11
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12
Q
12. The O2 pressure-sensor shutoff valve requires what O2 pressure to remain open and allow N2O to flow into the N2O rotameter?
A. 10 psi
B. 25 psi
C. 50 psi
D. 100 psi
E. 600 psi
A
  1. B Fail-safe valve is a synonym for pressure-sensor shutoff valve. The purpose of the fail-safe valve is to prevent delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures from the anesthesia machine to the patient due to failure of the O2 supply. When the O2 pressure within the anesthesia machine decreases below 25 psi, this valve discontinues the flow of N2O or proportionally decreases the flow of all gases. It is important to realize that this valve will not prevent delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures or pure N2O when the O2 rotameter is off, but the O2 pressure within the circuits of the anesthesia machine is maintained by an open O2 compressed-gas cylinder or central supply source. Under these circumstances, an O2 analyzer would be needed to detect delivery of a hypoxic gas mixture. Hall 12
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13
Q
13. A 78-year-old patient is anesthetized for resection of a liver tumor. After induction and tracheal intubation, a 20-gauge arterial line is placed and connected to a transducer that is located 20 cm below the level of the heart. The system is zeroed at the stopcock located at the wrist while the patient’s arm is stretched out on an arm board. How will the arterial line pressure compare with the true BP?
A. it will be 20 mm Hg higher
B. it will be 15 mm Hg higher
C. it will be the same
D. it will be 15 mm Hg lower
E. it will be 20 mm Hg lower
A
  1. C It is important to zero the electromechanical transducer system with the reference point at the approximate level of the heart. This will eliminate the effect of the fluid column of the transducer system on the arterial BP reading of the system. In this question, the system was zeroed at the stopcock, which was located at the patient’s wrist (approximate level of the ventricle). Blood pressure expressed by the arterial line will, therefore, be accurate, provided the distance between the patient’s wrist and the stopcock remains 20 cm. Hall 13
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14
Q
14. The second-stage O2 pressure regulator delivers a constant O2 pressure to the rotameters of 
A. 4 psi
B. 8 psi
C. 16 psi
D. 32 psi
E. 64 psi
A
  1. C O2 and N2O enter the anesthesia machine from a central supply source or compressed-gas cylinders at pressure as high as 2200 psi (oxygen) and 720 psi (N2O). First stage pressure regulators reduce these pressures to approximately 45 psi. Before entering the rotameters, second-stage O2 pressure regulators further reduce the pressure to approximately 14 to 16 psi. Hall 14
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15
Q
15. The highest trace concentration of N2O allowed in the OR atmosphere by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is
A. 1 part per million (ppm)
B. 5 ppm
C. 25 ppm
D. 50 ppm
E. 100 ppm
A
  1. C NIOSH sets guidelines and issues recommendations concerning the control of waste anesthetic gases. NIOSH mandates that the highest trace concentration of N2O contamination of the OR atmosphere should be less than 25 ppm. In dental facilities where N2O is used without volatile anesthetics, NIOSH permits up to 50 ppm. Hall 15
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16
Q
16. A sevoflurane vaporizer will deliver an accurate concentration of an unknown volatile anesthetic if the latter shares which property with sevoflurane?
A. molecular weight
B. viscosity
C. vapor pressure
D. blood/gas partition coefficient
E. oil/gas partition coefficient
A
  1. C Agent specific vaporizers, such as the Sevotec (sevoflurane) vaporizer, are designed for each volatile anesthetic. However, volatile anesthetics with identical saturated vapor pressures could be used interchangeably with accurate delivery of the volatile anesthetic. Vapor pressures D HI SE. Desflurane (669) > Halothane (243) ~ Isoflurane (240) > Sevoflurane (160) ~ Enflurane (172). Hall 16
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17
Q
17. The portion of the ventilator (Ohmeda 7000, 7810, and 7900) on the anesthesia machine that compresses the bellows is driven by
A. compressed oxygen
B. compressed air
C. electricity alone
D. electricity and compressed oxygen
E. electricity and compressed air
A
  1. A The control mechanism of standard anesthesia ventilators, such as the Ohmeda 7000, uses compressed oxygen (100%) to compress the ventilator bellows and electrical power for the timing circuits. Hall 17
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18
Q
18. Which of the following rotameter flow indicators is read in the middle of the dial?
A. bobbin
B. “H” float
C. ball float
D. skirted float
E. nonrotating float
A
  1. C Five types of rotameter indicators are commonly used to indicate the flow of gases delivered from the anesthesia machine. As with all anesthesia equipment, proper understanding of their function is necessary for safe and proper use. All rotameter indicators should read at the upper rim except ball floats, which should be read in the middle. Hall 18
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19
Q
19. When the pressure gauge on a size “E” compressed-gas cylinder containing N2O begins to fall from its previous constant pressure of 750 psi, approximately how many liters of gas will remain in the cylinder?
A. 200 L
B. 400 L
C. 600 L
D. 800 L
E. cannot be calculated
A
  1. B The pressure gauge on a size “E” compressed-gas cylinder containing N2O shows 750 psi when it is full and will continue to register 750 psi until approximately three-fourths of the gas has left the cylinder. A full cylinder of N2O contains 1590 L. Therefore, when 400 L of gas remain in the cylinder, the pressure within the cylinder will begin to fall. Hall 19. (why does N2O not follow Boyle’s law? Boyle’s law only applies for constant n and constant T. N2O undergoes association reaction 2N2O N2O4. so n is not constant)
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20
Q
20. A 3-year-old child with severe congenital facial anomalies is anesthetized for extensive facial reconstruction. After inhalation induction with sevoflurane and oral tracheal intubation, a 22-gauge arterial line is placed in the right radial artery. The arterial cannula is then connected to a transducer that is located 10 cm below the patient’s heart. After zeroing the arterial line at the transducer, how will the given pressure compare with the true arterial pressure?
A. it will be 10 mm Hg higher
B. it will be 7.5 mm Hg higher
C. it will be the same
D. it will be 7.5 mm Hg lower
E. it will be 10 mm Hg lower
A
  1. B In this question the reference point is the transducer, which is located 10 cm below the level of the patient’s heart. Thus, there is an approximate 10 cm H2O fluid column from the level of the patient’s heart to the transducer. This will cause the pressure reading from the transducer system to read approximately 7.5 mm Hg higher than a true arterial pressure of the patient. A 20 cm column of H2O will exert a pressure equal to 14.7 mm Hg. Hall 20
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21
Q
21. If the internal diameter of an intravenous catheter were doubled, flow through the catheter would be 
A. decreased by a factor of 2
B. decreased by a factor of 4
C. increased by a factor of 8
D. increased by a factor of 16
E. increased by a factor of 32
A
  1. D Factors that influence the rate of laminar flow of a substance through a tube is described by the Hagen-Poiseuille law of friction. The mathematical Hagen-Poiseuille law of friction is as follows: P = 8LQ/ r4 where is the flow of the substance, r is the radius of the tube, P is the pressure gradient down the tube, L is the length of the tube, and is the viscosity of the substance. Note that the rate of laminar flow is proportional to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. If the diameter of an IV catheter is doubled, flow would increase by a factor of 2 raised to the fourth power (i.e. a factor of 16) Hall 21
22
Q
  1. Of the following statements concerning the safe storage of compressed-gas cylinder, choose the one that is FALSE
    A. should not be handled with oily hands
    B. should not be stored near flammable material
    C. should not be stored in extreme heat or cold
    D. paper or plastic covers should not be removed from the cylinders before storage
    E. all of the above are true
A
  1. D The safe storage and handling of compressed-gas cylinders is of vital importance. Compressed-gas cylinders should not be stored in extremes of heat or cold, and they should be unwrapped when stored or when in use. Flames should not be used to detect the presence of a gas. Oily hands can lead to difficulty in handling of the cylinder, which can result in dropping the cylinder. This can cause damage to or rupture of the cylinder, which can lead to an explosion. Hall 22
23
Q
  1. For any given concentration of volatile anesthetic, the splitting ratio is dependent on which of the following characteristics of that volatile anesthetic?
    A. vapor pressure
    B. barometric pressure
    C. molecular weight
    D. specific heat
    E. minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) at 1 atmosphere
A
  1. A Vaporizers can be categorized into variable-bypass and measured-flow vaporizers. Measured flow vaporizers (nonconcentration calibrated vaporizers) include the copper kettle and Vemitrol vaporizer. Which measured-flow vaporizers, the flow of oxygen is selected on a separate flowmeter to pass into the vaporizing chamber from which the anesthetic vapor emerges at its saturated vapor pressure. By contrast, variable bypass vaporizers, the total gas flow is split between a variable bypass and the vaporizer chamber containing the anesthetic agent. The ratio of these two flows is called the splitting ratio. The splitting ratio depends on the anesthetic agent, temperature, the chosen vapor concentration set to be delivered to the patient, and the saturated vapor pressure of the anesthetic. Hall 23.
24
Q
24. A mechanical ventilator (e.g., Ohmeda 7000) is set to deliver a tidal volume (VT) of 500 mL at a rate of 10 breaths/min and an inspiratory-to-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. The fresh gas flow into the breathing circuit is 6 L/min. In a patient with normal total pulmonary compliance, the actual VT delivered to the patient would be
A. 400 mL
B. 500 mL
C. 600 mL
D. 700 mL
E. 800 mL
A
  1. D The contribution of the fresh gas flow from the anesthesia machine to the patient’s VT should be considered when setting the VT of a mechanical ventilator. Because the ventilator pressure-relief valve is closed during inspiration, both the gas from the ventilator bellows and the fresh gas flow will be delivered to the patient breathing circuit. In this question, the fresh gas flow is 6 L/min or 100 mL/sec (600 mL/60). Each breath lasts 6 sec (60 sec/10 breaths) with inspiration lasting 2 sec (I:E ratio = 1:2). Under these conditions, the VT delivered to the patient by the mechanical ventilator will be augmented by approximately 200 mL. In some ventilators, such as the Ohmeda 7900, VT is controlled for the fresh gas flow rate such that the delivered VT is always the same as the dial setting. Hall 24
25
Q
25. In reference to question 24. if the ventilator rate were decreased from 10 to 6 breaths/min, the approximate VT delivered to the patient would be (fresh gas flow is 6 L/min, I:E ratio is 1:2)
A. 600 mL
B. 700 mL
C. 800 mL
D. 900 mL
E. 1000 mL
A
  1. C Also see explanation to question 24. The ventilator rate is decreased from 10 to 6 breaths/min. Thus, each breath will last 10 seconds (60 sec/6 breaths) with inspiration lasting approximately 3.3 sec (I:E ration = 1:2), i.e., 3.3 seconds times 100 mL/second. Under these conditions, the actual VT delivered to the patient by the mechanical ventilator will be 830 mL (500 mL + 330 mL) Hall 25
26
Q
  1. Vaporizers for which of the following volatile anesthetics could be used interchangeably with accurate delivery of the concentration of anesthetic set on the vaporizer dial?
    A. halothane, sevoflurane, and isoflurane
    B. sevoflurane and isoflurane
    C. halothane and sevoflurane
    D. halothane and isoflurane
    E. sevoflurane and desflurane
A
  1. D The saturated vapor pressures of halothane and isoflurane are similar (approximately 240 mm Hg at room temperature) and therefore could be used interchangeably in agent-specific vaporizers. D HI SE. Hall 26
27
Q
  1. If the anesthesia machine is discovered Monday morning having run with 5 L/min of oxygen all weekend long, the most reasonable course of action to take before administering the next anesthetic could be
    A. turn machine off for 30 minutes before induction
    B. place humidifier in line with the expiratory limb
    C. avoid use of sevoflurane
    D. change the CO2 absorber
    E. administer 100% oxygen for the first hour of the next case
A
  1. D Clinically significant concentrations of carbon monoxide can result from the interaction of desiccated absorbent, both soda lime and Baralyme. The resulting carboxyhemoglobin level can be as high as 30%. Many of the reported occurrences of carbon monoxide poisoning have been observed on Monday mornings. This is thought to be the case because the absorbent granules are the driest after disuse for two days, particularly if the oxygen flow has not been turned off completely. There are several factors that appear to predispose to the production of carbon monoxide: (1) degree of absorbent dryness (completely desiccated granules produce more carbon monoxide than hydrated granules); (2) use of Baralyme versus soda lime (provided that the water content is the same in both); (3) high concentrations of volatile anesthetic (more carbon monoxide is generated at higher volatile concentrations); (4) high temperatures (more carbon monixide is generated at higher temperatures); and (5) type of volatile used: desflurane >= enflurane> isoflurane» halothane = sevoflurane. Hall 27
28
Q
28. According to NIOSH regulations, the highest concentration of volatile anesthetic contamination allowed in the OR atmosphere when administered in conjunction with N2O is 
A. 0.5 ppm
B. 2 ppm
C. 5 ppm
D. 25 ppm
E. 50 ppm
A
  1. A NIOSH mandates that the highest trace concentration of volatile anesthetic contamination of the OR atmosphere when administered in conjunction with N2O is 0.5 ppm. Hall 28
29
Q
29. The device an anesthesia machines that most reliably detects delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures is the
A. fail-safe valve
B. O2 analyzer
C. second-stage O2 pressure regulator
D. proportion-limiting control system
E. diameter-index safety system
A
  1. B The O2 analyzer is the last line of defense against inadvertent delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures. It should be located in the inspiratory (not expiratory) limb of the patient breathing circuit to provide maximum safety. Because the O2 concentration in the fresh-gas supply line may be different from that of the patient breathing circuit, the O2 analyzer should not be located in the fresh-gas supply line. Hall 29
30
Q
30. A ventilator pressure-relief valve stuck in the closed position can result in
A. barotrauma
B. hypoventilation
C. hypoxia
D. hyperventilation
E. low breathing circuit pressure
A
  1. A The ventilator pressure-relief valve (also called the spill valve) is pressure controlled via pilot tubing that communicates with the ventilator bellows chamber. As pressure within the bellows chamber increases during the inspiratory phase of the ventilator cycle, the pressure is transmitted via the pilot tubing to close the pressure-relief valve, thus making the patient breathing circuit “gastight”. This valve should open during the expiratory phase of the ventilator pressure-relief valve were to stick in the closed position, there would be a rapid buildup of pressure within the circle system that would be readily transmitted to the patient. Barotrauma to the patient’s lungs would result in this situation were to continue unrecognized. Hall 30
31
Q
  1. A mixture of 1% isoflurane, 70% N2O, and 30% O2 is administered to a patient for 30 minutes. The expired isoflurane concentration measured is 1%. N2O is shut off and a mixture of 30% O2, 70% N2 with 1% isoflurane is administered. The expired isoflurane concentration measured one minute after the start of this new mixture is 2.3%. The best explanation for this observation is
    A. intermittent back pressure (pumping effect)
    B. diffusion hypoxia
    C. concentration effect
    D. effect of N2O solubility in isoflurane
    E. effect of similar mass-to-charge ratios of N2O and CO2
A
  1. D Vaporizer output can be affected by the composition of the carrier gas used to vaporize the volatile agent in the vaporizing chamber, especially when nitrous oxide is either initiated or discontinued. This observation can be explained by the solubility of nitrous oxide in the volatile agent. When nitrous oxide and oxygen enter the vaporizing chamber, a portion of the nitrous oxide dissolves in the liquid agent. Thus, the vaporizer output transiently decreases. Conversely, when nitrous oxide is withdrawn as part of the carrier gas, the nitrous oxide dissolved in the volatile agent comes out of solution, thereby transiently increases the vaporizer output. Hall 31
32
Q
32. The mass spectrometer waveform below represents which of the following situations? (Capnogram where the inspiratory baseline is above 0.)
A. cardiac oscillations
B. kinked endotracheal tube
C. bronchospasm
D. incompetent inspiratory valve
E. incompetent expiratory valve
A
  1. E The capnogram can provide a variety of information, such as verification of the presence of exhaled CO2 after tracheal intubation, estimation of the difference in PaCO2 and PETCO2, abnormalities of ventilation, and the presence of hypercapnia or hypocapnia. The four phases of the capnogram are inspiratory baseline, expiratory upstroke, expiratory plateau, and inspiratory downstroke. The shape of the capnogram can be used to recognize and diagnose a variety of potentially adverse circumstances. Under normal conditions, the inspiratory baseline should be 0, indicating that there is no rebreathing of CO2 with a normal functioning circle breathing system. If the inspiratory baseline is elevated above 0, there is rebreathing of CO2. If this occurs, the differential diagnosis should include an incompetent expiratory valve, exhausted CO2 absorbent, or gas channeling through the CO2 absorbent. However, the inspiratory baseline may be elevated when the inspiratory valve is incompetent (e.g., there may be a slanted inspiratory downstroke). The expiratory upstroke occurs when the fresh gas from the anatomic dead space is quickly replaced by CO2-rich alveolar gas. Under normal conditions the upstroke should be steep; however, it may become slanted during partial airway obstruction, if a sidestream analyzer is sampling gas too slowly, or if the response time of the capnograph is too slow for the patient’s respiratory rate. Partial obstruction may be the result of an obstruction in the breathing system (e.g., by a kinked endotracheal tube) or in patient’s airway (e.g., the presence of COPD or acute bronchospasm). The expiratory plateau is normally characterized by a slow but shallow progressive increase in CO2 concentration. This occurs because of imperfect matching of ventilation and perfusion in all lung units. Partial obstruction of gas flow either in the breathing system or in the patient’s airways may cause a prolonged increase in the slope of the expiratory plateau, which may continue rising until the next inspiratory downstroke begins. The inspiratory downstroke is caused by the rapid influx of fresh gas, which washes the CO2 away from the CO2 sensing or sampling site. Under normal conditionals the inspiratory downstroke is very steep. Causes of a slanted or blunted inspiratory downstroke include an incompetent inspiratory valve, slow mechanical inspiration, slow gas sampling, and partial CO2 rebreathing. Hall 32
33
Q
  1. Select the FALSE statement
    A. if the Magill forceps is used for a nasotracheal intubation, the right nares is preferable for insertion of the nasotracheal tube.
    B. extension of the neck can convert an endotracheal intubation to an endobronchial intubation
    C. bucking signifies the return of the coughing reflex
    D. postintubation pharyngitis is more likely to occur in females
    E. stenosis becomes symptomatic when the adult tracheal lumen is reduced to less than 5 mm
A
  1. B Complications of tracheal intubation can be divided into those associated with direct laryngoscopy and intubation of the trachea, tracheal tube placement, and extubation of the trachea. The most frequent complication associated with direct laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation is dental trauma. If a tooth is dislodged and not found, radiographs of the chest and abdomen should be taken to determine whether the tooth has passed through the glottic opening into the lungs. Should dental trauma occur, immediate consultation with a dentist is indicated. Other complications of direct laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation include HTN, tachycardia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and aspiration of gastric contents. Laryngospasm is most likely to occur in patients who are lightly anesthetized at the time of extubation. If laryngospasm occurs, positive-pressure mask-bag ventilation with 100% O2 and forward displacement of the mandible may be sufficient treatment. However, if laryngospasm persists, succinylcholine should be administered intravenously or intramuscularly. Pharyngitis is another frequent complication after extubation of the trachea. This complication occurs most commonly in females, presumably because of the thinner mucosal covering over the posterior vocal cords compared with males. This complication usually does not require treatment and spontaneously resolves in 48 to 72 hours. Delayed complications associated with extubation of the trachea include laryngeal ulcerations, tracheitis, tracheal stenosis, vocal cord paralysis, and arytenoid cartilate dislocation. Hall 33
34
Q
34. Gas from the N2O compressed-gas cylinder enters the anesthesia machine through a pressure regulator that reduces the pressure to
A. 60 psi
B. 45 psi
C. 30 psi
D. 15 psi
E. 10 psi
A
  1. B Gas leaving a compressed-gas cylinder is directed through a pressure-reducing valve, which lowers the pressure within the metal tubing of the anesthesia machine to 45 to 55 psi. Hall 34
35
Q
  1. Which of the following factors is LEAST responsible for killing bacteria in anesthesia machines?
    A. metallic ions
    B. high O2 concentration
    C. anesthetic gases (at clinical concentrations)
    D. shifts in humidity
    E. shifts in temperature
A
  1. C There is considerable controversy regarding the role of bacterial contamination of anesthesia machines and equipment in cross infection between patients. The incidence of postop pulmonary infection is not reduced by the use of sterile disposable anesthetic breathing circuits (as compared with the use of reusable circuits that are cleaned with basic hygienic techniques). Furthermore, inclusion of a bacterial filter in the anesthesia breathing circuit has no effect on the incidence of cross-infection. Clinically relevant concentrations of volatile anesthetics have no bactericidal or bacteriostatic effects. Low concentrations of volatile anesthetics, however, may inhibit viral replication. Shifts in humidity and temperature in the anesthesia breathing and scavenging circuits are the most important factors responsible for killing bacteria. In addition, high O2 concentration and metallic ions present in the anesthesia machine and other equipment have a significant lethal effect on bacteria. Acid-base bacilli are the most resistant bacterial form to destruction. Nevertheless, there has been no case documenting transmission of tuberculosis via a contaminated anesthetic machine from one patient to another. When managing patients who can potentially cause cross-infection of other patients (eg. pts with TB, pneumonia, or known viral infections, such as AIDS a disposable anesthetic breathing circuit should be used and nondisposable equipment should be disinfected with glutaraldehyde (Cides). Sodium hypochlorite (bleach), which destroys the HIV, should be used to disinfect nondisposable equipment, including laryngoscope blades, if patients with AIDS require anesthesia. Hall 35
36
Q
36. Which of the following systems prevents attachment of gas-administering equipment to the wrong type of gas line?
A. pin index safety system
B. diameter-index safety system
C. fail-safe system
D. proportion-limiting control system
E. none of the above
A
  1. B The diameter-index safety system prevents incorrect connections of medical gas lines. This system consists of two concentric and specific bores in the body of one connection, which correspond to two concentric and specific shoulders on the nipple of other connections. Hall 36
37
Q
37. A volatile anesthetic has a saturated vapor pressure of 360 mm Hg at room temperature. At what flow would this agent be delivered from a bubble-through vaporizer if the carrier-gas flow through the vaporizing chamber is 100 mL/min?
A. 30 mL/min
B. 60 mL/min
C. 90 mL/min
D. 120 mL/min
E. 150 mL/min
A
  1. C The amount of anesthetic vapor (mL) in effluent gas from a vaporizing chamber can be calculated using the following equation: VO = (CG x SVPanes)/ (Pb-SVPanes) where VO is the vapor output (mL) of effluent gas from the vaporizer, CG is the carrier gas flow (mL/min) into the vaporizing chamber, SVPanes is the saturated vapor pressure (mm Hg) of the anesthetic gas at room temperature, and Pb is the barometric pressure (mm Hg). In this question, fresh gas flow is 100 mL/min. 100 mL/min x 0.9 = 90 mL/min. Hall 36
38
Q
  1. The dial of an isoflurane-specific, variable bypass, temperature-compensated, flowover, out-of-circuit vaporizer (i.e., modern vaporizer) is set on 2% and the mass spectrometer measures 2% isoflurane vapor from the common gas outlet. The flowmeter is set at a rate of 700 mL/min during this measurement. The output measurements are repeated with the flowmeter set at 100 mL/min and 15 L/min (vapor dial still set at 2%). How will these two measurements compare with the first measurement taken?
    A. output will be less than 2% in both cases
    B. output will be greater than 2% in both cases
    C. output will be 2% at 100 mL/min O2 flow and less than 2% at 15 L/min flow
    D. output will be 2% in both cases
    E. output will be less than 2% at 100 mL/min and 2% at 15 L/min
A
  1. A The output of the vaporizer will be lower at flow rates less than 250 mL/min because there is insufficient pressure to advance the molecules of the volatile agent upward. At extremely high carrier gas flow rates (>15 L/min) there is insufficient mixing in the vaporizing chamber. Hall 38
39
Q
39. Which of the following would result in the greatest decrease in the arterial hemoglobin saturation (SpO2) value measured by the dual-wavelength pulse oximeter?
A. IV injection of indigo carmine
B. IV injection of indocyanine green
C. IV injection of methylene blue
D. presence of elevated bilirubin
E. presence of fetal hemoglobin
A
  1. C Pulse oximeters estimate arterial hemoglobin saturation (SaO2) by measuring the amount of light transmitted through a pulsatile vascular tissue bed. Pulse oximeters measure the alternating current (AC) component of light absorbance at each of two wavelengths (660 and 940 nm) and then divide this measurement by the corresponding direct current component. Then the ratio ® of the two absorbance measurements is determined by the following equation: R= (AC660/DC660)/(AC940/DC940). Using an empirical calibration curve that relates arterial hemoglobin saturation to R, the actual arterial hemoglobin saturation is calculated. Based on the physical principles outlined above, the sources of error in SpO2 readings can be easily predicted. Pulse oximeters can function accurately when only two hemoglobin species, oxyhemoglobin and reduced hemoglobin, are present. If any light-absorbing species other than oxyhemoglobin and reduced hemoglobin are present, the pulse oximeter measurements will be inaccurate. Fetal hemoglobin has minimal effect on the accuracy of pulse oximetry, because the extinction coefficients for fetal hemoglobin at the two wavelengths used by pulse oximetry are very similar to the corresponding values for adult hemoglobin. In addition to abnormal hemoglobins, any substance present in the blood that absorbs light at either 660 or 940 nm, such as IV dyes used for diagnostic purposes, will affect the value of R, making accurate measurements of the pulse oximeter impossible. These dyes include methylene blue and indigo carmine. Methylene blue has the greatest effect on SaO2 measurements because the extinction coefficient is so similar to that of oxyhemoglobin. Hall 39
40
Q
  1. A 75 year old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is ventilated with a mixture of 50% oxygen with 50% helium. Isoflurane 2% is added to this mixture. What effect will helium have on the mass spectrometer reading of the isoflurane concentration?
    A. the mass spectrometer will give a slightly increased false value
    B. the mass spectrometer will give a false value equal to double the isoflurane concentration
    C. the mass spectrometer will give the correct value
    D. the mass spectrometer will give a wrong value equal to half the isoflurane concentration
    E. the mass spectrometer will give an erroneous value slightly less than the correct value of isoflurane
A
  1. B The mass spectrometer functions by separating the components of a stream of charged particles into a spectrum based on their mass-to-charge ratio. The amount of each ion at specific mass-to-charge ratios is then determined and expressed as the fractional composition of the original gas mixture. The charged particles are created and manipulated in a high vacuum to avoid interference by outside air and minimize random collisions among the ions and residual gases. An erroneous reading will be displayed by the mass spectrometer when a gas that is not detected by the collector plate system in the gas mixture to be analyzed. Helium, which has a mass ration of 4, is not detected by standard mass spectrometers. Consequently, the standard gases (i.e., halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, oxygen, nitrous oxide, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide) will be summed to 100% as if helium were not present. All readings would be approximately twice their real values in the original gas mixture in the presence of 50% helium. Hall 40
41
Q
  1. Which of the following combinations would result in delivery of a higher than expected concentration of volatile anesthetic to the patient?
    A. halothane vaporizer filled with sevoflurane
    B. halothane vaporizer filled with isoflurane
    C. isoflurane vaporizer filled with halothane
    D. isoflurane vaporizer filled with sevoflurane
    E. sevoflurane vaporizer filled with halothane
A
  1. E Because halothane and isoflurane have similar saturated vapor pressures, the vaporizers for these volatile anesthetics could be used interchangeably with accurate delivery of the anesthetic concentration set by the vaporizer dial. If a sevoflurane vaporizer were filled with a volatile anesthetic that has a greater saturated vapor pressure than sevoflurane (e.g. halothane or isoflurane), a higher-than-expected concentration would be delivered from the vaporizer. If a halothane or isoflurane vaporizer were filled with a volatile anesthetic that had a lower saturated vapor pressure than halothane or isoflurane (e.g., sevoflurane, enflurane, or methoxyflurane), a lower-than-expected concentration would be delivered from the vaporizer. Hall 41.
42
Q
  1. At high altitudes, the flow of a gas through a rotameter will be
    A. greater than expected
    B. less than expected
    C. greater than expected at high flows but less than expected at low flows
    D. less than expected at high flows but greater than expected at low flows
    E. greater than expected at high flows but accurate at low flows
A
  1. E Gas density increases with increasing altitude (i.e., the density of a gas is directly proportional to atmospheric pressure). Atmospheric pressure will influence the function of rotameters because the accurate function of rotameters is influenced by the physical properties of the gas, such as density and viscosity. The magnitude of this influence, however, depends on the rate of gas flow. At low gas flows, the pattern of gas flow is laminar. Atmospheric pressure will have little effect on the accurate function of rotameters at low gas flows because laminar gas flow is influenced by gas viscosity (which is minimally affected by atmospheric pressure) and not gas density. However, at high gas flows, the gas flow pattern is turbulent and is influenced by gas density (see explanation to question 2). At high altitudes (i.e., low atmospheric pressure), the gas flow through the rotameter will be greater than expected at high flows but accurate at low. Hall 42
43
Q
  1. A patient presents for knee arthroscopy and tells his anesthesiologist that he has a VDD pacemaker. Select the true statement regarding this pacemaker.
    A. it senses only the ventricle
    B. it paces only the ventricle
    C. its response to a sensed event is always inhibition
    D. its response to a sensed event is always a triggered pulse
    E. it is not useful in a patient with AV nodal block
A
  1. B Pacemakers have a three to five letter code that describes the pacemaker type and function. Since the purpose of the pacemaker is to send electrical current to the heart, the first letter identifies the chamber(s) paced; A for atrial, V for ventricle and D for dual chamber (A+V). The second letter identifies the chamber where endogenous current is sensed; A, V, D, and O for none sensed. The third letter describes the response to sensing; O for none, I for inhibited, T for triggered and D for dual (I+T). The fourth letter describes programmability or rate modulation; O for none and R for rate modulation (i.e., faster heart rate with exercise). The fifth letter describes multisite pacing (more important in dilated heart chambers); A, V, or D (A+V) or O. A VDD pacemaker is used for patients with AV node dysfunction but intact sinus node activity. Hall 43
44
Q
  1. All of the following would result in less trace gas pollution of the OR atmosphere EXCEPT:
    A. using a high gas flow in a circular system
    B. tight mask seal during mask induction
    C. use of a scavenging system
    D. periodic maintenance of the anesthesia machine
    E. allow patient to breath 100% O2 as long as possible before extubation
A
  1. A Although controversial, it is thought that chronic exposure to low concentrations of volatile anesthetics may constitute a health hazard to OR personnel. Therefore, removal of trace concentrations of volatile anesthetic gases from the OR atmosphere with a scavenging system and steps to reduce and control gas leakage into the environment are required. High-pressure system leakage of volatile anesthetic gases into the OR atmosphere occurs when the gas escapes from compressed-gas cylinders attached to the anesthetic machine (e.g., faulty yokes) or from tubing delivering these gases to the anesthesia machine from a central supply source. The most common cause of low-pressure leakage of anesthetic gases into the OR atmosphere is the escape of gases from sites located between the flowmeters of the anesthesia machine and the patient, such as a poor mask seal. The use of high gas flows in a circle system will not reduce trace gas contamination of the OR atmosphere. In fact, this could contribute to the contamination if there is a leak in the circle system. Hall 44
45
Q
45. The greatest source for contamination of the OR atmosphere is leakage of volatile anesthetics
A. around the anesthesia mask
B. at the vaporizer
C. at the rotameter
D. at the CO2 absorber
E. at the endotracheal tube
A
  1. A Although all the choices in this question can contribute as sources of contamination, leakage around the anesthesia face mask poses the greatest threat. Hall 45
46
Q
46. Uptake of sevoflurane from the lungs during the first minute of general anesthesia is 50 mL. How much sevoflurane would be taken up from the lungs between the 16th and 36th minutes? 
A. 25 mL
B. 50 mL
C. 100 mL
D. 200 mL
E. 500 mL
A
  1. C The amount of volatile anesthetic taken up by the patient in the first minute is equal to that amount taken up between the squares of any two consecutive minutes. Accordingly, 50 mL would be taken up between the 16th (4x4) and 25th (5x5) minute, and another 50 mL would be taken up between the 25th and 36th (6x6) minute. Hall 46
47
Q
47. Which of the following drugs below would have the LEAST impact on somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP) monitoring in a 15-year-old patient undergoing scoliosis surgery?
A. midazolam
B. fentanyl
C. thiopental
D. isoflurane
E. vecuronium
A
  1. E In evaluating SSEPs, one looks at both the amplitude or voltage of the recorded response wave as well as the latency (time measured from the stimulus to the onset or peak of the response wave). A decrease in amplitude (>50%) and/or an increase in latency (>10%) is usually clinically significant. These changes may reflect hypoperfusion, neural ischemia, temperature changes, or drug effects. All of the volatile anesthetics as well as barbiturates cause a decrease in amplitude as well as an increase in latency. Opioids cause small and not clinically significant increase in latency and decrease in amplitude of the SSEPs. Muscle relaxants have no effect on the SSEP. Hall 47
48
Q
  1. Select the FALSE statement regarding iatrogenic bacterial infections from anesthetic equipment.
    A. even low concentrations of O2 are lethal to airborne bacteria
    B. bacteria released from the airway during violent exhalation originate almost exclusively from the anterior oropharynx
    C. of all the bacterial forms, acid-fast bacteria are the most resistant to destruction
    D. shifts in temperature and humidity are probably the most important factors responsible for bacterial killing
    E. bacterial filters in the anesthesia breathing system lower the incidence of postoperative pulmonary infections
A
  1. E Also see explanation to question 35. There is no evidence that the incidence of postoperative pulmonary infection is altered by the use of sterile disposable anesthesia breathing systems (compared with the use of reusable systems that are cleaned with basic hygienic techniques) or by the inclusion of a bacterial filter in the anesthesia breathing system. Hall 48
49
Q
  1. Frost develops on the outside of an N2O compressed-gas cylinder during general anesthesia. This phenomenon indicates that
    A. the saturated vapor pressure of N2O within the cylinder is rapidly increasing
    B. the cylinder is almost empty
    C. there is a rapid transfer of heat to the cylinder
    D. the flow of N2O from the cylinder into the anesthesia machine is rapid
    E. none of the above
A
  1. D Vaporization of a liquid requires the transfer of heat from the objects in contact with the liquid (e.g., the metal cylinder and surrounding atmosphere). For this reason, at high gas flows, atmospheric water will condense as frost on the outside of compressed-gas cylinders. Hall 49
50
Q
50. The LEAST reliable site for central temperature monitoring is the
A. pulmonary artery
B. skin on forehead
C. distal third of the esophagus
D. nasopharynx
E. tympanic membrane
A
  1. B Pulmonary artery, esophageal, axillary, nasopharyngeal, and tympanic membrane temperature measurements correlate with central temperature in patients undergoing noncardiac surgery. Skin temperature does not reflect central temperature and does not warn adequately of malignant hyperthermia or excessive hypothermia. Hall 50