Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OMSITE 2 > Anesthesia and Pain Control > Flashcards

Anesthesia and Pain Control Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the use of naloxone for suspected opioid induced respiratory depression?
(A) The appropriate dose is 0.1- 0.4 mg IV q. 3-5 min
(B) It should be titrated in 1 mg increments IV q. 3-5 min until respiratory depression is
reversed
(C) The maximum recommended dose is 1.6 mg IV
(D) It should never be administered to a patient with a current history of opioid dependence

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On a patient with known asthma, the use of fentanyl for sedation may produce:
(A) direct bronchoconstriction.
(B) reflex bronchoconstriction.
(C) release of vasoactive substances from mast cells.
(D) ventilatory depressant effects.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
A submental intubation can be easily accomplished when a patient has been intubated with a:
(A) nasal RAE tube.
(B) wire-reinforced oral tube.
(C) LMA.
(D) standard oral endotracheal tube.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which benzodiazepine has active metabolites that have clinical impact?
(A) Triazolam (Halcion)
(B) Midazolam (Versed)
(C) Diazepam (Valium)
(D) Oxazepam (Serax)
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Oral midazolam in children:
(A) has a narrow toxic-therapeutic ratio.
(B) has a long onset of action.
(C) has a recommended dose of 0.5 mg/kg.
(D) is not recommended to be mixed in different carrying vehicles (juice, cola, and syrup) to
alleviate unpalatable taste.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which medication given concomitantly would most effectively diminish the likelihood of ketamine emergence phenomena?
(A) Fentanyl
(B) Midazolam
(C) Atropine
(D) Esmolol
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Propofol:
(A) is a sedative-hypnotic anesthetic agent.
(B) increases intracranial pressure.
(C) increases systemic vascular resistance.
(D) is a barbiturate anesthetic agent.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
The use of intramuscular ketamine:
(A) can cause significant pain on injection.
(B) has a smooth but slow onset.
(C) does not provide amnesia.
(D) does have analgesic properties.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
During intravenous sedation with propofol a possible complication is an increased risk of:
(A) tachycardia following sedation.
(B) hypotension during sedation.
(C) prolonged sedation.
(D) neutrophil dysfunction.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
A 36 year-old female (ASA 1) loses consciousness prior to IV deep sedation. She is breathing, has a pulse rate of 84, and blood pressure of 63/34. Which of the following is appropriate treatment?
(A) Atropine 2.0 mg IV
(B) Ephedrine 10 mg IV
(C) Epinephrine 0.1 mg IV q. 3–5 min
(D) Nalaxone 0.4 mg IV
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the use of naloxone for suspected opioid induced respiratory depression?
(A) The appropriate dose is 0.1- 0.4 mg IV q. 3-5 min
(B) It should be titrated in 1 mg increments IV q. 3-5 min until respiratory depression is
reversed
(C) The maximum recommended dose is 1.6 mg IV
(D) It should never be administered to a patient with a current history of opioid dependence

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On a patient with known asthma, the use of fentanyl for sedation may produce:
(A) direct bronchoconstriction.
(B) reflex bronchoconstriction.
(C) release of vasoactive substances from mast cells. (D) ventilatory depressant effects.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of Propofol as an induction agent in a patient with asthma?
(A) Propofol will cause a relative broncho-constricting effect.
(B) The incidence of wheezing is higher with the use of Propofol than in patients receiving
Thiopental.
(C) Propofol is an appropriate agent for induction when subsequent tracheal intubation or
upper airway stimulation is anticipated.
(D) The generic form of Propofol (with metabisulfites) may be safer to use for induction.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the use of local anesthesia in children?
(A) The mandibular foramen is relatively higher and more anterior.
(B) The maximum recommended amount of lidocaine with or without vasoconstrictor is 9
mg/kg.
(C) Opioids can safely be administered because they will not lower the threshold for local
anesthetic toxicity.
(D) Local anesthetic toxicity in children typically manifests with seizures or CNS depression.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Oral midazolam in children:
(A) has a narrow toxic-therapeutic ratio.
(B) has a long onset of action.
(C) has a recommended dose of 0.5 mg/kg.
(D) is not recommended to be mixed in different carrying vehicles (juice, cola, and syrup) to
alleviate unpalatable taste.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which medication given concomitantly would most effectively diminish the likelihood of ketamine emergence phenomena?
(A) Fentanyl
(B) Midazolam
(C) Atropine
(D) Esmolol
A

B

17
Q

Propofol:
(A) is a sedative-hypnotic anesthetic agent.
(B) increases intracranial pressure.
(C) increases systemic vascular resistance.
(D) is a barbiturate anesthetic agent.

A

A

18
Q 
The use of intramuscular ketamine:
(A) can cause significant pain on injection.
(B) has a smooth but slow onset.
(C) does not provide amnesia.
(D) does have analgesic properties.
A

D

19
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pediatric cardio-respiratory system?
(A) With the child’s ribs being more horizontal at rest, this allows less reliance on diaphragmatic breathing.
(B) Placing the anesthetized spontaneously breathing child in the supine position will not compromise tidal volume.
(C) Since a child’s trachea is more compliant, partial collapse may occur in trying to overcome airway obstruction or with crying.
(D) Bradycardia rarely results in hypotension.

A

C

20
Q

In taking the blood pressure on an extremely obese patient, the standard size cuff would result in a blood pressure reading that is:
A. accurate
B. higher than the actual blood pressure
C. lower than the actual blood pressure
D. unreliable, since it is not possible to obtain an accurate blood pressure on an extremely
obese patient.

A

ANSWER: B
RATIONALE:
When considering the correct size of cuff, two pertinent points should be recalled: 1.) The inflatable bladder in the cuff should be able to completely encircle the arm with minimal overlap. 2.) The width of the bladder in the cuff should be approximately 20% greater than the diameter of the extremity used for the blood pressure cuff. Applying a cuff that is too small for an obese arm will produce a falsely elevated blood pressure reading; while applying too large a cuff on a thin arm will cause a falsely decreased blood pressure reading. Additionally, applying the cuff too loosely will produce a falsely elevated reading.
REFERENCE:
Malamed S: Sedation: A Guide To Patient Management. Mosby, 2003 p. 28

21
Q 
Which medication is contraindicated for office-based anesthesia in a patient with partially controlled tonic-clonic seizure activity?
A. Propofol
B. Fentanyl
C. Ketamine
D. Methohexital
A

ANSWER: D
RATIONALE:
Although many thiobarbiturates decrease cerebral metabolism and electrical activity and are used as anticonvulsants, the oxybarbiturate methohexital has increased central nervous system excitatory effects and may precipitate seizures in epileptics. Propofol, fentanyl, and ketamine have no such pro-convulsant effects.
REFERENCE:
Weinberg G: Basic Science Review of Anesthesiology. McGraw-Hill, 1997 pp16-19

22
Q 
At which parasympathetic ganglion do ocular preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers?
A. Superior cervical
B. Pterygopalatine
C. Otic
D. Ciliary
A

ANSWER: D
RATIONALE:
Parasympathetic ganglia are present near the target organ, unlike sympathetic where the ganglia are near the spinal cord. Parasympathetics to the globe arise from cranial nerve III and synapse at the ciliary ganglion, just posterior to the globe. The otic ganglion synapses parasympathetic nervous system fibers from cranial nerve IX and supplies the parotid gland. The pterygopalatine ganglion receives presynaptic PSNS fibers from cranial nerve VII and supplies the secretory glands of the palate and nasal cavity. The superior cervical ganglion is sympathetic.
REFERENCE:
Vander S, Luciano T Human Physiology: The Mechanisms of Body Function. McGraw-Hill 1998 pp. 213-216
Romanes GJ, “Cunningham’s Manual of Practical Anatomy, Volume 3: Head & Neck. Oxford Medical Publications, 1986

OMSITE 2 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions