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SGT > anesthesia > Flashcards

anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what is the ideal flow rate for a patient in an anesthetic chamber?

A

5-10L/min

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2
Q

what lungs would you expect to hear post-op in a healthy patient?

A

light whooshing sound

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3
Q

what will happen if there is an accumulation of fluid and secretions in the small airways post anesthesia?

A

rales (crackling)

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4
Q

t/f - all of the following patients are at risk for atelectasis

a) sternally positioned anesthetized patient
b) orthopneic feline patient with asthma
c) laterally recumbent brachycephalic patient

A

true

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5
Q

your patient is apneic and you must provide ventilation - what is your strategy?

A

provide ventilation at a rate of 1 breath every 10 seconds

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6
Q

a patient’s heart rate has consistently decreased during anesthesia - what drug would address this?

A

anticholinergic (ex. atropine)

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7
Q

there is no sign of regurgitation in your bulldog patient - how do you remove the ET tube?

A

allow patient to maintain the ET tube until they are chewing at it - specific to bulldogs!

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8
Q

when would you remove the ET tube from your feline patient?

A

at the first sign of arousal (i.e. ear twitch)

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9
Q

2% lidocaine is what concentration?

A

2g/100ml (remember- % equals g/100dL)

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10
Q

350 mcg is equal to how many milligrams?

A

0.35mg (divide by 1000 to get mg)

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11
Q

a 10% w/v solution is equal to what concentration?

A

100mg/ml

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12
Q

the maximum dose of 10mg/ml acepromazine in cats is 1mg - what is the maximum dose in ml?

A

0.1ml

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13
Q

what is the legal maximum waste anesthetic gas level of halogenated gases?

A

2ppm

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14
Q

propofol was used to induce your patient - what is an expected side effect?

A

no movement of flutter valves - patient becomes apneic with admin of propofol and will hold its breath - HAVE TO GIVE THEM A FEW BREATHS

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15
Q

what assessment would not be reliable for intubation in an 8 week old puppy?

A

jaw tone

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16
Q

ventromedial eye positioning is found in which of the following anesthetic stages?

A

stage IIIb

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17
Q

doppler blood pressure monitors assess which blood pressure value?

A

systolic

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18
Q

t/f - propofol, ketamine, isoflurane, glycopyrrolate and acepromazine all cause hypotension

A

false - only propofol, ketamine and isoflurane cause hypotension

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19
Q

what is a possible side effect of isoflurane administration?

A

decreased temp

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20
Q

if a patient wakes up very quickly, is the blood:gas coefficient for the inhalant low or high?

A

low

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21
Q

t/f - pigmented tongues can affect pulse oximeter readings

A

true

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22
Q

what does the R-R interval on an ECG represent?

A

seconds between ventricular depolarizations

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23
Q

if your anesthetized patient is apneic what will the capnograph read?

A

0 mmHg

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24
Q

your patient is hyperventilating - what is the capnograph reading?

A

<40 mmHg

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25
Q

which patient is at greatest risk for anesthetic hyperthermia?

a) 3yr old obese bulldog
b) 12wk old jack russell terrier
c) 16yr old bichon frise

A

a) the 3yr old obese bulldog

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26
Q

prolonged anesthetic recovery is most likely to happen at which temperature? 33.3C or 38.5C

A

33.3C

27
Q

you want to administer warm IV fluids to your patient - what temperature should they be?

A

37.5C

28
Q

what is the appropriate ambient temperature for an anesthetized patient?

A

24C

29
Q

what type of measurement is required for successful ventilation of your patient?

A

qualitative

30
Q

you cannot hear any breath sounds during anesthesia - is this normal for the patient?

A

yes - normal finding d/t decreased tidal volume

31
Q

which of the following patients would benefit most from ventilation?
a) hypoventilation
b) hyperventilation
atelectasis

A

they could all benefit from ventilation

32
Q

concerns for hypoxia requiring immediate therapy occurs at what pulse oximeter reading?

A

SpO2 of 85-89%

33
Q

the DVM is incising into the abdomen for a spay surgery - what is the ideal eye position for the patient?

A

ventromedial

34
Q

what respiratory change would you expect if your patient anesthetic depth is too LIGHT?

A

tachypnea

35
Q

what cardiovascular change is consistent with a patient at stage IIIc?

A

hypotension

36
Q

what blood pressure parameter best represents tissue perfusion?

A

mean arterial pressure (MAP)

37
Q

t/f - it is normal for a patient’s tidal volume to decrease by 50% during anesthesia

A

false - it should only decrease by 25%

38
Q

which of the following drugs would affect jaw tone assessment?

a) diazepam
b) glyco
c) ketamine
d) propofol

A

diazepam

39
Q

your patient is at stage IIIb - what should happen when you tap gently on the medial canthus?

A

no movement to the eyelids

40
Q

t/f - the anesthetic protocol should be included in the minimum patient database

A

false - signalment, history and physical exam only

41
Q

is temperament included in the patient signalment?

A

no

42
Q

t/f - vomiting is the passive process of expelling gastric contents

A

false - vomiting is active not passive

43
Q

what risk is associated with regurgitation under anesthesia?

A

aspiration

44
Q

the initial O2 flow rate on a non-rebreathing circuit should be ____ to the maintenance flow rate

A

equal to

45
Q

a dam should be pre-oxygenated for a minimum of how long prior to c-section?

A

5 minutes

46
Q

C-section using hydromorphone, propofol and isoflurane - puppy is in respiratory arrest - what drug do you give?

A

naloxone

47
Q

what is the greatest concern for the c-section patient clipped and prepped in dorsal recumbency?

A

venous return

48
Q

you have a neonate who is breathing poorly immediately after birth - what do you do first?

A

suction nose, mouth and throat

49
Q

the newly born neonate is bradycardic - how do you administer atropine?

A

sublingually

50
Q

a very small kitten is unable to self regulate body temp post-anesthesia - what is the prognosis?

A

good

51
Q

during your pediatric patient’s surgery the O2 tank becomes empty - what is your first step?

A

disconnect ET tube

52
Q

a bulldog with 12 pups requires a c-section - her PCV is 22% - what do you do?

A

monitor for hypoxia and perform c-section

53
Q

the patient is on oxygen post-op for 3-5 minutes but isn’t swallowing yet - pulse ox is 98% - what do you do?

A

disconnect ET tube from oxygen

54
Q

50lb dog - dosing at 5mg/kg with 15% w/v sol’n - what is the concentration of solution in mg/ml?

A

150mg/ml

55
Q 
HAG recipe 
- 4ml 10mg/ml H
- 1ml 10mg/ml A 
- 5ml 0.2mg/ml G
what is the final concentration of A?
A

1mg/ml

56
Q

3kg yorkie - circle system - propofol IV - isoflurane

what is the major flaw with this description?

A

re-breathing circuit - patient is TOO SMALL

57
Q

what is a component of brachycephalic syndrome?

A

narrow trachea

58
Q

why would an anesthetist cut the ET tube for a pediatric patient?

A

decreased dead space

59
Q

the anesthetist calculated emergency atropine dose for the pediatric patient - why?

A

cardiac output is heart rate dependent

60
Q

asthmatic cat - preoxygenated for 10min with nasal catheter - pulseox of 90% - what next?

A

continue to preoxygenate

61
Q

blocked cat - dull, large, painful bladder - HR 120 - RR 60 - tacky, pale MM - what is next?

A

prepare calcium gluconate immediately for administration

62
Q

CN exam abnormal post trauma - hydro ace premed - ketval induction - iso maintenance - error?

A

avoid dissociative anesthetics

63
Q

obese patient - ETco2 elevates - positive palpebral reflex under anesthesia - what do you do?

A

perform PPV

SGT (5 decks)

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