Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what do local anesthetics work on?

A

Na channels

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2
Q

two types of local anesthetics

A

esters and amides (all of the amides have i’s in them)

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3
Q

aromatic ring

A

inc’s lipid solubility

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4
Q

linkage

A

determines type of metabolism

amides: hepatic
esters: plasma esterases

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5
Q

terminal amine

A

influences aqueous solubility

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6
Q

lidocaine with epi

A

controls bleeding

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7
Q

lidocaine

A

most widely used local anesthetic
all have comparable efficacy though
500 mg/10 mg/mL max lidocaine = 50 mL of 1% lidocaine

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8
Q

1% solution of local anesthetic =

A

10 mg/mL

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9
Q

lidoderm

A

lidocaine patch 5% topical
on 12 hrs - off 12 hrs
may be cut to size (unlike most transdermals)
max 3 patches/day

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10
Q

hypersensitivity to local anesthetics

A

true allergies are rafre
more common with ester type
if allergic to one, allergic to all esters - switch to amide (or vice versa)

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11
Q

what local anesthetic is in epidurals?

A

bupivacaine

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12
Q

EMLA

A

used for starting IVs/, biopsies

venous, arterial, finger, heel and lumbar punctures

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13
Q

general anesthetic toxicity emergencies

A

chloroform (long term liver damage and sudden death), methoxyflurane (nephrotoxic)
ether (too flammable)

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14
Q

Halothane

A

hepatotoxic and arrhythmia

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15
Q

Enflurane

A

hepato and renal toxicities

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16
Q

general anesthesia safety

A

as long as patient is breathing satisfactory

17
Q

adv of inhalation anesthesia

A

completely painless, no IV access, rapid

18
Q

rates of PONV for inhalation anesthetics

A

all pretty similar

19
Q

differences between inhaled anesthetics

A

metabolism and effects on heart

20
Q

indications for sedatives

A

facilitate tolerance to procedures
red unnecessary recall
mandatory adjunct to neuromuscular blockade

21
Q

diazepam

A

propylene glycol vehicle

sig accumulation with repetitive dosing

22
Q

3 active metabolites in diazepam (name 1)

A

desmethyldiazepam (T1/2 = 100-200 hrs)

23
Q

lorazepam

A

continuous infusion may cause propylene glycol-induced metabolic acidosis
for anxiety/sedation in adults: preprocedural anxiety (PO) 1-2 mg 1 hr prior

24
Q

Midazolam

A

least lipid soluble
drug interactions - metabolized by CYP3A4 (hepatic)
renally eliminated
metabolized in liver to active metab

25
Q

Midazolam pre-op sedation

A

usually 5 mg

26
Q

Midazolam conscious sedation

A

usual dose: 2.5-5 mg

27
Q

Propfol

A

decreased time to weaning and extubation
rapid assessment of neurologic status
variable 1/2 lives

28
Q

dexmedetomidine

A

pt’s appear awake and alert
rescue doses required in majority of patients
multi-drug regimen
minimal amnestic properties

29
Q

Etomidate

A

rapid onset of unconsciousness (within seconds)
minimal hypotension or disruption of ventilation
depresses cortisol synthesis: use short-term

30
Q

MOA of NMBAs

A

depolarizing (noncompetitive) and non depolarizing (competitive)

31
Q

indications for use of NMBAs

A

intubation
mechanical ventilation synchrony (improves pt compliance with vent)
must have adequate sedation and analgesia at start and during therapy

32
Q

steroid based NMBAs

A

pancuronium, rocuronium and vecuronium

may cause liver/renal failure or prolonged myopathy

33
Q

benzylisoquinolonium compounds for NMBAs

A

atracurium and mivacurium (histamine release - hypotension)

34
Q

NMBA drug interactions

A

steroids, aminoglycosides, CCB, BB and furosemide

35
Q

net result of NMBAs

A

increased bolus and infusion doses to induce and maintain paralysis

36
Q

monitoring therapy

A

train of four (TOF)

37
Q

benzo’s provide the greatest what?

A

amnesia (no analgesia)

38
Q

NMBAs provide what?

A

sedation and analgesia