Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what do local anesthetics work on?

A

Na channels

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2
Q

two types of local anesthetics

A

esters and amides (all of the amides have i’s in them)

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3
Q

aromatic ring

A

inc’s lipid solubility

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4
Q

linkage

A

determines type of metabolism

amides: hepatic
esters: plasma esterases

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5
Q

terminal amine

A

influences aqueous solubility

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6
Q

lidocaine with epi

A

controls bleeding

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7
Q

lidocaine

A

most widely used local anesthetic
all have comparable efficacy though
500 mg/10 mg/mL max lidocaine = 50 mL of 1% lidocaine

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8
Q

1% solution of local anesthetic =

A

10 mg/mL

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9
Q

lidoderm

A

lidocaine patch 5% topical
on 12 hrs - off 12 hrs
may be cut to size (unlike most transdermals)
max 3 patches/day

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10
Q

hypersensitivity to local anesthetics

A

true allergies are rafre
more common with ester type
if allergic to one, allergic to all esters - switch to amide (or vice versa)

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11
Q

what local anesthetic is in epidurals?

A

bupivacaine

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12
Q

EMLA

A

used for starting IVs/, biopsies

venous, arterial, finger, heel and lumbar punctures

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13
Q

general anesthetic toxicity emergencies

A

chloroform (long term liver damage and sudden death), methoxyflurane (nephrotoxic)
ether (too flammable)

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14
Q

Halothane

A

hepatotoxic and arrhythmia

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15
Q

Enflurane

A

hepato and renal toxicities

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16
Q

general anesthesia safety

A

as long as patient is breathing satisfactory

17
Q

adv of inhalation anesthesia

A

completely painless, no IV access, rapid

18
Q

rates of PONV for inhalation anesthetics

A

all pretty similar

19
Q

differences between inhaled anesthetics

A

metabolism and effects on heart

20
Q

indications for sedatives

A

facilitate tolerance to procedures
red unnecessary recall
mandatory adjunct to neuromuscular blockade

21
Q

diazepam

A

propylene glycol vehicle

sig accumulation with repetitive dosing

22
Q

3 active metabolites in diazepam (name 1)

A

desmethyldiazepam (T1/2 = 100-200 hrs)

23
Q

lorazepam

A

continuous infusion may cause propylene glycol-induced metabolic acidosis
for anxiety/sedation in adults: preprocedural anxiety (PO) 1-2 mg 1 hr prior

24
Q

Midazolam

A

least lipid soluble
drug interactions - metabolized by CYP3A4 (hepatic)
renally eliminated
metabolized in liver to active metab

25
Midazolam pre-op sedation
usually 5 mg
26
Midazolam conscious sedation
usual dose: 2.5-5 mg
27
Propfol
decreased time to weaning and extubation rapid assessment of neurologic status variable 1/2 lives
28
dexmedetomidine
pt's appear awake and alert rescue doses required in majority of patients multi-drug regimen minimal amnestic properties
29
Etomidate
rapid onset of unconsciousness (within seconds) minimal hypotension or disruption of ventilation depresses cortisol synthesis: use short-term
30
MOA of NMBAs
depolarizing (noncompetitive) and non depolarizing (competitive)
31
indications for use of NMBAs
intubation mechanical ventilation synchrony (improves pt compliance with vent) must have adequate sedation and analgesia at start and during therapy
32
steroid based NMBAs
pancuronium, rocuronium and vecuronium | may cause liver/renal failure or prolonged myopathy
33
benzylisoquinolonium compounds for NMBAs
atracurium and mivacurium (histamine release - hypotension)
34
NMBA drug interactions
steroids, aminoglycosides, CCB, BB and furosemide
35
net result of NMBAs
increased bolus and infusion doses to induce and maintain paralysis
36
monitoring therapy
train of four (TOF)
37
benzo's provide the greatest what?
amnesia (no analgesia)
38
NMBAs provide what?
sedation and analgesia