Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Atropine and glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Properties that influence the way agents are used

A

Vapor pressure, blood-gas partition coefficient, minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vapor pressure

A

Measurement of the tendency of a liquid to evaporate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood-gas Partition coefficient

A

The measurement of the tendency of an agent to dissolve in blood. Associated with the speed of induction, recovery and change in depth of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MAC (minimum alveolar concentration)

A

The percent concentration of an agent required to prevent a response to surgical stimulation in 50% of patients. Measurement of the potency of an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Halogenated anesthetics

A

Inhalant agents used to induce and maintain general anesthesia, such as Isoflurane and Sevoflurane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vapor pressure of Isoflurane

A

240 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vapor pressure of sevoflurane

A

160 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Desflurane

A

Boiling point is near room temperature, therefore requires a special expensive electronic vaporizer. Inductions and recoveries are even more rapid than with Sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Endotracheal tube’s

A

Used to administer oxygen and inhalant anesthetics.
Maintains an open airway.
Facilitates administration of supplemental oxygen.
Allows manual ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of endotracheal tubes

A

Red rubber, silicon rubber, polyvinylchloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Murphy tubes

A

Side hole called the Murphy eye.

Beveled end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Parts of the endotracheal tube

A

Connector
Cuff
Valve
Pilot balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Laryngoscopes

A

Used to visualize the larynx while placing endotracheal tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Supraglottic airway devices (SAD)

A

Creates a seal around the laryngeal opening without invading the tracheal lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

General systems of the anesthesia machine

A

The carrier gas supply
The anesthetic vaporizer
The breathing circuit
This cabbaging system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Carrier gas supply

A

Delivers carrier gases to the patient at controlled flow rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anesthetic vaporizer

A

Vaporizers a precise concentration of liquid inhalant anesthetic and mixes it with the carrier gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Breathing circuit

A

Delivers the anesthetic and oxygen mixture via and a tracheal tube, mask, or chamber and Conway is expired gases away.
Rebreathing and non-rebreathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Scavenging system

A

Disposes of waste and excess anesthetic gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Carrier gas used during all and aesthetic procedures

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tidal volume

A

The volume of a normal breath (~10-15 mL/kg body weight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oxygen cylinders

A

Color coded as green in the United States, or white internationally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tank pressure gauge

A

Indicates the pressure in a compressed gas cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pressure reducing valve

A

Reduces the pressure of gas exiting the compressed gas cylinder to 40 - 50 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Line pressure gauge

A

Indicates pressure in the line connecting the pressure-reducing valve to the flowmeter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Flow meter

A

Controls the rate at which carrier gas is delivered to the patient and reduces the pressure from 40 to 50 psi to 15 psi

28
Q

Common standard used for oxygen flow rate for SA

A

1 to 2 L/min

29
Q

Oxygen flush valve

A

Delivers pure oxygen at 35 to 75 L/min directly to the breeding circuit, bypassing the flowmeter and the vaporizer.

30
Q

Oxygen flow rates for chamber induction for small animals, foals, calves, small ruminants

A

5 L/min

31
Q

Oxygen flow rate for mask in ductions for small animals, foals, calves, small ruminants

A

1 to 3 L/min for 10 kg or less

3 to 5 L/min for more than 10 kg

32
Q

Precision vaporizers

A

Oh miles per Syse delivery of higher vapor pressure inhalants, such as iso and Sevo. Located out of the breeding circuit; vaporizer out-of-circuit

33
Q

Non-Percision vaporizers

A

Only used with low vapor pressure and aesthetics. Located in the breathing circuit.

34
Q

Vaporizer inlet port

A

The point where oxygen and other carrier gases enter the vaporizer from the flowmeter.

35
Q

Vaporizer outlet port

A

The point where oxygen, inhalant anesthetic, and other carrier gases exit the vaporizer.

36
Q

Vaporizer fresh gas in let

A

The point at which the gases enter the breathing circuit

37
Q

Non-rebreathing system

A

Recommended for patients weighing less than 7 kg.
Flush out expired gases with the use of a relatively high oxygen rate.
Don’t require a CO2 absorbent canister or unidirectional valves.

38
Q

Types of non-rebreathing circuits

A

Bain coaxial circuit
Ayre’s T-piece
Jackson-Reed circuit
Norman Mask elbow

39
Q

Disadvantages of non-rebreathing systems

A

Don’t conserve gases, moisture or body heat.

Manual ventilation and waste gas scavenging are more difficult.

40
Q

The CO2 absorbent canister

A

Prevent the patient from rebreathing toxic levels of CO2

41
Q

Pressure Manometer

A

Indicates pressure in the breeding circuit and in the patient’s lungs

42
Q

Active scavenging system

A

Uses a vacuum pump or fan to remove waste gas

43
Q

Passive scavenging

A

Works by gravitational flow

44
Q

Postinduction apnea

A

Hypoventilation that follows hyperventilation after inductions.

45
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Body temp progressively rises to dangerous levels. Most common in pigs.

46
Q

Esophageal stethescope

A

Amplifies the sound of the heartbeat

47
Q

Doppler ultrasound monitor

A

Detects the flow of blood through small arteries and converts this motion into an audible signal.

48
Q

Doppler ultrasound monitor probe

A

Positioned over the artery, adjusted until an audible signal is detected.

49
Q

Doppler ultrasound probes positioning in small animals

A

Ventral surface of a paw proximal to the metacarpal or metatarsal pad.
Ventral surface of the table base.
Dorsomedial surface of the hock.
Medial surface of the thigh.

50
Q

Doppler ultrasound probe positioning in large animals

A

Ventral tail is most frequently used.

51
Q

Oscillometric BP monitor

A

A device used to measure blood pressure and heart rate.

52
Q

Pulse oximeter

A

Detect changes in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.

53
Q

Apnea monitor

A

Used to warn the anesthetist of apnea

54
Q

Capnograph

A

Also known as an end-tidal CO2 monitor, measures the level of CO2 present in inspired and expired air.

55
Q

Induction of anesthesia

A

Patient is taken from consciousness to unconsciousness

56
Q

Mask induction vaporizer setting

A

3% to 5% for Iso

4% to 6% for Sevo

57
Q

Chamber induction a vaporizer setting

A

3% to 5% for Iso

4% to 6% for Sevo

58
Q

Inhalant anesthetic maintenance

A
  1. 5 % to 2.5% for Iso

2. 5% to 4% for Sevo

59
Q

Sterile lubricant

A

Place in eyes every 90 minutes

60
Q

Alarming signs during recovery

A

Includes excitement, vocalization, hyperventilation and head thrashing.

61
Q

Rinsing out a horse’s mouth with a dose syringe placed between the cheek and the teeth on each side of the mouth to flush out any feed material

A

Prevent aspiration of material during intubation and recovery.

62
Q

Ketamine is drawn up before anesthesia for horses

A

In case of sudden arousal it is administered to the horse to return it to surgical anesthesia

63
Q

During maintenance of Anastasia horses are more likely to develop

A

Hypoxemia, hypoventilation and hypotension

64
Q

Dobutamine

A

The drug most often used to support blood pressure

65
Q

Total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA)

A

Generally characterized by high her blood pressure, better breathing and more active palpable reflexes then seen with inhalant anesthetics in horses.
Used for procedures lasting less than one hour

66
Q

All ruminants should be positioned for surgery with the mouth lower than the pharynx.

A

To allow drainage of saliva and any regurgitation of material from the mouth, preventing build up in the pharynx which could lead to aspiration during recovery.

67
Q

This species has been observed to breathe rapidly and shallowly, somewhat like a panting dog

A

Ruminants