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Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Define

Anaesthesia

A

A state with a lack of sensation

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2
Q

Define

General anaesthesia

A

A state of unconsciousness produced by anaesthetic agents, with an absence of pain sensation

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3
Q

Define

Regional anaesthesia

A

Lack of sensation from interupting sensory nerve conduction to only one region of the body

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4
Q

Define

Sedation

A

A state of reduced irratibility or excitment

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5
Q

Define

Anxiolysis

A

A state of reduced anxiety

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6
Q

Define

Analgesia

A

Insensibility to pain without loss of consciousness

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7
Q

Define

Narcosis

A

A state of stuppor or unconsciousness produced by a narcotic

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8
Q

Define

Hypnosis

A

An artifically induced state of passivity

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9
Q

What are 3 exceptions to the legal requirement of anaesthesia?

A
  1. Emergency first aid
  2. Castration (before 7 days for pigs, bulls and sheep when using rings)
  3. Tail docking (before 7 days for pigs and sheep)
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10
Q

List the 3 components of the anaesthetic triad

A
  1. Analgesia
  2. Narcosis
  3. Muscle relaxation
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11
Q

List the 5 phases of anaesthesia

A
  1. Preoperative period
  2. Pre-anaesthetic medication
  3. Induction
  4. Maintenance
  5. Recovery
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12
Q

List 3 risks associated with anaesthesia in small animals

A
  1. Breed type
  2. Lack of observation/monitoring
  3. Species (cats and rabbits have more problems in recovery, dogs are more likely to have respiratory arrest)
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13
Q

List the 6 features of an ideal anaesthetic

A
  1. Safety
  2. Efficacy
  3. Predictability
  4. Convenience
  5. Cost
  6. Legality
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14
Q

List 3 risks associated with anaesthesia in horses

A
  1. Duration of anaesthetic is more than 2 hours
  2. Age of patient is less than 7 days
  3. Recovery period
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15
Q

Why is it relevant to withhold food from an animal before an anaesthetic procedure

A

Withholding food prevents the risk of vomiting, regurgiation and aspiration, and reduces intra-abdominal pressure

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16
Q

Define this ASA Classification

ASA I

A

Normal, healthy

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17
Q

Define this ASA Classification

ASA II

A

Mild systemic disease/impairment

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18
Q

Define this ASA Classification

ASA III

A

More severe systemic disease which is well managed by treatment

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19
Q

Define this ASA Classification

ASA IV

A

Severe systemic disease which is not well managed

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20
Q

Define this ASA Classification

ASA V

A

Moribund, unlikely to survive 24 hours

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21
Q

List the 5 general aspects that you should evaluate in a pre-anaesthetic clinical exam

A
  1. Breed of the animal
  2. Animal morphology
  3. Age
  4. Organ systems
  5. Labratory & other tests
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22
Q

What is the recommended pre-operative fasting period for a dog and cat

Food & water

A

4-6 hours (food only)

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23
Q

What is the recommended pre-operative fasting period for a horse

Food & water

A

6-12 hours (food only)

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24
Q

What is the recommended pre-operative fasting period for a cow

Food & water

A

18-24 hours for food, 12-18 hours for water

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25
Q

What are the 2 most important systems to examine before anaesthesia

A

Cardiovascular and respiratory systems

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26
Q

What is a particular risk factor to consider when anaesthesing a neonatal/pediatric animal

Just list one example

A

Younger animals have a reduced thermoregulatory capacity, so there is a greater risk of hypothermia

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27
Q

What is a particular risk factor to consider when anaesthesing a geriatric animal

Just list one example

A

Older animals have reduced cardiovascular and respiratory reserves

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28
Q

List 4 things improper patient positioning can affect

In which animal is this most important?

A
  1. Blood flow
  2. Intracranial pressure
  3. Muscle perfusion
  4. Ventilation

Horses

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29
Q

List 4 ways heat is lost during anaesthesia

A
  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Raditation
  4. Evaporation
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30
Q

How can you prevent hypothermia under anaesthetic?

Physical factors

A

Increase environmental temperature, no draughts and use hot water bottles

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31
Q

How can you prevent hypothermia under anaesthetic?

Anaesthetic factors

A

Use short acting anaesthetics, keep patient as light as possible, and use rebreathers where possible

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32
Q

How can you prevent hypothermia under anaesthetic?

Surgical factors

A

Avoid unessecary clipping, minimize surgical time, and keep exposed visceral surfaces moist

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33
Q

When would you extubate a dog vs a cat

Why is it different?

A

Dog: when they swallow
Cat: before they swallow

In cats, you risk laryngospasm if you wait until they swallow

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34
Q

Define

Tranquilliser

A

Agent that affects mood

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35
Q

Define

Sedative

A

Agent that causes drowsiness

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36
Q

Define

Neuroleptic

A

Agent that reduces aggression and agitation

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37
Q

List the 4 drug classes of sedatives

A
  1. Phenothiazines
  2. Butyrophenones
  3. Benzodiazepines
  4. Alpha-2 agonists
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38
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with anaesthesia in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs: 0.17%
Cats: 0.24%

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39
Q

Why is monitoring during anaesthesia critical?

A

Anaesthesia impairs the function of the respiratory, cardiovascular and thermoregulatory systems
Monitoring helps us notice negative trends in these systems, and correct them early on

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40
Q

List 6 things to monitor during anaesthesia

Think patient and equipment

A
  1. CNS function
  2. Cardiovascular function
  3. Respiratory function
  4. Temperature
  5. Anaesthetic equipment
  6. Fluids, surgeon, general etc.
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41
Q

What are the 4 stages of anaesthetic depth?

A

Stage I, voluntary excitment
Stage II, involuntary excitment
Stage III, surgical anaesthesia
Stage IV, overdose

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42
Q

From which points in anaesthesia is the patient in stage I of anaesthetic depth?

A

From induction until unconsciousness

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43
Q

From which points in anaesthesia is the patient in stage II of anaesthetic depth?

A

From unconsciousness until rhythmic breathing is present

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44
Q

How is stage III of anaesthetic depth divided?

A

Plane 1, light surgical anaesthesia
Plane 2, satisfactory for most procedures
Plane 3, satisfactory for most procedures
Plane 4, very deep anaesthesia (not usually required)

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45
Q

From which points in anaesthesia is the patient in stage IV of anaesthetic depth?

A

From very deep anaesthesia (plane 4) to respiratory paralysis and death

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46
Q

List 5 ways in which we can monitor anaesthetic depth

Think patient reflexes/systems

A
  1. Cranial nerve reflexes
  2. Other reflexes
  3. Cardiovascular responses
  4. Respiratory responses
  5. Skeletomuscular responses
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47
Q

Which cranial nerve reflexes do we assess during anaesthesia?

A

Occular reflexes (palpebral and corneal)

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48
Q

Which stage of anaesthesia is the palpebral reflex lost?

What situation is the exception?

A

Stage III

Horses under ketamine anaesthesia

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49
Q

Why is the palpebral reflex better than the corneal reflex for monitoring anaesthetic depth?

A

The corneal reflex can still be present after cardiac arrest, and you risk corneal trauma if you check it too often
The palpebral is good for most species because it is present when anaesthesia is light, and lost when there is sufficient anaesthesia (stage III)

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50
Q

List 3 examples of reflexes you can use to measure anaesthetic depth other than occular reflexes

A
  1. Laryngeal and pharyngeal reflexes
  2. Pedal withdrawl
  3. Anal reflex
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51
Q

List 3 ways you can assess cardiovascular and respiratory function in anaesthesia

A
  1. Heart rate
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Ventilation (rate, depth and pattern)
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52
Q

What is the first sign of lightening anaesthesia in horses?

A

Movement

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53
Q

___ and ___ are important in maintaining mean arterial blood pressure

MAP = __ x __

A

Cardiac output ad systemic vascular resistance

MAP = CO x SVR

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54
Q

What is the driving force for tissue perfusion?

A

Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)

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55
Q

Which parameter of cardiovascular function is a subject assessment?

A

Tissue perfusion

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56
Q

List 3 ways you can assess HR, arterial pressure and perfusion

A
  1. Palpate the apex beat
  2. Auscultation
  3. Palpation of peripheral pulses
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57
Q

Peripheral pulse palpation gives an indication of ___, whereas palpation of the apex beat does not

A

Peripheral perfusion

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58
Q

Apex beat palpation and auscultation are not good indications of __

2 things

A

Cardiac output and tissue perfusion

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59
Q

Which 2 arteries are generally useful for peripheral pulse palpation

What is another one you can use in dogs?

A
  1. Metacarpal
  2. Dorsal pedal

Lingual artery

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60
Q

Which artery do you commonly use for pulse palpation in horses

What other ones can you use? (3)

A

The facial artery

Can also use the palatine, auricular or dorsal metatarsal

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61
Q

What creates the pulse pressure we can feel?

A

The difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures

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62
Q

List 2 ways you can assess tissue perfusion

A
  1. Capillary refill time
  2. Mucous membrane colour
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63
Q

How can you assess renal perfusion?

A

Measure urine output

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63
Q
A
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63
Q

List 2 benefits of ‘sighing’ the lungs during anaesthesia

A
  1. Prevents atelectasis (lung collapse)
  2. Allows us to assess the compliance of the lungs and/or breathing system
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64
Q

What does a low ‘sigh’ compliance indicate?

A

There is pressure on the chest and/or an obstruction

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65
Q

What does a high ‘sigh’ compliance indicated?

A

There is a dissconnection or leak in the breathing system

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66
Q

List 3 complications of anaesthesia associated with hypothermia

A
  1. Cardiovascular depression
  2. Hypocoagulation
  3. Hypoventilation
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67
Q

Electrical cortical activity __ with increasing anaesthetic depth

A

Decreases

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68
Q

What does an ECG measure?

A

The electrical activity of the heart

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69
Q

List 3 advantages of an ECG

A
  1. Good for diagnosing cardiac arrythmias
  2. Good indication of myocardial hypoxia
  3. Provides a continuous visual display of heart activity

Also relatively cheap & easy!

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70
Q

List 3 disadvantages/limitations of an ECG

A
  1. Provides no information about mechanical activity
  2. Displayed HR can be inaccurate
  3. You can observe pulseless electrical activity (machine fault)
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71
Q

Describe the standard lead configuration for an ECG

A

Lead I connects LA-RA
Lead II connects RA-LL
Lead III connects LA-LL

72
Q

List 3 possible causes for bradycardia

A
  1. Vagal stimulation
  2. Drugs (ex. opioids)
  3. Hypercapnia
73
Q

List 3 possible causes for tachycardia

A
  1. Pain
  2. Light anaesthesia
  3. Hypotension/hypovolemia
74
Q

List 3 possible causes for premature complexes on an ECG

A
  1. Sympathetic stimulation
  2. Cardiac disease
  3. Hypercapnia
75
Q

What are 2 indirect ways we can measure blood pressure?

A
  1. Oscillometric
  2. Doppler
76
Q

Describe how you would take BP with an oscillometer

A

Place an inflatable cuff around limb, inflated above systolic pressure and then slowly deflated
The machine will sense the pulses of the arterial wall and give you the readings (systolic pressure is when pulse returns, MAP is the maxmal oscillation amplitude)

77
Q

What indicates the mean aterial pressure on an oscillometric BP reading?

A

The maximal oscillation amplitude of the aterial wall

78
Q

The width of a BP cuff should be approx. __ of the circumference of the extremity

79
Q

How will the blood pressure change if the cuff is too small?

A

BP will be overestimated

80
Q

How will the blood pressure change if the cuff is too big?

A

BP will be underestimated

81
Q

List 3 disadvantages of oscillometric BP measurement

A
  1. Does not work well with low HR, arrythmias or small patients
  2. Readings are affected by movement
  3. Systolic pressure is overestimated at low pressures (and vice versa)
82
Q

Describe how you would take BP with a doppler

A

A cuff is placed proximal to the ultrasound probe, inflated to occlude blood flow (above systolic pressure) and then slowly deflated
The pressure at which the audible signal returns is the systolic pressure

83
Q

List 3 disadvantages of doppler BP measurement

A
  1. Can be difficult to place the probe
  2. Only gives systolic pressure
  3. Less accurate than direct arterial pressure monitoring (hard not to be though)
84
Q

Which method of BP monitoring is continuous: oscillometric or doppler?

85
Q

Describe how BP is taken in direct BP monitoring

A

The physical pressure is conducted via a saline filled tube to a transducer, the transducer changes the physical signal into an electrical signal

86
Q

What does a pulse-oximeter measure?

A

% oxyen saturation of haemoglobin

Also pulse rate

87
Q

Describe how pulse-oximetry works

A

A probe measures the absorption of light by oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin

Oxy- and deoxyhaemoglobin absorb light of different wavelengths

88
Q

List 3 factors that can affect the results of pulse-oximetry

A
  1. Pigmented/hairy skin
  2. Vasoconstriction
  3. Ambient light
89
Q

List 4 respiratory monitoring devices and what they monitor

A
  1. Apnoea monitors (resp. rate)
  2. Capnography (alveolar ventilation)
  3. Pulse oximetry (O2 saturation of Hb)
  4. Blood gas analysis (ventilation, oxygenation and acid-base status)
90
Q

What is capnography?

What does it show us?

A

A graphical & continuous representation of PCO2 throughout the respiratory cycle

91
Q

What is the range for normocapnia?

A

ETCO2 35mmHg - 45 mmHg

92
Q

What is the range for hypercapnia?

What does it reflect?

A

ETCO2 > 45mmHg

Reflects hypoventilation

93
Q

What is the range for hypocapnia?

What does it reflect?

A

ETCO2 < 35mmHg

Reflects hyperventilation

94
Q

Describe a normal capnogram

A

Respiratory baseline: 0 mmHg
Expiratory upstroke: steep
Alveolar plateu: slowly increasing
Inspiratory down stroke: steep

95
Q

What does increased ETCO2 on a capnogram indicate physiologically?

3 things

A
  1. Decreased alveolar ventilation
  2. Increased CO2 production
  3. Increased inspired CO2
96
Q

What does decreased ETCO2 on a capnogram indicate physiologically?

3 things

A
  1. Increased alveolar ventilation
  2. Reduced CO2 production
  3. Increased alveolar dead space
97
Q

Define

Ventilaiton

A

The act of inhaling and exhaling

98
Q

Define

Oxygenation

A

Delivery of oxygen to tissues

99
Q

Define

Hypercapnia

A

High blood carbon dioxide

Normal range is 35-45mmHg

100
Q

What monitors PaCO2 levels?

A

Central chemoreceptors in the medulla

Medulla in the brain - not kidney :/

101
Q

What monitors PaO2 levels?

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

102
Q

List 3 things that are impaired during anaesthesia

A
  1. Airway reflexes
  2. Respiratory muscle control
  3. Neural control
103
Q

Define

FiCO2

A

Fraction of inspired CO2

Should be 0

104
Q

In which circumstance would FiCO2 not be zero?

A

Rebreathing (i.e., there is a lot of dead space or you are using a non-rebreathing system)

105
Q

Define

VCO2

A

CO2 produced by the body

106
Q

Define

VA

A

Minute ventilation (tidal volume x respiratory rate)

107
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

A severe reaction to anaesthetic drugs to which the body temp raises to dangerously high levels

108
Q

Which breeds/species are more susceptible to malignant hyperthermia?

A

Pigs and greyhounds

109
Q

List 3 factors that can impact minute ventilation (VA)

A
  1. Positioning
  2. Drugs
  3. Hypothermia
110
Q

List 3 causes of hypercapnia

A
  1. Drugs (depressents)
  2. Obesity
  3. Underlying disease

Generally reduced alveolar ventilation

111
Q

Define

SaO2

A

Percentage of haemoglobin bound to oxygen

112
Q

List 3 physiological signs of hypercapnia

A
  1. Tachypnoea
  2. Peripheral vasodilation
  3. Tachycardia
113
Q

List 4 ways you can maintain/manage an airway during anaesthesia?

A
  1. Endotracheal tube
  2. Laryngeal mask
  3. Tracheostomy
  4. Mask
114
Q

Explain the function of murphey’s eye

A

To maintain ventilation if the end of the ET tube becomes occluded during anaesthesia

115
Q

List 4 reasons intubating an animal could be difficult

A
  1. Anatomical
  2. Physiological
  3. Pathological
  4. Iatrogenic
116
Q

List some advantages of a laryngeal mask

A
  1. Very easy to place
  2. Easy to move
  3. Allows for mechanical ventilation
117
Q

List some disadvantages of a laryngeal mask

A
  1. Difficulties if not positioned correctly
  2. Possibility for laryngeal trauma
118
Q

List some advantages of a tracheostomy

A
  1. You definitely have an airway
  2. You can bypass upper airway pathology
119
Q

List some disadvantages of a tracheostomy

A
  1. Requires more equipment
  2. Higher incidence of morbitity
  3. More aftercare is needed
120
Q

List some advantages of a mask

A
  1. Very easy to move and place
  2. Increases FIO2 (inspired oxygen)
121
Q

List some disadvantages of a mask

A
  1. No airway protection
  2. No mechanical ventilation
  3. No capnography
122
Q

List 3 reasons why you would use IPPV

A
  1. To assist the patient
  2. To assist the anaesthetist
  3. To assist the surgeon
123
Q

List some disadvantages of using IPPV

A
  1. There is reduced cardiac output in the patient
  2. Can cause lung damage
  3. May see respiratory alkalosis
  4. Higher cost & complexity
124
Q

List 4 things you need to set up a intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) system

A
  1. Cuffed ET tube
  2. Appropriate breathing system
  3. Means of delivery ventilation
  4. Method to suppress ventilation (i.e., anaesthetics, opiods, neuromuscular blocking agents)
125
Q

List some advantages of an ET tube

A
  1. Protects the airway
  2. Allows for mechanical ventilation
126
Q

List some disadvantages of an ET tube

A
  1. Can cause tracheal damage
  2. Possibility for occulsion
  3. Tube can become damaged
127
Q

Define complications in anaesthesia

A

Often predictable disturbances, consequences of anaesthetic drugs, animal status and procedure

128
Q

Define emergencies in anaesthesia

A

Events that lead rapidly and inevitably to death if untreated or mismanaged

129
Q

Define accidents in anaesthesia

A

A common result of human error, often preventable

130
Q

List 3 causes of hypercapnia

A
  1. Hypoventilation
  2. CO2 rebreathing
  3. Increased CO2 production
131
Q

Describe how to treat hypercapnia

A

Lighten anaesthesia and provide IPPV
Can also use a non-rebreathing system

132
Q

List 3 causes of hypoxaemia

A
  1. Inadequate oxygen supply
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. V/Q mismatch
133
Q

Describe how to treat hypoxaemia

A

Pre-oxygenate the patient, increase FiO2 and lighten anaesthesia

134
Q

Describe how you can prevent aspiration in the anaesthetized patient

A

Secure the airway with the cuff of the ETT, fast before induction, and make sure induction is quick

135
Q

Describe barotrauma

A

Alveolar damage and potential rupture due to elevated transalveolar pressure

Cause is increased pressure

136
Q

List 3 consequences of an untreated airway obstruction

A
  1. Exhaustion
  2. Pulmonary oedema
  3. Acute lung injury
137
Q

Define apnoea

A

Total respiratory arrest

138
Q

Describe how to treat apnoea

A

Assure the airway, provide assisted or mechanical ventilation, and lighten the anaesthetic

139
Q

List 5 possible causes of hypotension

A
  1. Hypovolemia
  2. Vasodilation
  3. Decreased contractility
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias
  5. Reduced venous return
140
Q

Describe how to treat hypotension

There are 4 ways

A

Anticholinergics to increase HR
Fluid therapy to increase preload
Iontropic drugs to increase contractility
Vasopressors to increase afterload

141
Q

Describe how to treat bradycardia

A

Anticholinergics (atropine)

142
Q

Describe how to treat tachycardia

A

Treat the underlying cause (nociception, hypoxia, hypotension, etc.)

143
Q

What is the body’s response to haemorrhage?

A

Tachycardia and vasoconstriction

144
Q

List 3 consquences of hypothermia

A
  1. MAC reduction
  2. Impaired coagulation
  3. Vasoconstriction
145
Q

What is the difference between nociception and pain?

A

Nociception is unconscious, pain is conscious

146
Q

Describe how to treat anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline (bronchodilators and vasopressors)

147
Q

Define

Cardiac arrest

A

Sudden cessation of effect cardiac contractions

148
Q

Define

Respiratory arrest

A

Sudden cessation of respiratory movements

149
Q

List the events following respiratory arrest that lead to cardiac arrest

A
  1. Hypoxaemia
  2. Hypoxic myocardium
  3. Arrythmias
  4. Cardiac arrest
150
Q

List the events following cardiac arrest that lead to respiratory arrest

A
  1. Tissue hypoperfusion
  2. Cerebral hypoxia
  3. Hypoxic medullary respiratory centre
  4. Respiratory arrest
151
Q

What is the goal of CPR?

A

To deliver O2 to vital organs until return of spontaneous circulation

152
Q

List 4 signs of cardiac arrest in the anaesthetized patient

A
  1. Decreased ETCO2
  2. Cardiac arrythmias
  3. Sudden drop of blood pressure
  4. Loss of pulse-oximetry signal
153
Q

Describe how to manage the airway in CPR

A

Check for obstruction and then place an ET tube
Stop anaesthetic delivery and give 100% O2

154
Q

Describe how to manage breathing in CPR

A

Administer approx. 10 breaths/min, allowing adequate time for deflation (avoid hyperventilation)
Give 100% FiO2
NO doxapram

155
Q

Describe how to manage circulation in CPR

A

Position the animal in right lateral or dorsal recumbancy
Start compressions ASAP
Obtain IV access

156
Q

Describe the difference between cardiac and thoracic pump chest compressions

In which case would you use which?

A

Cardiac pump: chest compressions over the heart, between the 3-6 intercostal space
Thoracic pump: chest compressions of the highest point of the thorax

Cardiac: <15kg or narrow
Thoracic: >15kg or barrel chest

157
Q

How do cardiac compressions promote blood flow in CPR?

A

By direct compression of the ventricles

158
Q

How do thoracic compressions promote blood flow in CPR?

A

By increasing the intrathoracic pressure

159
Q

To which depth should you compress the chest for CPR?

A

1/3 - 1/2 the width of the chest

160
Q

How long should 1 full interuptted cycle of CPR be?

161
Q

List 4 conditions in which you would consider doing internal cardiac compression

A
  1. Pneumothorax
  2. Cardiac tamponade
  3. Penetrating chest wounds
  4. Intraoperative arrests (you’re already in there!)
162
Q

Where should you enter the chest cavity to access the heart for internal cardiac compression?

A

The 5th intercostal space (during expiration)

163
Q

Which anatomical point can you use to identify where to open the chest for internal cardiac compression?

A

The olecranon of the forelimb

164
Q

List 4 reasons why ICC would be preferred over ECC

A
  1. Thorax is already open
  2. Large dog breeds
  3. Disease processes that would make ECC ineffective
  4. If ECC is generally ineffective
165
Q

Which monitors should be used when doing CPR?

A

ECG and capnography

166
Q

Which cardiac rhythms are shockable?

A

Ventricular tachycardia (big QRS complexes) and ventricular fibrilation (looks like waves)

167
Q

Which cardiac rhythms are non-shockable?

A

Asystole (flat line) and pulsless electrical activity (non-ordered waves)

168
Q

List 5 routes of drug administration for advanced life support?

A
  1. Central IV
  2. Peripheral IV
  3. Introsseous
  4. Intratracheal
  5. Intracardiac
169
Q

Explain the role of vasopressors in advanced life support

A

They increase vascular resistance in promote blood flow to vital organs

170
Q

Provide 2 examples of vasopressors used for advanced life support

A
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Vasopressin
171
Q

List 5 drugs you can give intratracheally

A
  1. Epinephrine
  2. Vasopressin
  3. Atropine
  4. Lidocaine
  5. Naloxone
172
Q

Explain the role of anticholinergices in advanced life support

A

They decrease parasympathetic tone to increase heart rate

173
Q

In which 2 situations would you use atropine for ALS?

Think about the cardiac rhythms

A

Asystole or pulseless electrical activity (the heart has stopped)

174
Q

Provide 2 examples of antiarrhytmic drugs

A
  1. Amiodarone
  2. Lidocaine
175
Q

What is the recommended primary treatment for ventricular fibrilation and tachycardia

A

Defibrillation

176
Q

Provide 3 examples of reversal agents, and what they reverse

A

Naloxone - reverses opioids
Flumazenil - reverses benzodiazepines
Atipamezole - reverses alpha agonists

177
Q

What is the survival rate following CPR in dogs and cats?

178
Q

At what point does potentially irreversible ischemic damage occur?

A

After 6 minutes

179
Q

What are the 3 goals of post cardiac arrest care?

A
  1. Hemodynamic optimization
  2. Respiratory optimization
  3. Neuroprotection

Clinical Foundations (5 decks)

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