Anemia Flashcards

1
Q

What is the life span of a normal RBC?

The bone marrow is stimulated to make red cells by the hormone ___ which comes from the kidneys

A

120 days bruh

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ is a molecule that promotes O2 unloading from the RBCs and stabilizes the deoxy form of hemoglobin

A

2,3-Diphosphoglycerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between hematocrit and MCV?

A

Hematocrit: Ratio of packed red cell volume to total blood volume

Mean corpuscular volume: Average volume of a red cell (Hematocrit/number of red cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define anemia

A

Low red cell mass/red cell mass below 13.5g/dl in men and 12.5g/dl in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What features of a person’s history might clue you into anemia?

What are the features on the physical exam might suggest anemia?

A

Weakness/fatigue, dyspnea upon exertion

Pale conjunctiva (in darker skinned pts)

Pallor

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When anemia is severe, the patient may begin to experience hypoxia. Besides headaches and dim vision, the patient may also experience ___ (due to ischemic cardiac muscle) and ___ (due to ischemic skeletal muscle)

A

When anemia is severe, the patient may begin to experience hypoxia. Besides headaches and dim vision, the patient may also experience angina (due to ischemic cardiac muscle) and claudication (due to ischemic skeletal muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the case of anemia, the body compensates for the low RBC state in various ways, including increased __ in the lungs, __ CO, PR and blood flow.

___ goes up to promoteO2 unloading in the tissues.

In the peripheral organs, __ decreases to help with O2 extraction. They also undergo ___, and in the kidney, ___ is released to promote eryhtropoiesis

A

In the case of anemia, the body compensates for the low RBC state in various ways, including increased RR in the lungs, inreased CO, PR and blood flow from the heart

2,3 DPG goes up to promote O2 unloading in the tissues.

In the peripheral organs, pH decreases to help with O2 extraction. They also undergo vasodilation, and in the kidney, erythropoietin is released to promote erythroopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Based on MCV, how would you classify normal vs microcytic vs macrocytic anemia?

A

Normocytic anemia – normal MCV

Microcytic anemia –smaller MCV

Macrocytic anemia – higher MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In microcytic anemia, the cells are smaller because ___, where as in macrocytic anemia, there is a defect in ___, resulting in arrest in mitosis and non-dividing cell growth, leading to larger cells

A

In microcytic anemia, the cells are smaller because they have less hemoglobin in them, where as in macrocytic anemia, there is a defect in DNA synthesis, resulting in arrest in mitosis and non-dividing cell growth, leading to larger cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two of the causes of normocytic anemia include ___ and ___ (subtype of anemia)

A

Two of the causes of normocytic anemia include blood loss and hemolytic anemia (subtype of anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Four causes of microcytic anemia include __ deficiency anemia, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia and ___

A

Four causes of microcytic anemia include Fe deficiency anemia, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia and thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ anemia is an issue with the poryphyrin ring in Hb (hint: you don’t value your “ring” i.e. marriage anymore so you go and find a side piece)

A

Sideroblastic anemia is an issue with the poryphyrin ring in Hb (hint: you don’t value your “ring” i.e. marriage anymore so you go and find a side piece)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Macrocytic anemia can be divided into ___ and ___

A

Macrocytic anemia can be divided into megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

___ and ___ deficiencies can cause megaloblastic anemia

___ and ___ can cause non-megaloblastic anemia

A

Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiencies can cause megaloblastic anemia

Liver disease and drugs can cause non-megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most worrisome issue with acute blood loss is ___, which can lead o cardiac collapse, shock and death so you want to perfuse the patient first.

Treatment of acute blood loss involves perfusion with ___ such as __ and __, +/- RBCs, depending on degree of blood loss

A

The most worrisome issue with acute blood loss is hypovolemia, which can lead to cardiac collapse, shock and death so you want to perfuse the patient first.

Treatment of acute blood loss involves perfusion with acellular fluids such as electrolyte solutions and colloids (e.g. albimun + dextran), +/- RBCs, depending on degree of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chronic anemia can result from __ or __ or RBCS

2 things that can help establish chronic anemia are a change in ___ and the presence of ___

A

Chronic anemia can result from destruction or impaired production of RBCS

2 things that can help establish chronic anemia are a change in MCV and the presence of reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Draw and describe the chart that explains how to come up with a differential for the anemias

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

There are 2 ways that hemolysis can occur, namely ___ and ___.

___ occurs when the RBCs are destroyed w/in the the reticuloendothelial system, esp the spleen

___ occurs when the rbcs are destoyed w/in blood vessels and can be fatal if it occurs rapidly

A

There are 2 ways that hemolysis can occur, namely extravascular and intravascular hemolysis.

Extravascular occurs when the RBCs are destroyed w/in the the reticuloendothelial system, esp the spleen

Intravascular occurs when the rbcs are destoyed w/in blood vessels and can be fatal if it occurs rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Extravascular hemolysis can lead to some ailments, namely unconjugated bilirubin jaundice, ___ and ___

Draw the chart that shows extravscular hemolysis

A

Extravascular hemolysis can lead to some ailments, namely unconjugated bilirubin jaundice, bilirubin stones and splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In intravscular hemolysis, you would expect to see reduced serum ___ (molecule that binds Hb in blood vessels), hemoglobinemia and ___

A

In intravscular hemolysis, you would expect to see reduced serum haptoglobin (molecule that binds Hb in blood vessels), hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The features of hemolytic anemia include increased ___ levels (compensatory mechanism), lower RBC lifespan and ___

A

The features of hemolytic anemia include increased erythropoietin levels (compensatory mechanism), lower RBC lifespan and accumulation of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For inherited causes of hemolytic anemia, the 3 umbrella categories are membrane defects, __ and ___ defects

Give an example of each defect

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is an example of ___

A

For inherited causes of hemolytic anemia, the 3 umbrella categories are membrane defects, enzyme defects and globin defects

Membrane defect: hereditary spherocytois & elliptocytosis

Enzyme defect: G6PD deficiency

Globin defect: Sickle cell anemia

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is an example of an acquired genetic defect

23
Q

____ is a disorder caused by mutations leading to inadequate membrane cytockeletal components (membrane to be unstable so its more prone to hemolysis)

In a blood smear, the cells would look like ___instead of biconcave shape

The mutated proteins include mutations in band 3, ___, ___ or spectrin

A

Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder caused by mutations leading to inadequate membrane cytoskeletal components (membrane to be unstable so its more prone to hemolysis)

In a blood smear, the cells would look like spheres instead of biconcave shape

The mutated proteins include mutations in band 3, ankyrin, band 4.2 or spectrin

24
Q

Hereditary elliptocystosis is caused by __

A

Hereditary elliptocystosis is caused by mutations that destabilize the cytoskeleton (cells look like cigars)

25
Q

Herediatry spherocytosis is often ass’d with ___ infection, which suppresses marrow, which then affects all cells and causes increased risk for aplastic anemia

A

Herediatry spherocytosis is often ass’d with parvovirus infection, which suppresses marrow, which then affects all cells and causes increased risk for aplastic anemia

26
Q

Describe the osmotic fragility test and the results you would expect to see between normal RBCs and those in hereditary spherocytosis

How would you treat this disorder?

A

(see image below)

Treatment: folate (b/c high red cell turnover) or splenectomy

27
Q

____ is the enzyme involved in preventing oxidative damage and in normal pts, levels of this enzyme drop but in pts with this deficiency, the drop occurs earlier

A

G6PD is the enzyme involved in preventing oxidative damage and in normal pts, levels of this enzyme drop but in pts with this deficiency, the drop occurs earlier

28
Q

G6PD deficiency can lead to what type(s) of hemolysis?

A characteristic type of RBC you’ll see in a peripheral smear of G6PD deficiency is a ___ cell, which forms due to what process?

A

Both intravascular and extravascular hemolysis

A characteristic type of RBC you’ll see in a peripheral smear of G6PD deficiency is a bite cell, which forms because Hb precipitates into Heinz bodies which are bitten off by circulating macrophages

29
Q

Why does testing for G6PD deficiency following an acute hemolytic episode reflect normal enzyme levels?

A

When you test right after an acute hemolytic episode, it’ll look normal coz only young rbcs are left behind so the recommendation is 6 weeks following crisis

30
Q

Paroxysmla nocturnal hemoglobinuria is the only acquired genetic defect resulting in hemolytic anemia. It arises due to___

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is the only acquired genetic defect resulting in hemolytic anemia. It arises due to a mutation in membrane anchor protein (phosphatidylinositol glycan complementation group A gene (PIGA)) leading to increased hemolysis

31
Q

Why do patients with PNH also present with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia in addition to anemia?

A

The causative mutation occurs in a hematopoietic stem cell, all the blood cells are deficient in GPI-linked membrane proteins

32
Q

The most common cause of death for PNH patients is ___ due to ___

Diagnosis of PNH is based on flow cytometry and pts are deficient in which 3 GPI linked proteins that regulate complement?

A

The most common cause of death for PNH patients is thrombosis due to platelet dysfunction

CD55

CD59 (inhbits C3 convertase >> prevents activation of alternative complement pathway >> pts have increased susceptibility to complement-mediated hemolysis b/c of the deficiency)

C8 binding protein

33
Q

24 year old woman is pregnant for the first time. She is found to be O+ (blood group O, rhesus D+). Her spouse if O- (blood group O, rhesus D-). What is the risk to current and future pregnancies with no interventions?

A.No risk to current or future fetuses.

B.No risk to current fetus. Mom may form anti-D antibodies now that will cause fetal hemolytic anemia during subsequent pregnancies

C.No risk to current fetus. Mom may form anti-D antibodies now that will cause maternal hemolytic anemia during subsequent pregnancies

A

A.No risk to current or future fetuses.

34
Q

Describe a case of Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

An Rh(-) mother is exposed to D antigen when she has her first baby (who’s Rh+). By the time she has the 2nd one, she’s made anti-D antibodies that can cross over to baby # 2 and cause severe hemolysis

(baby # 2 can be born w/ jaundice and hydrops fetalis; treatment = anti-D IgG)

35
Q

Describe a case of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

A type O mom has a baby that’s A or B and her anti A or anti B antibodies cross over to the baby and cause MILD hemolysis which manifests as jaundice

Mild jaundice can be treated w/ phototherapy, severe jaundice w/ exchange transfusion

36
Q

Two examples of antibody mediated hemolytic anemia are ___ and ___

A

Two examples of antibody mediated hemolytic anemia are Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn and ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn

37
Q

Examples of scenarios that can cause mechanically induced hemolytic anemia include running marathons, heart valve problems, ___, ___ and ___

A

Examples of scenarios that can cause mechanically induced hemolytic anemia include running marathons (marathon hemoglobinuria, (mechanical/infected) heart valves, burns, hemodialysis and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (shearing of cells by platelet thrombi)

38
Q

Examples of infections that can lead to hemolytic anemia include ___ (this was your job 4 2 years), (something about a babe), Bartonellosis and ___

A

Examples of infections that can lead to hemolytic anemia include malaria, babesiosis, bartonellosis and clostridium perfringens

39
Q

What are the patterns of fever for the 4 most common malaria parasites?

A

Plasmodium vivax/ovale – Tertian fever (q48 hr)

Plasmodium malariae – quartan fever (q72 hr)

Plasmodium falciparum – Severe, irregular fever patterns

40
Q

How can you tell a case of babesiosis from malaria on a peripheral blood smear?

A

Babesiosis wil have a tetrad form of ring parasites (aka the maltese cross)

41
Q

Which of the following is likely NOT a cause of hemolytic anemia?

A.Transfusion of type O+Rh- blood to type A Rh+ patient

B.Transfusion of type A+Rh- blood to type B Rh+ patient

C.Patient with mechanical heart valve

D.Plasmodium falciparum infection

E.Bongo drummer at a 7 day music festival

A

Transfusion of type O+ Rh- blood to type A Rh+ patient

42
Q

How is iron deficiency anemia different from anemia of chronic disease?

Describe sideroblastic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia is a lack of iron whereas anemia of chronic disease involves iron being unavailable to developing cells (coz the person’s been sick for so long)

Sideroblastic anemia involves iron being trapped in mtoc of developing cells

43
Q

What are some of the clinical manifestations of iron deficiency?

A

Pica**

Angular stomatitis

Koilonychia

Anemia symptoms

Stunted growth + impaired cognitive development in kids; increased risk of preterm birth/low birth weight in expecting moms

44
Q

In the iron cycle, what are the roles of transferrin, hepcidin and ferritin?

In which blood cells is iron stored?

A

Transferrin - circulating in the blood; picks up Fe and transports it to the liver

Ferritin - sequesters iron and stores it

hepcidin - inhibits iron absorption and transferrin activity

Marrow erythroid precursors and mononuclear phagocytic cells

45
Q

What do you expect to happen with the following lab values in iron deficiency anemia?

serum iron

TIBC (total iron binding capacity aka transferrin)

% transferrin saturation

ferritin

free erythrocyte protoporphyrin

A

serum iron - decreases

TIBC (total iron binding capacity aka transferrin) - increases

% transferrin saturation - decreases

ferritin - decreases** (except in an inflammatory state, in which case the levels will go up b/c its an acute phase reactant)

free erythrocyte protoporphyrin - increases

46
Q

What induces anemia of chronic disease and what are the downstream effects?

A

CD4+ T cell release of IL6, which induces hepcidin >> blocked iron release from macrophages + gut iron absorption

Also, cytokine mediated inhibition of erythropoiesis

47
Q

What would be the levels of the following in anemia of chronic disease vs iron deficiency anemia?

IL6

Transferrin

Ferritin

A

Anemia of chronic disease: transferrin = low to normal; IL6 = high; ferritin = normal to high

Iron deficiency anemia: transferrin = high; IL6 = normal; ferritin = low

48
Q

The x-linked form of Sideroblastic anemia results from a deficiency in the ___ enzyme, resulting in iron entrapment in the mitochondria

A

The x-linked form of Sideroblastic anemia results from a deficiency in the ALA synthase enzyme, resulting in iron entrapment in the mitochondria

49
Q

What are the morphologica features of sideroblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?

A

Dimorphic RBCs (some big some small)

Pappenheimer bodies in the red cells

50
Q

___ will be increased in folate deficiency, whereas both ___ and ___ will be increased in B12 deficiency

A

Homocysteine will be increased in folate deficiency, whereas both homocysteine and methyl malonate will be increased in B12 deficiency

51
Q

Draw and explain the absorption of B12 in the body. What are the roles of the following:

R binders

Intrinsic factor

Transcobalamins I-III

A

R binders: bind B12 in stomach (but they exist in the saliva)

IF: complexes w/ B12 in the terminal ileum

Transcobalamins: carry absored B12 to the blood stream (esp II, required for transfer to tissues)

(see image below for drawing)

52
Q

Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency in ___, which is necessary for B12 absorption. How does this deficiency arise?

A

Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency in intrinsic factor, which is necessary for B12 absorption

Parietal cells are destroyed by auto immune antibodies so they won’t make intrinsic factor

53
Q

Describe the Schilling test for B12 deficiency

A

Patient is given excess, oral radioactive B12. If absorbed, some of it will leave in the urine, and if not, it’ll be found in the feces

54
Q

What particular symptom in a patient’s history will clue you into B12 deficiency and not anemia?

A

Neurological deficits: loss of sensation