Anemia Flashcards

1
Q

what is a better way to assess for folate deficiency rather than just serum folate level?

A

red cell folate

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2
Q

folate deficiency levels and what it means

A

< 2 = deficiency
2-4 = equivocal and should get MMA and homocysteine levels; normal MMA and high homocysteine = folate deficiency

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3
Q

B12 deficiency levels

A

< 200= deficiency
200-300 = equivocal. Should test MMA and homocysteine; if they are both elevated it is B12 def.

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4
Q

formula for iron deficiency replacement

A

calculated iron deficiency (mg)= body weight x (14-Hb) * 2.145

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5
Q

labs for ACD

A

low iron
ferritin is high or normal
TIBC is LOW because of increased hepcidin production in the liver and iron is trapped in macrophages
absolute retic count is often low

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6
Q

treatment for ACD

A
  • can use EPO which decreases hepcidin and immediately releases iron from the stores; can give supplemental iron to achieve transferrin saturation > 20% and ferritin > 100 ng/mL
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7
Q

Red Cell aplasia risk factors

A
  • thymoma> remember to get CT chest
  • DFA
  • Old EPO preparations which cause anti-erythrocyte Ab
  • drugs including phenytoin, isoniazid, valproic acid, chlorambucil, AZA and mycophenolate
  • T cell and B cell disorders
  • parvovirus, mumps, hepatitis, EBV and HIV
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8
Q

red cell aplasia- labs

A

WBC and platelets are normal!
Abs retic < 0.1
normocytic normochromic anemia

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9
Q

pure red cell aplasia: treatment

A
  • steroids
  • steroids + cyclosporine or cyclophosphamide
  • IVIG, plasmapharesis, AZA, rituximab, alemtuzumab (anti CD52), daclizumab (CD25, IL2 receptor T cells)
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10
Q

what is sideroblastic anemia? list some causes

A

dx due to inherited or acquired abnormalities in heme synthesis and mitochondrial function. ringed sideroblasts are erythroblasts with iron loaded macrophages
causes include:
- etoh
-INH, chloramphenicol, linezolid, cycloserine
- copper def which leads to zinc toxicity
- lead poisoning
- MDS with ringed sideroblasts
- X linked disorders making men more susceptible

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11
Q

sideroblastic anemia: treatment

A
  • congenital: treat anemia with occasional transfusions but be mindful to avoid iron overload
  • acquired: remove offending drug such as INH; can give B6 also and continue INH; treat underlying disorder
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12
Q

what is congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and what are the three types?

A
  1. CDA 1: caused by mutations in CDAN1 gene which encodes codanin-1 a cell cycle protein involved in histone assembly. It is Ar and often associated with cosanguinity. Can have moderate to severe macrocytic anemia; hepatomegaly and cholelithiasis are common. can have dysmorphic skeletal features. Iron overload is major cause of morbidity
  2. CDA2: more varied anemia from ild to severe; gaucher like cells and ringed sideroblasts are common. more than 10% of mature bi and multinucleated red cell precurors is a hallmark. AR pattern; mutations in SEC23B gene which encodes COPII involved in cis-golgi apparatus. Type 2 CDA is known as HEMPAS (hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity associated with positive acid serum test)
  3. CDA 3: more mild anemia, usually asymptomatic. BM shows large multinucleate erythroblasts. AD with inheritaned mutations in KIF23 which is a gene than is critical for cytokines
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13
Q

CDA treatment

A
  1. iron chelation may be needed if ferritin > 500
  2. interferon is effective in type 2
  3. transplant
  4. type 3 is mild and doesnt need tx usually
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14
Q

Pathophysiology of WAIA

A
  • almost always IgG Ab and bind to RBC at 37 degrees
  • about 50% of IgG bind to Rh complex constituents
  • Fc reeptors, complement C3 receptors, or both on reticuloendothelial cells bind these RBC and trap them in the spleen where macrophages opsonize them which leads to partial loss of the membrane and microspherocytes (small round red cell)
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15
Q

what are causes of WAHA?

A
  1. lymphoproliferative disorders like CLL, HL, NHL
  2. autoimmune dx like SLE
  3. drugs like cephalosporins, quinine
  4. other cancers such as ovarian
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16
Q

lab features of WAHA

A
  1. macrocytic anemia due to compensatory reticulocytosis
  2. signs of extravascular hemolysis: increased unconjugated Bili, low haptoglobin, elevated LDH
  3. DAT is + for IgG, C3 or both in 95% of cases; in rare cases can have DAT negative WAHA if IgG has low affinity for RBC, the density of IgG or Cs is below commerical threshold level or it is non-IgG Ab (IgA)
17
Q

Treatment WAHA

A
  1. RBC if needed- will likely not find a match since they have panagglutinins that bind to all donor RBC; transfusion is safe but should be limited
  2. steroids- induce response 80% of the time but 50% will relapse in one year.
  • Prednisone 1mg/kg and dose is maintained for 3-4 weeks and then tapered 10mg per week until you reach 20-30mg and then do VERY slow taper
  • DAT negativity is not required to be considered successful treatment

Second Line:

  1. rituximab weekly x 4- good response but still 50% relapse
  2. splenectomy
  3. AZA, cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine, MMF and danazol- can all have delayed response and should be continued at least 3-4 months to see if they work
18
Q

Cold Agglutinin Disease Pathophysiology

A
  • Monoclonal Ab almost exclusively IgM directed against carbohydrate antigen I or i on RBC; agglutination happens between 0 to 5C and leads to vascular symptoms due to blood flow impediment
  • IgM activates complement on RBC surface that leads to extravascular hemolysis due to phagocytosis by reticuloendothelial cells; activation of complement occurs at high temperatures 20-25C and then once C3 is bound to RBC hemolysis occurs regardless of whether the agglutinin is still bound to the RBC
  • complement can cause intravascular hemolysis but CAD mostly extravascular
19
Q

lab features of cold agglutinin dx

A
  1. elevated MCV due to cell clumping
  2. autoagglutination can be prevented by processing blood at 37C
  3. DAT is positive for C3 but not Ig (because it tests for IgG and not IgM)
  4. SPEP shows abnormal IgM
  5. complement levels are low bc of chronic consumption
  6. BM shows erythroid hyperplasia and may show LPL aggregates which can be clonal
20
Q

secondary causes of cold agglutinin dx

A
  1. autoimmune disease
  2. lymphoma/CLL3 ***all patients with cold agglutinin disease must get bone marrow to rule out lymphoproliferative disorder
  3. Infection with Mycoplasma and mononucleosis
21
Q

Treatment of cold agglutinin dx

A
  1. avoid cold
  2. splenectomy and steroids are NOT useful
  3. if they need blood it needs to be WASHED and WARMED
  4. if patient needs surgery can remove IgM with plasmapharesis and albumin- operating room should stay warm
  5. Rituximab + or - fludarabine or BR
22
Q

PNH Pathophysiology

A
  • absence of glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored proteins (GPI-AP) due to somatic mutation in PIGA gene on the X chromosome (males and females are equally affected because in somatic tissue in females one X is inactivated); mutations occur in HSC and early progenitor cells so all lineages are deficient in GPI-AP
  • PNH is an acquired, clonal disorder and patients an have more than one mutant clone although one is usually dominant however it does NOT lead to replacement of the normal bone marrow. Bone marrow failure is NOT the PNH clone but is caused by autoimmune destruction by T cells
  • CD55 and CD59 are GPI-AP that protect RBC from low grade activation of the alternative complement pathway; CD55 regulates formation and stability of C3 and C5 convertases of the APC; CD59 inhibitos formation of C5b-C9 MAC and inhibits APC C3/C5 convertase
23
Q

signs and symptoms of PNH

A
  1. Anemia: Non-spherocytic intravascular hemolysis with high LDH and normal DAT; can have low retic count bc there is some element of bone marrow failure
  2. thombosis in unusual locations like Budd-Chiari -→ most common cause of mortality in PNH is thrombosis
  3. smooth muscle dystonia: free Hb binds and depleted NO leading to smooth muscle dystonia like esophageal spasms and erectile dysfunction
  4. nocturnalhemoglobinuria
24
Q

PNH I, II and III

A

Patients with PNH have two or 3 types of RBC; phenotypic mosaicism arises from multiple clones with discrete PIGA mutations

  1. PNH I cells are normal
  2. PNH II cells have partial deficiency of GPI-AP and express ~ 10% of normal amount
  3. PNH III have complete absence
25
Q

why should PNH flow be done on RBC and granulocytes?

A

If you have PNH III clones, hemolysis will eliminate all of these cells so the size of the clone will be underestimated. Granulocytes are normal in PNH so they can more accurately reflect size of clone

26
Q

what is subclinical PNH?

A

small clone < 10%; not clinically significant. Classic PNH is > 50% and usually > 90%

27
Q

PNH treatment

A

If the patient has a large clone and is symptomatic can give eculizumab (mab that binds to C5 and prevents conversion to C5b); does not actually remove the clone though so needs to be given continuously

  • maintenance dosing is not weight based so breakthrough hemolysis can occur- can increase dose or reduce time between treatments to restore reponse. some asians can be resistant to eculizumab
28
Q

what causes the most mortality in PNH?

A

VTE! If they never had VTE don’t need to AC but if they have they need life long AC

29
Q

What is paroxysmal cold hemoglobunuria (PCH)?

A
  • associated with congenital syphilis and normally seen in children < 5 or in adults with lymphoproliferative disorders
  • Polyclonal IgG (Donath-Landsteiner) against the P antigen on RBC binds at cold temperatures and then when RBC travel to warmer area of the body, causes classical complement pathway activation and intravascular hemolysis
  • DAT is positive for complement but not IgG
30
Q

How does PCH differ from cold agglutinin disease

A

no agglutination is seen on the smear with PCH

31
Q

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobunuria (PCH) treatment

A
  1. hemolysis is usually transient and self-limiting
  2. transfusion
  3. plasmapharesis
  4. rituximab
  5. can use eculizumab since it is from complement activation
32
Q

If PNH clone is > 50% but no indication for eculizumab should you AC?

A

yes with coumadin