Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Embryo Anderson PTL - Exam 2 > Anderson Review Qns > Flashcards

Anderson Review Qns Flashcards

1
Q

In early heart formation, cells migrating through the anterior part of the primitive streak will form which of the components of the heart?

A

forms outflow tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the early embryo, during somitogenesis, how many somitomere pairs are found caudal to the most caudal somite pair?

A

1st pair of somites forms behind (caudal to) 7th pair of somitomeres at the expense of the 8th pair of somitomeres
-11 pairs of somitomeres kept constant at caudal end of paraxial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Opposing FGF-8 and retinoic acid gradients associated with which theory regarding somite formation?

A

wavefront or determination front model of somitogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The sclerotome is derived from cells from what source?

A

paraxial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the source of the cardiogenic plate?

A

splanchnic mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An inductive stimulus from what source stimulates the transformation of the epithelial sclerotome into secondary mesenhcyme?

A

notochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of embryonic defects are characterized as primary errors of morphogenesis that are usually multifactorial and involve a number of etiological agents including genetic and environmental factors?

A

malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What condition refers to the accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intauterine growth?

A

hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Folic acid deficiency is now thought to be a major cause of what class of malformations?

A

neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anal atresia can be attributed to what type of disturbance?

A

disturbance in tissue resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What group of congenital malformations makes up the largest percentage of congenital malformations?

A

UNKNOWN FACTORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The intermediate mesoderm in the early embryo gives rise to which system(s)/structures?

A

urogenital system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cleft palate is the result of a defect in what developmental mechanism?

A

failure to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phocomelia is most likely to be seen after maternal exposure to which teratogenic agent during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

Thalidomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the characteristic effects caused by exposure of the fetus to alcohol?

A

-growth and mental retardation
-microcehaly
-face and trunk malformations
- heart defects
holoprosencephaly=severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Supplementing the diet of women of childbearing age with which dietary supplement may reduce the incidence of neural tube defects such as anencepahly?

A

folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In fetal hydrops, the affected brain may become enlarged and edamatous and, when sectioned, has a bright yellow color, particularly the bsal nuclei, thalamus, cerebellum, cerebral gray, and spinal cord. What term is related to this CNS damage?

A

kernicturus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An increased incidence of what conditions is strongly associated with increasing maternal age?

A

trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During childbirth, which membranes/layers around the embryo rupture and which do not?

A

layers that rupture-amnion and chorion

layers that don’t rupture—>allantois and secondary umbilical vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tendons of limb muscles arise from what source?

A

lateral plate mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Limb muscles arise from what source?

A

ventrolateral dermomyotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Expression of what genes are involved in the separation of the dermomyotome into dorsal dermatome and ventral myotome?

A

expression of Pax 3, Pax 7, and Paraxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In early heart formation, cells migrating through the middle part of the primitive streak will form which of the hearts components?

A

form ventricles

24
Q

In early heart formation, cells migrating through the anterior part of the primitive streak will form which of the heart components?

A

form outflow tract

25
Q

In early heart formation, cells migrating through the posterior part of the primitive streak will form which of the heart components?

A

form the atria

26
Q

hydatidform mole is related to which genetic-related condition?

A

paternal imprinting

27
Q

formation of ribs on the lumbar and sacral vertebrae occurs as a result of what genetic condition?

A

knockout of all Hox 10 paralogues

28
Q

Myoepithelial cells in the lactating breast contract in response to what hormone?

A

oxytocin

29
Q

Which components of the hair and its follicle are derived from ectoderm?

A
  • hair follicle -nails -hair shaft

- sebaceous glands -secretory and duct components of mammary gland

30
Q

Which components of the hair and its follicle are derived from mesoderm?

A

arrector pilli

31
Q

The proatlas anlage contributes to the formation of which structures?

A

fuses with 3 upper occipital sclerotomes to form the OCCIPITAL BONE

32
Q

What factor is antagonistic to BMP and, when down regulated, allows sutures to fuse?

A

Noggin

33
Q

what structure is/are derived from the trophoblast?

A

placenta and chorion

-forms outer layer of blastocyst

34
Q

List/describe factors/conditions that facilitate the exchange of oxygen between the fetal and maternal blood.

A

Bohr effect— fetal blood can carry greater quantity of Oxygen than maternal blood for given blood P02–> delivers increased O2 to the tissues

Double Bohr effect—double shift in maternal blood and fetal blood

fetal blood hemoglobin concentration is about 50% greater than maternal

fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for O2

35
Q

What factor is in the permanent cartilage pathway that causes chondroblasts to secrete collagen II and cartilage matrix and is continually expressed in permanent cartilage?

A

sox 9

36
Q

What is/are the effects of HCG on the corpus luteum?

A
  • prevents involution of corpus luteum (CL)
  • causes CL to increase secretion of progesterone and estrogens
  • causes increased growth in CL
37
Q

What cells can be considered immigrant with regard to the development of integument?

A
  1. melanoblasts–from neural crest
  2. Langerhan’s cells–from bone marrow
  3. Merkel cells–from neural crest
38
Q

Describe the characteristics of satellite cells in reference to muscle tissue differentiation

A
  • able to fuse with muscle fiber and provide growth
  • cannot form new muscle fibers
  • fxn as stem cells
  • give rise to myogenic precursor cells—replace damaged muscle by proliferating, fusing, and differentiating into skeletal muscle fibers
39
Q

What signaling molecules are expressed by the isthmic organizer?

A

mostly FGF-8, Wnt-1, En-1, En-2

40
Q

What germ layers make up each of the extraembryonic membranes?

A

amnion–inner cell mass: epiblast derivative
yolk sac-inner cell mass: hypoblast derivative
allantois-inner cell mass; interfaces with placenta via umbilical cord
chorion–part of fetal maternal interface

41
Q

What germ layer is absent from the oropharyngeal membrane?

A

-lack of mesoderm–>result in perforation of these plates

42
Q

List the characteristics of the early placenta and relate to the late placenta

A

Early–thick, low permeability, small SA, total diffusion conductance is minuscule

Late–thin, high permeability, large SA, large increase in placental diffusion

43
Q

Name the factors that is/are involved in the formation of rhombomeres 3 and 5

A

Krox-20

44
Q

Describe the 3 circulatory arcs and their components in the 4-week embryo

A

vitelline arc-vitelline vessels
allantoic arc—allantoic (umbilical) vessels
embryonic arc–dorsal aorta, aortic arches, anterior cardinal vein, common cardinal vein, posterior cardinal vein, atrium, ventricle, ventral aorta

45
Q

What transcription factor suppresses the formation of anterior gut structures and promotes hindgut development?

A

Cdx-2

46
Q

At what time during pregnancy does maximum secretion of HCG occur?

A

10th-12th week of pregnancy

47
Q

What role does p63 play in the formation of the intermediate layer of the epidermis and what is its relation to miR-203?

A

p63 initiates 3-layered epidermis-forms )basal germinative layer) and superficial peridermal layer

miR-203—inactivates p63 which allows intermediate layer to form

48
Q

What is fillagrin and what is it specifically associated with?

A

Fillagrin—> filament associated protein that binds to keratin fibers in epithelial cells
–it interconnects the stratum granulosum of intermediate layer of the epidermis

49
Q

Compare permissive and instructive induction and give examples.

A

permissive induction—responding tissue has all the potentials that are to be expressed, and need only an environment that allows the expression of the traits
ex. fibronectin/laminin does not alter the type of cell that is to be produced, but only enables what has been determined to be expressed

instructive induction—-> signal from inducing cell necessary for initiating new gene expression in the responding cell- need for differentiating
ex. optic vesicle places under region of ectoderm causing region of ectoderm to from a lens

50
Q

Which intramembranous bone in the body is the first to become ossified?

A

the clavicle

51
Q

Prechordal (hypophyseal) cartilages contribute to the formation of which components of the embryonic skull?

A

basisphenoid bone

52
Q

List characteristicss of early cardiac muscle cells

A
  • does not express Myo D
  • contract early
  • maintains their ability to divide partially disassembling their contractile apparatus prior to cell division
53
Q

Parachordal cartilages contribute to the formation of which components of the embryonic skull?

A

basioccipital portion of chondrocranium

54
Q

What skull structures are derived from the membranous portion of the viscerocranium?

A
  • part of the temporal -palatine
  • zygomatic -vomer
  • maxillary -pterygoid plates, mandible
  • nasal - lacrimal
  • tympanic ring
55
Q

Name the four components of the typical embryonic pharyngeal arch

A
  1. skeletal element
  2. muscles
  3. branch of specific cranial nerve
  4. artery

Embryo Anderson PTL - Exam 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions