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year 2 sem 1 > anatomy yr 1 > Flashcards

anatomy yr 1 Flashcards

1
Q

whats the other term for superior vs inferior

A

rostral vs caudal

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2
Q

whats the other term for anterior vs posterior

A

ventral vs dorsal

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3
Q

what are the 2 divisions of the skelenton

A

axial

  • skull
  • vertebral column
  • ribs
  • sternum

appendicular

  • lower limb
  • upper limbs
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4
Q

2 types of joints

A

synovial

  • bones moving against each other
  • has an articular cavity
  • produces synovial fluid

solid

  • no joint space just connective tissue between
  • for support not movemetn
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5
Q

types of synovial joints and and example of where they’re found

A 
pivot joint
-	Between C1 and C2 vertebrae
Hinge joint
-	Elbow
Saddle joint
-	Between trapezium carpal bone and 1st metacarpal bone
Plane joint
-	Between tarsal bones
Condyloid joint
-	Between radius and carpal bones of wrist
Ball-and-socket joint 
-	Hip joint
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6
Q

types of solid joints - and they’re subtypes

A

Fibrous

  • Syndesmosis
  • Gomphosis
  • Sutures

Cartilaginous

  • Synchondrosis
  • Symphysis
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7
Q

tendons vs ligaments

A

tendons - muscle to bones

ligaments - bone to bone

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8
Q

anatomical terms for movements

A 
flexion vs extension
abduction vs adduction
circumduction
rotation
supination vs pronation
inversion vs eversion
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9
Q

types of imaging and what they’re primarily used for

A

radiography with contrast media

  • contrast media > barium or iodine compounds, absorb x-rays more than soft tissue
  • visualise sift tissue

computerised tomography (CT scans)

  • x-rays > tube rotates around body = transverse plane image
  • visualise bony structures

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

  • no x-rays
  • uses radiowaves - from hydrogen nuclei
  • sim. CT = planar image
  • better than CT for soft tissue eg heart, brain

Ultrasound

  • doesn’t use x-rays
  • records reflection of ultrasonic waves
  • visualise pregnancy, internal organs, blood vessels
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10
Q

divisions of vertebrae

A

33 in total

  • 7 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacrum
  • 4 coccyx
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11
Q

what are the 2 vertebral column curvatures

A

Primary – foetal

  • Thoracic and sacral
  • Concave anteriorly
  • Differing height of anterior and posterior parts of vertebrae

Secondary – after birth

  • Cervical and lumbar
  • Concave posterior
  • Postnatal changes in intervertebral discs
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12
Q

what is the purpose of vertebral column curvatures

A
  • shock absorption

- weight distribution

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13
Q

clinical curvatures

A

Kyphosis – increases curvature of thoracic region
Scoliosis – lateral curvature
Lordosis –increased curvature of lumbar or cervical region

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14
Q

features of a typical vertebrae

A

Body
- Weight bearing, shock absorbing

Vertebral arch (neural arch)
-	Completes vertebral foramen
o	2 pedicles
o	2 laminae
o	4 articular processes
o	3 non-articular processes
	2 transverse, 1 spinous
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15
Q

components of vertebral disc

A

annulus fibrosis
- fibrotic cartilage
nucleus pulposus
- gelatinous central mass

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16
Q

specialisation and name of the C1 vertebrae

A

Atlas

  • No body or spinous process
  • Anterior arch
  • Posterior arch
  • Superior articular surface
  • Inferior articular surface
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17
Q

specialisation and name of the C2 vertebrae

A

Axis

  • Rounded superior articular facets
  • Dens (odontoid process)
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18
Q

C1 and C2 joints

A
  • Atlanto-axial joint
    o C1/C2
    o Rotation
    o Dens (odontoid process
  • Atlanto-occipital joint
    o C1/ Occipital Bone
    o ‘nodding’
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19
Q

variation between cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

A 
Cervical
-	Sloped from anterior to posterior 
-	Zygaphophysial joint in all
Thoracic
-	‘vertical’
Lumbar
-	‘wrapped’
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20
Q

types of movement of the vertebral column

A
  • Lateral flexion
  • Lateral extension
  • Rotation of head and neck
  • Rotation of upper trunk
  • Extension
  • Flexion
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21
Q

what are the general functions of the muscles of the back

A

intrinsic
- movement and support of vertebral column

Extrinsic

  • movement of limbs
  • have a superficial and deep layer
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22
Q

trapezius

A

Attachments
o Thoracic vertebrae, cervical region, occipital bone to clavicle and scapula

Actions
o	Sup/ inf fibres
	Superior rotation of scapula
o	Middle fibres
	Retract scapula
o	Superior fibres
	Elevate
o	Inferior fibres
	Depress
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23
Q

Latissimus Dorsi

A
  • Attachments
    o Lower thoracic vertebrae, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, inferior ribs to humerus
  • Actions
    o Extend, adduct, medially rotate shoulder
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24
Q

Rhomboids

A
  • Attachments
    o Spinous processes to medial border of scapula
  • Actions
    o Retraction. Inferior rotation of scapula
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25
Q

Levator Scapulae

A
  • Attachments
    o C1-4, to medial superior scapula
  • Actions
    o Elevation and inferior rotation of scapula
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26
Q

name the extrinsic muscles of the back

A

trapezius
rhomboids
levator scapulae

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27
Q

name the erector spinae muscles, where they attach and their function

A

iliocostalis
longissimus
spinalis

attach from base of skull to the lower back

for posture and movement of the spine

SUPERFICIAL

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28
Q

name the transversospinals, where they attach and their function

A

semispinalis
multifidus
rotatores

attach from transverse process to superior spinous process

for extending the vertebral column

DEEP

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29
Q

what are the 3 bones of the pelvic bone and describe what they look like/ where they are

A

ilium - the big boi fan shaped one at the top

ischium - the wee skinny legend at the outside

pubis - the wee boi in the middle

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30
Q

what are the other bones of the pelvis other than the pelvic bone and how were they formed

A

sacrum
- formed by fusion of 5 sacral vertebrae

coccyx
- formed by 3-5 fused coccygeal vertebrae

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31
Q

joints of the pelvis

A

lumbosacral joint
o between the sacrum and sacrum

pelvic inlet
o the circle

pubic symphysis
o where the 2 pubis bones meet at the bottom

  • sacrococcygeal joint
  • sacro-iliac joint
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32
Q

what are the bones that make the pelvic inlet

A

sacrum
ilium
pelvis
pubic symphysis

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33
Q

what are the bones that make the pelvis outlet

A

coccyx

the ischial tuberositiesthe pubis symphysis

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34
Q

describe the differences between the pelvic inlet and outlet

A

The pelvic inlet is oval being widest transversely, the pelvic mid-cavity is circular, while the outlet is oval being widest anteroposteriorly.

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35
Q

pelvic dimorphism

A

Obturator foramen

  • male – large and ovoid
  • female – small and triangular

sub-pubic angle

  • male – smaller
  • female – larger

pelvic inlet shape

  • male – heart shaped, narrow
  • female – circular, elliptical, wide

true pelvis

  • male – small
  • female – shallow and spacious
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36
Q

pelvic viscera

A

bladder
urethra
reproductive system
GI system - rectum, anus

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37
Q

male peritoneum in pelvis

A

rectovesical pouch

- between bladder and rectum

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38
Q

female peritoneum in pelvis

A

recto-uterine pouch (pouch of douglas)

  • vesico-uterine pouch
  • broad ligament
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39
Q

female reproductive tract

A
  • The ovary
  • Corpus luteum
  • Uterine tubes
    o Conduct ovum from ovary to uterine cavity
    o Usual site of fertilization
  • Uterus
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40
Q

what are the 4 parts of the uterine tubes

A

 Infundibulum
 Ampulla
 Isthmus
 Uterine part

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41
Q

what are the layers of the uterine wall

A

Endometrium
o Innermost mucosal layer, thickens and becomes rich in blood vessels and glands

Myometrium
o Middle, muscular layer (smooth muscle)
o Thickest layer of tissue in uterine wall

Perimetrium
o Outermost layer
o Part of visceral peritoneum

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42
Q

male reproductive system

A
  • Rectum
  • Anal canal
  • Urinary bladder
  • Urethra
  • Prostate
  • Seminal gland
  • Ejaculatory duct
  • Testis
  • Epidymis
  • Ductus deferens
  • Penis
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43
Q

testes

A 
-	Ductus (vas) deferens
o	Transport spermatozoa to ejaculatory duct
-	Epididymis
o	Sperm storage and maturation
-	Testis 
o	Produce spermatozoa
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44
Q

what are the types of cells lining the seminiferous tubules

A
  • Germ cells (sperm in various stages of development)
  • Sertoli cells (supporting cells)
  • Leydig cells (endocrine function) > adrogens
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45
Q

urethra pathway

A
  • Begins at base of bladder -> ends in external opening in perineum
  • Paths of urethra differ between male and female
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46
Q

muscles of the pelvis

A
  • Coccygeus
  • Levator ani
  • Piriformis
  • Obturator internus
    Pelvic diaphragm -> coccygeus + levitator ani
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47
Q

pelvic perineum

A
  • Diamond-shaped shallow compartment bounded by pelvic outlet
  • Separated from pelvic cavity by fascia covering inferior aspect of pelvic diaphragm
    Divided into 2 triangles
  • Urogenital triangle (above)
  • Anal triangle (below)
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48
Q

anal triangle contents

A
  • Contains anus, external anal sphincter
  • Extends superiorly to pelvic diaphragm
  • Filled laterally with ischional fat
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49
Q

urogenital triangle

A
  • Inferior fascia of pelvic diaphragm
  • Perineal membrane
  • Perineal fascia
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50
Q

muscles associated with genitals

A
  • ischiocavernous

- bulbospongiosus

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51
Q

gonadal blood supply - the order of the blood vessels the blood travels through

A

abdominal aorta
common iliac
internal iliac
external iliac

  • gonadal arteries arise from abdominal aorta
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52
Q

female blood supply

- where do the arteries arise and whats the flow

A
  • Uterine arteries arise from internal iliac arteries
  • Ascending uterine arteries and ovarian arteries bifurcate into ovarian and tubal branches
  • Arteries supplying superior part of vagina derive from uterine arteries
  • Arteries supplying mid/ inf vagina derive from vaginal/internal pudendal arteries
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53
Q

male blood supply

A
  • Inf vesical – branches to bladder, ureter, seminal vesicles and prostate
  • Middle rectal artery – rectum
  • Internal pudendal artery – main artery of the perineum including penis
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54
Q

nerve supply to the pelvis

A

pudendal nerve

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55
Q

bones of the neurocranium

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • occipital
  • temporal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
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56
Q

bones of the viscerocranium

A
  • frontal
  • nasal
  • maxilla
  • zygomatic
  • mandible
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57
Q

sutures of the cranium and and describe where they are

A

frontal/ coronal
- the big boi horizontally at the front

lamboid

  • between occipital bone
  • the wee boi horizontally at the back
  • he a bit bent do

sagittal
- big boi right down the middle he longgggg

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58
Q

landmarks of sutures

A

lambda
o lamboid and sagittal sutures meet here

bregma
o coronal and sagittal sutures meet

pterion
o H shaped formation of sutures on the side of the calvarium

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59
Q

temporomandibular joint

A
  • Hinge connecting the jaw to the temporal bone
  • Joint capsule
  • Articular disc
  • Hinge and gliding
    o Allows for movement up, down and side to side
    o For speech, talking, chewing and yawn etc
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60
Q

coverings of the brain

A

meninges

  • dura
  • arachnoid
  • pia
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61
Q

what are the 3 cranial fossa? what do they look like and what do they contain

A

Anterior > most shallow and superior – lies over the nasal and orbital cavities
- Cribiform plate

Middle > butterfly shaped depression of the skull base

  • Optic canal
  • Superior orbital fissure
  • Foramen rotundum
  • Foramen ovale
  • Foramen spinosum
  • Foramen lacerum

Posterior > most deep – accommodates the brainstem and cerebellum

  • Internal acoustic meatus
  • Hypoglossal canal
  • Jugular foramen
  • Foramen magnum
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62
Q

middle crania fossa foramina of the skull

A 
Cribiform Plate
-	CNI – olfactory
Optic canal
-	Optic nerve
Superior orbital fissure
-	CNIII, CNIV, CNV, 
Foramen Rotundum 
-	CNV (2)
Foramen ovale
-	CNV (3)
Foramen spinosum 
-	Middle meningeal artery
Foramen lacerum/ carotid canal 
-	Internal carotid artery
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63
Q

posterior cranial fossa foramina

A 
-	Internal acoustic meatus
o	CNVII and CNVIII
-	Jugular foramen
o	Internal jugular vein, CNIX, X, XI
-	Hypoglossal canal 
o	CNXII
-	Foramen Magnum 
o	Spinal cord, vertebral arteries
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64
Q

the ear structures from external to internal

A
  • Tympanic membrane
  • Auditory ossicles
  • Tympanic cavity
  • Vestibulocochlear organ
  • Cochlea
  • Semicircular canals
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65
Q

muscles of facial expression and examples of them

A 
Bone - skin
Allow skin to move independently of underlying structures
Eg…
-	Orbicularis occuli
-	Orbicularis oris
-	Buccinator
-	Platysma
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66
Q

muscles of mastication

A 
bone – bone
movement of TMJ
4 bilateral muscles
-	Temporalis
-	Masseter
-	Medial pterygoid
-	Lateral pterygoid
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67
Q

sternocleidomastoid

A
  • Long muscles connect the sternum, clavicle and mastoid process of the temporal bone
  • Used to turn and nod the neck
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68
Q

trapezius

A
  • Large surface muscle that extends longitudinally from the occipital bone to the lower thoracic vertebrae of the spine and laterally to the spine of the scapula
  • Moves scapula and supports the arms
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69
Q

the 2 triangles of the neck and their boundaries

A

Posterior triangle boundaries

  • SCM
  • Trapezius
  • Clavicle

Anterior triangle boundaries

  • SCM
  • Mandible
  • Median plane of neck
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70
Q

what are the key structures contained within each neck triangle

A 
Posterior (deep)
-	Roots of brachial plexus
-	Subclavian artery + vein
Anterior 
-	Salivary glands
-	Lymph nodes
-	Hypoglossal nerve
-	Carotid sheaths and contents
-	Thyroid gland
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71
Q

what are the openings of the head and neck

A
  • optic canal

- superior orbital fissure

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72
Q

the contents of the nasal cavity

A
  • Nares
  • Choanae
  • Conchae
  • Paranasal sinuses
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73
Q

the paranasal sinuses

A
  • Frontal
  • Maxillary
  • Sphenoid
  • Ethmoid air cells
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74
Q

oral cavity boundaries

A
  • Hard palate
  • Soft palate
  • Lips
  • Tongue
  • Muscles of the mouth floor
  • Cheeks
  • Oropharynx
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75
Q

teeth

A
  • Incisors – thin cutting edge – 4+4
  • Canines – one prominent cone – 2+2
  • Premolars – 2 cusps – 4+4
  • Molars 3+ cusps – 6+6
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76
Q

palantine tonsils

A
  • Palatoglossal arch

- Palatopharyngeal arch

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77
Q

divisions of the pharynx and larynx

A 
Pharynx
-	Nasopharynx
-	Oropharynx
-	Laryngopharynx
Larynx
-	Cartilage skeleton
-	Vocal cords
-	Surface landmarks
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78
Q

blood supply to the head and neck

A

Paired Common Carotid Arteries
- Branch of brachiocephalic trunk on right and arch of aorta on left
Paired vertebral arteries
- Branch of subclavian artery on both sides

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79
Q

the mediastinum

A
  • Central compartment of thoracic cavity
  • Between pleural sacs
  • 5 divisions
    o Superior, inferior, anterior, middle, posterior
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80
Q

pericardium - what is it, where is it

A
  • Fibroserous fluid filled sac
  • Surrounds heart muscle and great vessels
  • Lies within middle mediastinum
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81
Q

what are the 2 layers of the pericardium and describe them

A

Fibrous (outer layer)
o Tough connective tissue
o Inextensible
o Central tendon of diaphragm

Serous (inner layer)
o	Single sheet epithelial cells
o	Parietal layer
o	Pericardial cavity (fluid filled)
o	Visceral layer (epicardium)
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82
Q

Function of the pericardium

A
  • Fixation within mediastinum
  • Prevents over filling of the heart
  • Lubrication
  • Protection from infection
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83
Q

innervation of the pericardium

A
  • Phrenic nerve (C3, 4 and 5)

- Referred pain

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84
Q

pericardial sinuses

A

Transverse pericardial sinus
o Lies between arterial outflow (posteriorly) and venous inflow (anteriorly)
o Coronary artery bypass grafting

Oblique pericardial sinus
o Blind end passageway
o Reflection of pericardium onto pulmonary veins

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85
Q

clinical relevance of the pericardium

A

Cardiac tamponade
o Inextensible fibrous layer

Pericarditis
o Inflammation from bacterial infection or infarction

Coronary artery bypass grafting
o Ligation of arteries
o Transverse pericardial sinus

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86
Q

what layers of the pericardium do the pericardial sinuses lie between

A

the visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium

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87
Q

surfaces of the heart

A
  • anterior (sternocostal) - R. ventricle
  • posterior (base) - L. atrium
  • inferior (diaphragmatic) - L. and R. ventricles
  • R. Pulmonary - R. atrium
  • L. pulmonary - L. ventricle
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88
Q

borders of the heart

A

right border - right atrium
inferior border - left and right ventricles
left border - left ventricles and part of L. atrium
superior border - L & R Atria, Great Vessels

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89
Q

external heart sulci

A
  • Grooves created by internal divisions
    o Coronary sulcus
    o Anterior and posterior interventricular sulci
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90
Q

heart wall

A
  • Endocardium
  • Subendocardial layer
  • Myocardium
  • Subepicardial layer
  • Epicardium (visceral pericardium)
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91
Q

endocardium

A
  • Innermost layer
  • Lines cavities and valves
  • Loose connective tissue and simple squamous epithelium
  • Regulates contractions
  • Role in development
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92
Q

subendocardial layer

A
  • Joins endocardium and myocardium
  • Loose layer of connective tissue
  • Contains neurovasculature of heart conducting system
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93
Q

myocardium

A
  • Cardiac muscle (involuntary striated muscle)

- Cardiac contractions

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94
Q

subepicardial layer

A
  • Joins myocardium with epicardium
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95
Q

epicardium

A
  • Outermost layer of the heart
  • Visceral layer of pericardium
  • Connective tissue and fat
    o Secretes lubricating fluid
  • Lined by simple squamous epithelial cells ~(outermost surface)
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96
Q

right atrium

A
  • Receives blood from superior and inferior vena cava, coronary veins
  • Right auricle
  • 2 distinct parts divided by crista terminalis (sinus vernarum and atrium proper)
  • Coronary sinus (between IVC and right atrioventricular orifice)
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97
Q

interatrial septum

A
  • Muscular wall separating atria

- Oval depression on septal wall of RA ‘fossa ovalis’

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98
Q

right ventricle

A
  • Receives blood from RA
  • Pumps blood to pulmonary artery via pulmonary orifice
  • Triangular shape
  • Anterior heart border
  • Inflow and outflow portions
  • Separated by supraventricular crest
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99
Q

right ventricle - inflow portion

A 
-	Trabeculae carnae ‘sponge like’
o	Ridges 
o	Bridges
o	Pillars (papillary muscle)
-	Papillary muscle base attached to ventricle
-	Chordae tendineae
-	Cusps of tricuspid valve
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100
Q

right ventricle - outflow portion

A
  • Superior ventricle leading to pulmonary artery
  • Derived from embryonic bulbus cordis
  • Smooth walls
  • No trabeculae carnae
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101
Q

left atrium

A
  • Receives blood from pulmonary veins
  • Forms posterior border (base) of heart
  • Left auricle
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102
Q

left ventricle

A
  • Receives blood from left atrium
  • Forms apex of heart
  • Left and inferior heart borders
  • Inflow and outflow portions
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103
Q

left ventricles inflow and outflow portions contents

A

inflow

  • trabeculae carnae
  • 2 papillary muscles
  • cordae tendineae attach cusps of mitral valve

outflow

  • aortic vestibule
  • smooth walls
  • derived from bulbus cordis
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104
Q

heart valves

A
  • Ensure blood flows in one direction
  • Connective tissue and lined in endocardium
  • 4 valves
    o 2 atrioventricular
    o 2 semilunar
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105
Q

atrioventricular valves

A
  • Close at start of systole (first heart sound)
  • Valves are supported by chordae tendinae

tricuspid

  • guards right atrioventricular orifice
  • 3 cusps
  • 3 supporting papillary muscles

mitral

  • guards left atrioventricular
  • 2 cusps
  • 2 supporting papillary muscles
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106
Q

semilunar valves

A
  • Close at the start of diastole (2nd heart sound)
  • Found between ventricles and corresponding outflow tracts
  • Sinuses
  • Lunule (thickened free edge)
  • Nodule (widest area)
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107
Q

what are the 2 semilunar valves and describe them

A

pulmonary valve

  • guards pulmonary orifice
  • 3 cusps

aortic valve

  • guards aortic orifice (L. ventricle and ascending aorta)
  • 3 cusps
  • left and right coronary aortic sinuses
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108
Q

heart sounds - what valves are responsible

A 
First heart sound
-	Tricuspid valve
-	Mitral valve
Second heart sound
-	Aortic valve 
-	Pulmonary valve
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109
Q

coronary artery supply to the heart

A
  • Vessels that supply and drain the heart
  • 2 main arteries
    o Right and left coronary arteries
  • Left coronary artery
    o Left anterior descending artery
    o Left marginal artery
    o Left circumflex artery
  • Right coronary artery
    o Right marginal artery
    o Posterior interventricular artery (85%)
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110
Q

venous drainage of the heart

A
  • Venous drainage of the myocardium
  • 5 tributaries
    o Great cardiac v.
    o Small cardiac v.
    o Middle cardiac v.
    o Left marginal v.
    o Left posterior ventricular v.
  • Converge at coronary sinus
  • Drain into RA between atrioventricular orifice and orifice of IVC
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111
Q

the great vessels to and from the heart

A 
Carrying blood away from the heart
-	Pulmonary arteries
-	Aorta
Carrying blood towards the heart the g
-	Pulmonary veins
-	Superior vena cava
-	Inferior vena cava
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112
Q

cardiac conduction system

A
  • Initiate and co-ordinate contraction of myocardium
  • Comprised of
    o Sinoatrial node (pacemaker)
    o Atrioventricular node
    o Atrioventricular bundle (of His)
    o Right and left bundle branches
    o Purkinje fibres
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113
Q

the thoracic aorta what does it give arise to

A

Ascending aorta
o L and R coronary arteries

Arch of the aorta
o Brachiocephalic trunk
o Left common carotid a.
o Left subclavian a.

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114
Q

how does the brachiocephalic trunk divide

A
  • Brachiocephalic trunk divides into right CC and SC
  • Paired common carotid arteries supply head and neck
    o Divide at C3/4 into internal and external carotid arteies
  • Paired subclavian arteries supply upper limbs, head and neck
115
Q

thoracic aorta - what’s it’s positions and what branches come off it

A

Descending
- Loops back over hilum of left lung into the posterior mediastinum

Descending aorta has branches that supply…

  • Lungs > bronchial x 3
  • Rib cage > post. Intercostal x 9
  • Oesophagus > oesophageal x 2
  • Variable branches to pericardium, diaphragm, and other mediastinal structures
116
Q

what forms the intercostal arteries

A
  • Posterior intercostal arteries
    o Descending thoracic aorta
  • Anterior intercostal arteries
    o L&R internal thoracic arteries
117
Q

superior vena cava - what forms it, what vessel does it receive and where does it deliver blood

A
  • Formed by unification of brachiocephalic veins
  • Receives azygos vein
  • Carries deoxygenated blood back to right atrium
118
Q

brachiocephalic veins - what are they formed by, what do they do, and which one is longer

A
  • Formed by unification of subclavian and internal jugular veins on each side (draining blood from upper limbs and head and neck respectively)
  • Left brachiocephalic vein longer than right brachiocephalic vein
119
Q

azygous venous system - where does it receive blood from, what does it form a link between, what does it drain into, what doe sit contain

A
  • Receives blood from posterior thoracic wall, bronchi, and mediastinal viscera
  • Forms a link between IVC and SVC
  • Drains into the SVC
    Contains…
  • Azygos vein
  • Hemiazygos vein
  • Accessory hemiazygos vein
120
Q

aortic hiatus and what happens to the abdominal aorta past this point

A
  • At T1 the thoracic aorta passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdomen and becomes the abdominal aorta
  • The abdominal aorta passes from T12->L4 where it bifurcates into 2 terminal branches
    o L and R common iliac arteries
121
Q

what are the 3 major midline, unpaired abdominal aorta branches

A

o Coeliac trunk (T12)
o Superior mesenteric A. (L1)
o Inferior mesenteric A (L3)

122
Q

what are the several paired abdominal aorta branches

A

o Renal A. (kidneys)
o Gonadal A. (testes/ovaries)
o Lumbar A. (vertebra and muscles)
o Inferior Phrenic A. (diaphragm)

123
Q

coeliac trunk branches and where does it supply

A
  • Supplies the foregut, liver, spleen and pancreas
    o Common hepatic artery
    o Splenic artery
    o Left gastric artery
124
Q

superior mesenteric artery branches and where does it supply

A

Supplies the midgut and pancreas via-

  • Middle colic A.
  • Right colic A.
  • Ileocolic A.
  • Jejunal and ileal A.s
125
Q

inferior mesenteric artery branches and where does it supply

A

Supplies the hindgut via-

  • Left colic A.
  • Sigmoid A.
  • Superior Rectal A.
126
Q

inferior vena cava - hows it formed, where does it pass through the diaphragm, where does it carry blood to

A
  • Formed by unification of L&R common iliac veins (L5)
  • Passes through diaphragm at T8 (caval foramen)
  • Carries deoxygenated blood back to right atrium)
127
Q

vena cava - what veins does it receive and what veins does it give rise to

A
  • Receives renal veins (kidneys)
  • Receives right gonadal vein and right suprarenal vein (ovary/ testis and adrenal gland)
  • Receives hepatic veins (liver)
  • Gives rise to azygos vein
  • Doesn’t directly receive veins from intestines, spleen, pancreas or gall bladder
    o Hepatic portal venous system
128
Q

hepatic portal vein - whats it formed by, whats its route

A
  • Formed by unification of splenic and superior mesenteric vein
  • Also joined by inferior mesenteric vein
  • After passing through liver, blood returns to IVC via hepatic veins
129
Q

great vessels of the pelvis

A
  • Common iliac arteries branch into external and internal iliac arteries at the pelvic brim (in front of the sacroiliac joints)
  • External iliac arteries pass around pelvic brim before passing under inguinal ligament and into lower limb (femoral artery)
  • Internal iliac arteries and their branches supply the pelvis
130
Q

internal iliac arteries

A
  • Supply most pelvic organs and perineum
  • Subtle gender differences in branching pattern
  • Can be subdivided into anterior/ posterior divisions and visceral/ parietal branches
131
Q

branches of the aortic arch

A 
Brachiocephalic trunk
-	Right common carotid
-	Right Subclavian a.
Left Common Carotid a.
Left Subclavian a.
132
Q

arterial supply of head and neck

A 
Common Carotid a.
-	External carotid a.
-	Internal carotid a.
Subclavian a.
-	Vertebral a.
133
Q

at what level to the common carotids bifurcate

A

Common carotids ascend neck bifurcating at C4 (margin of thyroid cartilage)
within carotid triangle…

134
Q

external carotid branches and where does it terminate

A 
8 Branches…
-	Superior thyroid a.
-	Lingual a.
-	Facial a.
-	Ascending pharyngeal a.
-	Occipital a.
-	Posterior auricular a.
-	Superficial temporal a.
-	Maxillary a.
Terminates in the parotid gland
135
Q

carotid sinus

A
  • Dilated segments of common and internal carotid a.

- Detection and regulation of blood pressure

136
Q

internal carotids - what do they supply and what are they a part of

A
  • Supplies brain, eyes and forehead

- Forms part of circle of willis

137
Q

vertebral artery - what does it arise from, what does it ascend through and what route does it enter the brain

A
  • Arise from subclavian a.
  • Ascend through the transverse foramina of c spine
  • Enter foramen magnum and converge
  • Supply the brain via the ‘circle of willis’
138
Q

venous drainage of the head and neck - what vessels are involved

A 
Internal jugular (drains brain and skull)
o	Combines with subclavian v. to form brachiocephalic v.
External jugular (drains face and scalp)
o	Empties into subclavian v.
Anterior Jugular (drains anterior neck)
o	Empties into subclavian v.
139
Q

carotid sheath - location and contents

A

Paired structures found on either side of the anterior neck

Contents…
o	Common carotid a.
o	Internal jugular v.
o	Vagus nerve
o	Cervical lymph nodes
140
Q

arterial supply to the upper limb

A

Subclavian a.

  • becomes axillary a. at lateral margin of first rib
  • Passes through the axilla
  • At the inferior margin of Teres Major it becomes Brachial a.

Profunda brachii a.
Brachial a.
Radial a.
Ulnar a.

141
Q

what veins drain the upper limb

A
  • cephalic vein
  • basilic vein
  • median cubital vein
142
Q

arterial supply to the lower limb

A
  • external iliac artery
  • femoral artery
  • deep artery of thigh
  • popliteal artery
  • posterior and anterior tibial artery
  • fibular artery
  • posterior tibial artery
  • dorsalis pedis artery
143
Q

at what point does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery

A

when it passes posteriorly through the adductor hiatus

144
Q

venous drainage of the lower limb

A
  • femoral vein
  • popliteal vein
  • great and small saphenous veins
  • dorsal venous arch
145
Q

histology of blood vessels

A

Tunica intima
- Endothelial cells, connective tissue
Tunica media
- Smooth muscle cells and collagen (thickest part)
Tunica adventitia
- Thin connective tissue layer, contains lymphatics, nerves and blood vessels

146
Q

pulses

A 
Radial
-	Lateral wrist
Brachial 
-	Medial to biceps tendon
Femoral 
-	Mid-inguinal point
Popliteal
-	Popliteal fossa
Anterior tibia
-	Lateral edge of medial malleolus
Dorsalis pedis 
-	Dorsum of foot
147
Q

functions of the chest wall

A
  • Respiration
  • Protection
  • Muscle attachments
148
Q

the thoracic cavity major spaces

A
  • Heart with coverings (pericardium – pericardial cavity) + the major vessels
  • Lungs with coverings (pleura – pleural cavities)
149
Q

superior thoracic aperture

A
  • Upper opening of the thorax
  • ‘thoracic inlet’
  • Formed by the first thoracic vertebra behind, the upper margin of the sternum in front and the first rib on either side
150
Q

inferior thoracic aperture

A
  • Lower opening of thorax
  • ‘Thoracic outlet’
  • Formed by…
    o twelfth thoracic vertebra behind
    o by the eleventh and twelfth ribs, in front
    o by the cartilages of the tenth, ninth, eighth and seventh ribs at each sides
    o form the subcostal angle
151
Q

components of the chest wall

A
  • thoracic vertebrae
  • ribs
  • sternum
    o manubrium, body, xiphoid process
  • intercostal spaces
    o intercostal muscles
152
Q

typical rib features

A 
head 
neck 
tubercle
angle
internal surface
costal groove
external surface
costal cartilage
153
Q

categorisation of ribs

A 
True Ribs
-	ribs 1-7
-	articulate with sternum. Via own costal cartilage
False ribs
-	ribs 8-10
-	articulate with sternum via costal cartilage of rib above
Floating ribs
-	ribs 11 and 12
-	do not articulate with sternum
154
Q

what are the 2 muscles of the chest

A

Pectoralis major

  • muscle at the chest
  • beneath the breast
  • thick, fan-shaped muscle

Pectoralis Minor

  • thin triangular muscle
  • upper part of the chest beneath the pectoralis major
155
Q

serratus anterior muscles

A
  • Originates from surface of the 1st- 8th ribs at the side of the chest
  • Inserts along the entire anterior length of the medial border of the scapula
  • Pulls the scapula forward around the thorax
156
Q

intercostal muscles

A
  • Run between the ribs
  • Help form and move the chest wall
  • Involved in mechanical aspects of breathing
  • Help to expand and shrink the chest cavity for breathing
157
Q

movements of the chest wall during inhalation

A

internal intercostals relax and external intercostal muscles contract…

  • chest expands
  • diaphragm contracts pulling down
  • ribcage is pulled upwards and outwards
  • lung volume increases and air pressure inside decreases so air rushes in
158
Q

what are the characteristic movements of the chest

A

Bucket handle movement
- during inspiration the transverse diameter of the thorax is increased by the ribs swinging outward – bucket-handle rib motion

Pump handle movement
- contraction of external intercostals raises the lateral part of the ribs
- causing a bucket handle motion that increases the transverse diameter of the thorax
- vertebrosternal ribs follow this movement
o raises sternum and inc. the anterior-posterior dimensions of the thorax

159
Q

diaphragm openings

A
  • inferior vena cava – T8
  • Oesophagus – T10
  • Aorta – T12
160
Q

trachea

A
  • C-shaped hyaline cartilage rings
  • Bifurcates into right and left main bronchus at TIV/TV
  • Carina > hook-shaped tracheal rings
  • Trachealis muscle
161
Q

bronchial tree - the 2 bronchi

A 
Right main bronchus
-	Wider
-	Vertical
-	Shorter
-	Divides into 3
Left main bronchus
-	Long
-	More horizontal
-	Thin
-	Divides into 2
162
Q

the pathway of air

A
  • Traches
  • Main bronchus > PRIMARY
  • Lobar bronchi > SECONDARY
  • (3R, 2L)
  • segmental bronchi > TERTIARY
  • conducting bronchioles
  • respiratory bronchioles
  • alveoli
  • alveolar ducts
  • alveolar sacs
163
Q

alveoli

A
  • microscopic air cells
  • gas exchange
  • 150-300 mill
  • Single layer of epithelial cells and elastic fibres line the walls of each one
    o Allow them to stretch/ contract during breathing
  • Surrounded by a network of capillaries for gas exchange
  • Coated in a thin film of pulmonary surfactant
    o Prevents alveoli from collapsing
164
Q

what are the external features of the left and right lung

A 
Right lobe
-	Superior
-	Middle
-	Inferior
o	Oblique fissure
o	Horizontal fissure
Left Lobe
-	Superior
-	Inferior
o	Oblique fissure
o	Lingula
165
Q

right medial surface - root structures and impressions

A

Hilum
- Where important structures enter/ exit each lung

Root structures

  • Pulmonary arteries (purple)
  • Pulmonary veins (orange)
  • Bronchus (green)

Impressions (the blue arrtows)

  • Superior vena cava
  • Inferior vena cava
  • Oesophagus
  • Azygos vein
166
Q

left medial surface - root structures and impressions

A 
-	Smaller than right lung
Hilum
-	Where structures enter/ exit 
Root structures
-	Pulmonary arteries
-	Pulmonary veins
-	Bronchus
Impressions
-	Heart
-	Aortic arch
-	Thoracic aorta
-	Oesophagus
-	Left subclavian artery
167
Q

hilum

A 
Main structures entering the hilum
-	Primary bronchi
-	Pulmonary arteries (deoxygenated blood) 
Main structures exiitng the hilum
-	Pulmonary veins (oxygenated blood)
Other structures
-	Bronchial arteries and veins
-	Lymph vessels
-	Efferent and afferent autonomic nerves
168
Q

what are the 2 laters and sub-layers of pleura

A 
-	PARIETAL PLEURA
o	Costal
o	Mediastinal
o	Diaphragmatic
o	Cervical
  • VISCERAL PLEURA
    o Adheres to walls of lung
    o Covering surface of each lobe
169
Q

describe what happens when lung ruptures

A
  • Rupture of a lung allows entry of air into pleural cavity
  • Surface tension adhering visceral to parietal pleura breaks = lung collapses
  • Won’t affect the other lung
170
Q

costodiaphragmatic recess

A
  • Between costal pleura and diaphragmatic pleura

- Clinically important

171
Q

mediastinum divisions

A
  • Separates the pleural cavities
  • Divided into 2 parts
    o Superior mediastinum
    o Inferior mediastinum
     Anterior
     Middle
     Posterior
172
Q

mediastinum contents

A
  • Aorta
  • Heart
  • Azygous vein
  • Trachea
  • Main bronchi
  • Oesophagus
  • Vagus nerves
  • Phrenic nerves
  • Thoracic ducts
173
Q

innervation of the lung pleura

A
  • Parietal pleura > somatic innervation
  • Costal pleura > intercostal nerves
  • Mediastinal pleura > phrenic nerves
  • Diaphragmatic pleura
    o Phrenic nerves to domes
    o Lower 5 intercostal nerves to periphery
  • Visceral pleura > autonmic innervation
174
Q

innervation to mediastinum

A
  • Vagus nerve
    o Parasympathetic supply to all organs and thorax
  • Phrenic nerve
    o Motor and sensory to diaphragm
175
Q

what is the vomer bone

A

the small thin bone separating the 2 nasal cavities in humans

176
Q

what is the nasal septum

A

The nasal septum separates the left and right airways of the nasal cavity, dividing the two nostrils. It is depressed by the depressor septi nasi muscle

177
Q

what is the ethmoid bone

A

It is situated at the roof of the nasal cavity, and between the two orbital cavities. It contributes to the medial wall of the orbit and forms part of the anterior cranial fossa, where it separates the nasal cavity (inferiorly) from the cranial cavity (superiorly).

178
Q

what are the conchae - turbinate

A
  • any of the scrolled spongy bones of the nasal passages in vertebrates.
  • In humans, the conchae divide the nasal airway into 4 groove-like air passages,
  • responsible for forcing inhaled air to flow in a steady, regular pattern around the largest possible surface area of nasal mucosa.
179
Q

what are the meatus

A

passage or opening
- three meatuses (passages) through the skull’s nasal cavity: the superior meatus (meatus nasi superior), middle meatus (meatus nasi medius), and inferior meatus (meatus nasi inferior).

180
Q

name the paranasal sinuses

A

frontal
ethmoid
maxillary
sphenoidal

181
Q

nasal cavity communicating structures

A

Pharyngotympanic tube (eustachian tube)
- connects nasal cavity to the middle ear
Nasolacrimal duct (tear duct)
- connects lacrimal sac to nasal cavity

182
Q

what are the parts of the pharynx

A 
Nasopharynx 
-	choanae > soft palate
Oropharynx
-	posterior opening of oral cavity > epiglottis
Laryngopharynx 
-	laryngeal inlet > oesophagus
Soft palate “flutter valve”
Pharyngotympanic tube opens into nasopharynx
183
Q

constrictor muscles of the pharynx

A
  • pharyngeal tubercle
  • superior constrictor
  • middle constrictor
  • inferior constrictor
  • stylopharyngeus
  • pharyngeal raphe
  • oesophagus
184
Q

what are the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx

A

Move pharyngeal wall up and over bolus of food being moved through the pharynx

  • salpingopharyngeus
  • palatopharyngeus
  • stylopharyngeus
185
Q

the pharynx innervation

A
  • pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve (X)

- glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) to stylopharyngeus

186
Q

what are the cartilaginous structures within the larynx

A 
o	thyroid cartilage T
o	cricoid cartilage C
o	arytenoid cartilage x 2 A
o	Epiglottis E
-	T, C and A are HYALINE cartilage
-	E is ELASTIC FIBROCARTILAGE
187
Q

what does the epiglottis do

A

Closes over entrance to the larynx to stop food/ liquid entering during swallowing

188
Q

the larynx structure - what membrane and what ligaments

A

Thyrohyoid membrane

  • Tough fibro-elastic ligament
  • Superior margin of thyroid cartilage > hyoid bone

Cricotracheal ligament

  • Lower border of cricoid cartilage > upper border of 1st tracheal cartilage
  • Fibrous membrane between tracheal cartilage

Cricothyroid Ligament

  • Cricoid cartilage > thyroid and arytenoid cartilages
  • Free upper margin = vocal ligament
189
Q

muscles of the larynx

A

Cricothyroid muscle

  • Lengthens vocal folds
  • External laryngeal nerve (branch of the superior laryngeal nerve)

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles

  • Primary abductors of vocal folds (open vocal folds)
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

  • Adductors of vocal folds (close the vocal folds)
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve
190
Q

innervation of the larynx

A 
Sensory above vocal folds
-	L & R superior laryngeal nerves (internal branch)
Sensory below vocal folds
-	L & R recurrent laryngeal nerves
All motor innervation
-	L & R recurrent laryngeal nerves
Except cricothyroid
-	L & R superior laryngeal nerves (external branch)
191
Q

the trachea

A
  • Continuous with the larynx
  • Walls are held open by C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage
    o Incomplete posteriorly to allow food to travel down the oesophagus
192
Q

histology of the upper respiratory tract in general

A
  • Most of the upper respiratory tract is covered in pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium (“respiratory epithelium”)
  • Goblet Cells (G) – produce mucus to trap foreign particles
  • Cilia ( C) – beat to transport mucus out of the respiratory system
193
Q

trachea histology

A
  • Respiratory epithelium
  • Cartilage ring (c )
  • Trachealis muscle (T)
  • Mucosa (M)
  • Longitudinal muscle (L)
194
Q

primary bronchiole histology

A
  • Respiratory epithelium (RE)
  • Cartilage (c )
  • Mucous/ serous glands (G)
  • Elastic lamina propria (LP)
  • Smooth muscle (M)
  • Ciliated epithelial cells (CC)
195
Q

bronchiole histology

A
  • <1mm lumen
  • Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium > ciliated columnar epithelium
  • NO glands
  • NO cartilage
  • Smooth muscle (M)
196
Q

alveoli histology

A
  • Simple squamous epithelium
  • Alveolus (A)
  • Alveolar duct (AD)
  • Alveolar sac (AS)
  • Bronchiole (R)
  • Type I pneumocyte (P1)
  • Type II pneuomocyte (P2)
  • Capillary (C)
  • Red blood cell (RBC)
197
Q

attachments of the shoulder and what kind of joint is it

A 
Attachment between the trunk and the upper limb
-	Proximally – pectoral girdle
o	Scapula + clavicle
-	Distally – humerus
Synovial joint – ball and socket joint
198
Q

describe the structure and articulation of the scapula

A
  • Complex bone
  • Suspended by soft tissues
  • Directly articulated with humerus – glenohumeral joint
  • Articulates with trunk via clavicle only
  • Triangular – 3 angles, 3 borders
  • 3 fossae for muscle attachment
199
Q

state the attachments and, ends and surfaces of the clavicle

A
  • Relatively simple bone
  • Only bony attachment between trunk and upper limb
  • 2 ends
    o Medial, or ‘sternal’
    o Lateral, or ‘acromial’
  • 2 surfaces – superior + inferior
200
Q

describe the structure, and surfaces of the proximal humerus

A
  • Long bone of the arm
  • Rounded head
  • Neck
    o Anatomical
    o Surgical
  • Irregular surfaces for muscle attachment
    o Tubercle from ‘tuber’ – swelling
201
Q

describe the joint between the scapula and clavicle - what kind, functions etc

A
  • Synovial joint between acromion and lateral end of clavicle
  • Bound together by ligaments
  • For stability
  • Several small groups…
    o Named for features they connect
    o Eg. Coraco-acromial ligament
202
Q

glenohumeral joint - what is it formed by, what muscles support it, how does it facilitate movement

A
  • Glenoid fossa of scapula and head of humerus
  • Primarily supported by musculature
    o Rotator cuff, deltoid
  • Facilitates high degree of movement
  • Capsule has ‘free’ tissue to aid movement
203
Q

what are the movements of the shoulder?

A 
Broad range of movements
o	Flexion/ extension
o	Abduction/ adduction
o	Medial (internal) rotation/ lateral (external) rotation
o	Circumduction
Second set of associated movements increases range of motion
-	Scapular movements
o	Elevation/ depression
o	Protraction/ retraction
o	rotation
204
Q

the hip - function, attachments, what type of joint

A
  • articulation between the trunk and the lower limb
  • major biomechanical structure
    o transfers weight of body to lower limb
    o facilitates bipedal locomotion
  • proximally > pelvic girdle
  • Distally > proximal femur
  • Synovial ball-and-socket joint
205
Q

what is the pelvic girdle - what joints does it contain

A
  • Tightly bound complex – ‘hip bones’ and sacrum
    o ‘hip bones’ = innominate or ‘os coxa”
  • Three joints within the pelvic girdle
    o 2x sacroiliac joints
    o Pubic symphysis
  • Only one innominate is directly involved in each hip joint
206
Q

whats the innominate

A
  • Oddly shaped bone
  • Formed from 3 separate bones in childhood
    o Ilium
    o Ischium
    o Pubis
  • Fuse together in teenage years
  • Retain independent identity in adulthood
207
Q

describe the proximal femur - where does it join, describe the ends

A
  • Longest (and strongest) bone in body
  • Bony support for the thigh
  • Joins the hip joint superiorly to knee joint inferiorly
  • Similarities to humerus
  • Elongated proximal end
  • Flattened, widened distal end
208
Q

the hip joint - what type of joint, what does it join together, what ligaments are involved, whats it functions

A
  • Synovial ball and socket
  • Tight articulation between the acetabulum and head of femur
    o Structures grow together during childhood
    o Bone stability high
  • Reinforced by ligaments
    o Extrascapular
    o Intrascapular
  • Designed to reduce force needed to stand upright
  • Support weakest when flexed and medially rotated
209
Q

movements of the hip

A
  • Similar no. to the shoulder
  • Mobility greatly reduced
  • Preferential selection for stability instead
  • Movements include
    o Flexion/ extension
    o Abduction/ adduction
    o Medial/ lateral rotation
    o Circumduction
210
Q

the elbow - what does it join together, what different joints does it contain

A
  • Articulation between the arm and forearm
  • Complex arrangement
    o Contains 3 separate joints
  • Proximal – distal humerus
  • Distal
    o Ulna (medial)
    o Radius (lateral)
  • Synovial joint
  • Hinge
211
Q

the distal humerus - describe it’s shape, what are its articular surfaces, how many depressions does it have

A
  • Broad, flattened articular region
  • 2 articular surfaces
    o Trochlea – for ulna
    o Capitulum – for radius
  • 3 depressions to allow bones to ‘tuck in’ together
212
Q

bones of the forearm

A

Ulna – medial
o Longer with relatively thin diaphysis
o Expanded proximal and at elbow

Radius – lateral
o Shorter and broader
o Cylindrical proximally
o Expanded distal end at wrist

213
Q

the elbow joint - what kind of joint, and what are the 3 joint and where are these joints located

A
  • Synovial hinge – limited movement
  • 3 joints at ‘elbow’
    o Humerus – ulna (‘main’ elbow articulation)
    o Humerus – radius
    o Radius – ulna (proximal radio-ulnar joint)
  • Stabilised by bony articulation
  • Ligaments provide additional support
214
Q

what are the movements at the elbow

A 
-	Movements are simple
o	Flexion
o	Extension
-	Approx. 140 degrees motion
-	Minimal hyperextension
o	Movement restricted by olecranon process
215
Q

movements at the radioulnar joints

A
  • Proximal and distal radioulnar joints
  • Supported by ligaments
  • Radius and ulna connected by interosseous membrane
  • Facilitates ‘twisting’ movements
  • Pronation/ supnation
    o Crossing radius over ulna
216
Q

what are the bones in the hand

A 
-	3 stes of bones
o	Proximally – 8 carpal bones
o	Centrally – 5 metacarpal bones
o	Distally – 14 phalanges
	Arranged in 3 rows
-	Complex set of joints and movements
217
Q

the wrist joint - what bones does it join, what type of joint

A
  • Between radius and 2 carpals proximally
    o Scaphoid
    o Lunate
  • Synovial ellipsoid joint
  • Supported by ligaments and surrounding muscles
218
Q

wrist movements

A
  • highly mobile
  • complex range of movements
  • flexion/ extension
  • abduction/ adduction
  • circumduction
219
Q

the knee - what parts of the leg does it join, what bones articulate here, what kind of joint

A
  • Articulation between the thigh and leg
  • 3 bones articulate here
    o Proximal – distal femur
    o Centrally – patella (sesamoid)
    o Distal – tibia
  • The fibula in the leg does not form part of knee joint
  • Modified hinge joint
220
Q

the distal femur

A
  • Broad, flattened articular region
  • Approximately triangular in shape
  • Articular condyle forms ‘V’ shape
    o Medial and lateral condyles
    o Small notch anteriorly for patella
221
Q

what are the 2 bones of the lower leg - describe them

A 
-	Tibia – medial 
o	Broad, robust bone
o	Flattened proximal surface
o	Triangular cross-section
-	Fibula – lateral
o	Very long and thin
o	Irregularly shaped
o	Does not articulate as part of the knee
222
Q

the knee joint - what kind of joint, what ligaments are involved

A
  • Synovial hinge – limited movement
  • Modified hinge
    o Also permits rotational movements
  • Supported extensively by ligaments
    o Collateral ligaments
    o Cruciate ligaments
    o Menisci
223
Q

movements of the knee

A 
-	Primary movements are simple
o	Flexion
o	Extension
-	Approx.. 130 – 150 degrees motion
-	Patella facilitates movement
o	Alters line of action of thigh muscles
224
Q

whats the purpose of knee ‘lock’ and describe the actions that facilitate this

A
  • Increases stability
  • Reduces energy required to remain upright
  • 2 descriptions
    o Medial rotation of femur on tibia
    o Lateral rotation of tibia on femur
  • Some active rotation also possible during knee flexion
225
Q

bones in the foot

A 
-	Similar to hand
o	7 tarsals
o	5 metatarsals
o	14 phalanges
	Same no. and dist. As hand
226
Q

the ankle - what joints are involved, what ligaments are involved

A
  • ‘colloquial’ ankle – 3 separate group of joints
    o Talocrural joint – anatomical ankle
    o Subtalar joint
    o Transverse tarsal joints
  • Permit different types of movements
  • Held together by medial and lateral collateral ligaments
227
Q

the ankle movements - what joints permit what movements

A 
Talocrural Joint
-	Hinge joint
-	Flexion/ extension only
-	Plantarflexion/ dorsiflexion
Subtalar and transverse tarsal joints
-	‘twisting’ movements of foot
-	Inversion and eversion
No rotation
228
Q

musculature of the limbs - how are muscles organised and why are they organised like this

A
  • Joints of the limbs each have unique requirements
  • One movement = one muscle is impractical and inefficient
  • A complex range of muscle are present in each limb
  • Each indiv. Muscle may
    o Contribute to a number of separate movements
    o Affect movements across multiple joints
    o Work in combination with others to produce movements
229
Q

compartmentalisation - what does each compartment tell us

A
  • Simplifying concept
  • Indiv. Muscles are arranged in groups
  • Each grup has a similar set of properties
    o Position in body
    o Type of movement initiated
    o Innervation
    o Blood supply
230
Q

compartments in practice - how many compartments in upper and lower limbs

A
  • Each limb segment contains a number of diff. compartments
    o Girdles and extremities are a little unique due to complex movement
  • Upper limb segments – 2 compartments
  • Lower limb segments – 3 compartments
231
Q

upper limb compartments in arm and forearm - what action does each compartment facilitate

A

Arm

  • Anterior > flexion of elbow
  • Posterior > extension of elbow

Forearm

  • Anterior > flexion of wrist
  • Posterior > extension of wrist
232
Q

lower limb compartments in thigh and leg - what action does each compartment facilitate

A 
Thigh 
-	Anterior > flexion of hip, extension of knee
-	Posterior > extension of hip, flexion of knee
-	Medial > adduction of hip
Leg
-	Anterior > dorsiflexion of foot
-	Posterior > plantarflexion of foot
-	Lateral > eversion of foot
233
Q

shoulder - what kind of joint,, what does this joint articulate, what supporting structures are involved

A

Shoulder = glenohumeral joint
- Articulation between head of humerus and glenoid fossa
- Projections over the joint provide anchor points for supporting structures
o Coracoid process
o Acromion

234
Q

glenohumeral joint - what provides stability for this joint

A

o Bones
o Ligaments
o Muscles (rotator cuff)
o Tendons

235
Q

ligaments involved in the shoulder

A
  • Multi-axial, synovial ball and socket joint
  • Main supporting ligaments
    o Glenohumeral ligaments
    o Coracohumeral ligament
    o Transverse humeral ligament
    o Coracoacromial ligament
236
Q

glenoid labrum - where and function

A
  • Intracapsular structure lining margin of glenoid cavity
  • Improves joint fit
  • Triangular fibrocartilage
237
Q

muscles in the rotator cuff and what are their functions

A

4 muscles…

  • Subscapularis > medial rotation
  • Supraspinatus > abduction
  • Infraspinatus > lateral rotation
  • Teres Minor > Lateral rotation
238
Q

deltoid - what are the different fibres and what movements do these diff. fibres facilitate, what is its origin, insertion and innervation

A
  • Multiple fibre directions produce different actions
    o Anterior = flexion and medial rotation
    o Posterior = extension
    o Middle = abduction
  • Origin = lateral 1/3 clavicle and scapula
  • Insertion = deltoid tuberosity
  • Innervation = axillary nerve
239
Q

pectoralis major - describe it’s shape, actions, origin, insertion, innervation

A
  • Large fan-shaped muscle on anterior chest wall
  • Actions (on humerus)
    o Flexion
    o Adduction
    o Internal rotation
  • Origin = clavicle and sternum
  • Insertion = intertubercular groove
  • Innervation = medial and lateral pectoral
240
Q

trapezius - describe its shape, actions, origin, insertion, innervation

A
  • Large, superficial muscle of the back
  • Actions (on scapula)
    o Elevation
    o Depression
    o Rotation
    o Retraction
  • Origin = occipital bone, C7 – T12 vertebrae
  • Insertion = lateral 1/3 clavicle, scapula
  • Innervation = accessory nerve
241
Q

anterior compartment of arm - what muscles, and what innervation

A 
-	Consists of…
o	Biceps brachii
	Long head
	Short head
o	Brachialis 
o	Coracobrachialis
-	Innervation
o	Musculocutaneous nerve
242
Q

posterior compartment of the arm - what muscles, and what innervation

A 
-	Compromised of one muscle
o	Triceps brachi
	Long head
	Medial head
	Lateral head
-	Innervation
o	Radial nerve
243
Q

what are the ligaments of the elbow

A
  • The fibrous membrane of the joint capsule is thickened on the medial and lateral aspects to form COLLATERAL LIGAMENTS
  • The ANNULAR LIGAMENT helps maintain contact of the radial head with the radial notch and CAPITULUM during PRONATION AND SUPNATION
244
Q

what are the pronators and supnators at the elbow

A 
Pronation and supination occur at the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints
-	Supinators
o	Biceps brachii
o	Supinator
-	Pronators
o	Pronator teres
o	Pronator quadratus
245
Q

posterior and anterior compartments of the forearm - are the muscles in each extensors or flexors and what is their nerve supply

A 
Anterior compartment
-	Flexors
o	Common origin = medial epicondyle
-	Primary nerve supply = Median (incl. some ulnar)
Posterior compartment
-	Extensors
o	Common origin = lateral epicondyle
-	Nerve supply = radial
246
Q

anterior compartment of the forearm - muscle layers

A

3 layers of muscles

  • Superficial layer = 4 muscles
  • Intermediate layer = 1 muscle
  • Deep layer = 3 muscles
247
Q

carpal tunnel - what does it contain, what makes up its floor and roof

A
  • Osseo-fibrous tunnel
  • Compact space containing:
    o 9 tendons
    o Median nerve
  • Floor = carpal arch
  • Roof = flexor retinaculum
248
Q

arterial blood supply to the upper limb - what arteries, what’s it’s origin and termination

A
  • Common vessel that changes in size and name based on region
  • Main divisions
    o Subclavian
    o Axillary
    o Brachial
    o Radial
    o Ulnar
    o Palmar arches
  • Origin = arch of aorta
  • Termination = palmar arches in the hand
249
Q

subclavian artery - what are it’s 2 origins, where does it terminate and what divides it

A
  • Major paired arteries
  • Different origins depending on side
    o Right side – arises at bifurcation of innominate artery
    o Left side – arises directly from the arch of the aorta
  • Both sides terminate at lateral border of 1st rib, becoming the axillary artery
  • Divided into 3 parts by anterior scalene muscle
250
Q

axillary artery - what’s it’s journey and landmarks and what divides it

A
  • Continuous with the subclavian artery
  • Runs through axilla
  • Runs from lateral border of 1st rib to inferior border of teres major
  • Divided into 3 parts by pectoralis minor muscle
251
Q

brachial artery - what’s it’s pathway and where does it bifurcate

A
  • Continuation of the axillary artery beyond teres major
  • Closely related to the median nerve
  • Bifurcates into the radial and ulnar arteries around the neck of the radius
252
Q

radial artery - where does it arise, where does it run through, where does it terminate

A
  • arises from brachial artery around neck of radius
  • runs through the anatomical snuffbox
  • terminates in hand contributing to palmar arches
    o primarily to the deep palmar arch
253
Q

what 2 arteries are useful for finding the pulse

A

brachial and radial

254
Q

ulnar artery - where does it arise, where does it terminate

A
  • arises from brachial artery around neck of radius
  • larger than the radial artery
  • terminates in hand contributing to palmar arches, primarily to superficial palmar arch
  • not easily palpable
255
Q

palmar arches

A
  • superficial and deep branches of the radial and ulnar arteries give rise to the arches
256
Q

venous drainage of the arm

A
  • deep veins follow the arteries
  • superficial veins drain into a dorsal venous network on back of hand
  • cephalic vein drains lateral side of forearm to axillary vein via median cubital vein
  • basilic drains median side of forearm to axillary vein
257
Q

brachial plexus - where does it arise, what is it

A
  • complex nerve bundle innervating the upper limb
  • arises from anterior rami of spinal nerves C5-T1
  • highly organised plexus
258
Q

musculocutaneous nerve - what is it a branch of, what does it pierce, what muscles does it pass between, where does it terminate

A
  • a large terminal branch of the lateral cord
  • pierces coracobrachialis
  • passes between biceps and brachialis
  • innervates all 3 (BBC)
  • Terminates as the lateral cutaneous nerve pf the forearm
259
Q

median nerve - what’s it derived from, what does it innervate, passes through carpal tunnel

A
  • Large nerve derived of anterior cords
  • Primary innervator of flexor compartment of forearm
  • Passes through carpal tunnel
  • Wide motor and sensory dist. In the hand
260
Q

ulnar nerve - what does it derive from, where does it travel, what does it innervate

A
  • Derived primarily from medial cord
  • Courses medially within the arm and forearm
  • Passes posterior to medial epicondyle
  • Innervates 1 ½ muscles within forearm
  • Primary innervator within the hand
261
Q

axillary nerve - what’s it a branch of, what does it pass through, what does it innervate

A
  • A branch of the posterior cord
  • Passes through quadrangular space
  • Innervates deltoid and teres minor muscles
  • Provides sensory innervation to patch on lateral arm
262
Q

radial nerve - where does it arise, where does it run through, what does it innervate

A
  • Largest nerve of brachial plexus
  • Arises as the terminal branch of the posterior cord
  • Runs within the spiral groove of the arm
  • Provides motor and sensory innervation to all post. Compartments of the upper limb
263
Q

hip joint - whats the other name for this joint and what bones is it made up of

A

acetabulofemoral joint

  • ischium
  • ilium
  • pubis
264
Q

what is the articular surface of the hip joint

A

acetabulum

265
Q

centre of gravity - what ligament is involved

A
  • The iliofemoral ligament is tight during standing
  • No muscles are required to keep your hip stable
  • So you can stand for a long time
266
Q

muscles in the hip - flexors, extensors, abductors, adductors, lateral rotators

A

Flexors

  • Iliopsoas (Ant.)
  • Pectineus (med.)
  • Sartorios (ant.)
  • Rectus femoris (ant.)
Extensors - Hamstring
-	Biceps femoris (long and short head)
-	Semitendinosus
-	semimembranosus 
Gluteus maximus

Abductors

  • gluteus Medius
  • gluteus minimus

Adductors

  • adductor longus
  • gracilis
  • adductor brevis
  • adductor magnus

Lateral rotators

  • piriformis
  • quadratus femoris
  • gemelli (sup. An inf.)
  • obturator internus
267
Q

what are the femoral triangle boundaries

A
  • superior border > inguinal ligament
  • medial border > medial border of adductor longus
  • lateral border > medial border of sartorius
268
Q

what are the femoral triangle contents

A
  • femoral nerve
  • lymphatics in femoral canal
  • femoral artery
  • femoral vein
269
Q

bones in the knee region

A
  • femur
  • tibia
  • fubula
  • patella
270
Q

bones involved in the knee joint

A
  • femur
  • tibia
  • patella
271
Q

bones involved in the tibiofibular joint

A
  • tibia

- fibula

272
Q

patella - what facets foes it have, what kind of bone is it

A
  • medial and lateral facets
  • apex
    o example of a sesamoid bone (bone formed within tendon)
273
Q

the knee joint - what kind of joint, what movements

A
  • synovial modified hinge joint
  • mainly flexion/ extension
  • also slight rotation for ‘locking’
274
Q

extra-capsular ligaments of the knee joint

A 
Joint capsule is reinforced by extracapsular ligaments 
-	medial (tibial) collateral ligament
o	flat
o	part of joint capsule
-	Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament
o	Cord-like
o	Separate to capsule

These ligaments tighten in knee extension, loosen in flexion

275
Q

intracapsular ligaments of the knee joint

A

Anterior cruciate ligament
- Prevents anterior tibial translation
Posterior cruciate ligaments
- Prevents posterior tibial translation

276
Q

fibrocartilaginous menisci of the knee joint

A
  • Medial meniscus

- Lateral meniscus

277
Q

anterior compartment of the thigh - what movement and what muscles

A 
-	Mainly extension
o	Quadriceps femoris
	Vastus medialis
	Vastus intermedius
	Vastis lateralis
	Rectus femoris
o	Sartorius
278
Q

posterior compartment of the thigh - what movement and what muscles

A 
-	Flexion and ‘unlocking’
o	Hamstrings
	Biceps femoris
	Semimembranosus
	Semitendinosus
o	Gastrocnemius

(unlocking – lateral rotation of femur on tibia)
- Popliteus

279
Q

ankle joint - whats its other name, what ligaments stabilise it, what bones are involved

A
  • talocrucial joint
  • JOINT IS STABILISED BY MEDIAL AND LATERAL LIGAMENTS
    bones involved
  • fibula, tibia, talus
280
Q

movements at the ankle and stability of the ankle

A

MOVEMENTS AT THE ANKLE JOINT
True Hinge Joint
- Dorsiflexion
- Plantarflexion

Movements of eversion and inversion do NOT take place at the ankle joint
- They occur between tarsal bones in the foot

STABILITY OF THE ANKLE
- Shape of the bones at the ankle joint mean that it is far more stable in dorsiflexion than in plantarflexion

281
Q

what muscles move the ankle and their associated movements

A

Plantarflexion

  • Plantaris
  • Soleus
  • Gastrocnemius

Dorsiflexion
- Tibialis anterior

282
Q

innervation of the lower limb - what plexus and what vertebrae does this plexus arise from, what 3 major nerves arise from this plexus, branches of one of these nerves

A

Lumbosacral Plexus > T12-S3/4

3 Major nerves originating from lumbosacral plexus

  • Femoral
  • Sciatic
  • Obturator

Sciatic nerve branches in popliteal fossa into

  • Tibial nerve
  • Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
283
Q

blood supply to the lower limb - pathway of blood

A

Common iliac artery > external iliac artery > femoral artery

Femoral artery passes through the adductor hiatus > popliteal artery

Popliteal artery > anterior and posterior tibial arteries

Anterior tibial artery > dorsalis pedis
Posterior tibial artery > fibular artery, circumflex fibular artery

year 2 sem 1 (13 decks)

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