Anatomy - Theory Flashcards
1
Q
The outer material of bones is different to the inner material, what are each called and how are they different?
A
- Outer cortex - dense, strong, heavy, compacted
- Inner medulla - porous, lightweight, weaker
2
Q
What is the name of the bone within the medulla?
A
Trabecular/cancellous bone
3
Q
How does cancellous bone compensate for weaker areas?
A
The structure is organised with more “struts” in areas where more pressure is applied
4
Q
Where are the areas where bone marrow is likely to be found?
A
- Hip bone 2. Sternum 3. Ribs 4. Vertebrae 5. Cancellous regions of the femurand humerus
5
Q
What is the function of bone marrow?
A
To produce red and white blood cells
6
Q
What is the periosteum?
A
A dense envelope of connective tissue which surrounds bones, yet avoids joints and tendon articulations
7
Q
During a fracture, why is the periosteum responsible for much of the pain?
A
It is well vascularised and innervated (also contains lymph vessels - but these don’t contribute to pain)
8
Q
Where do nutrient vessels enter the periosteum?
A
Near the middle of the bone These vessels them ramify and continue through the inner medulla
9
Q
Describe the process of endochondral ossification
A
Process by which a small hyaline cartilage piece grows and ossifies into bone. A capillary bud initiates the ossification by creating the primary ossification centre and entering the bone
10
Q
How many primary ossification centres do long bones have?
A
1
11
Q
What are the 4 different parts of a long bone?
A
Epiphysis - rounded end Epiphyseal growth plate - hyaline cartilage plate between metaphysis and epiphysis Metaphysis - part of growth plate leding to epiphysis Diaphysis - middle section of bone
12
Q
What are the 5 different classifications of bone?
A
- Long bones - long and hollow 2. Flat bones - protective 3. Irregular bones - strangely shaped 4. Sesamoid bones - present within tendons 5. Shorts bones - cuboid shapes
13
Q
How do fractures heal?
A
Weak collagen, cartilage and bony material - collectively called callus - surrounds the fracture The callus proceeds to remodel the bone to a normal shape
14
Q
In what ways can a bone’s shape be influenced?
A
- Functional - due to genetics 2. Adjacent structures apply a force 3. Bone must grow around another structure
15
Q
What is a tubercle?
A
A bump/small rounded area
16
Q
What is a condyle?
A
A large rounded surface at the end of some bones
17
Q
What is a fossa?
A
A small depression or hole
18
Q
Which three fossae are present in the neurocranium?
A
- Anterior cranial 2. Middle cranial 3. Posterior cranial
19
Q
What are foramina?
A
Holes for cranial nerves and blood vessels to pass through
20
Q
What is the axial part of the skeleton?
A
The central skeleton
21
Q
What is the appendicular skeleton?
A
Comprised of offshoots from the axial skeleton such as arms/legs/pelvic/pectoral girdles
22
Q
What are Le Fort fractures?
A
There are three types and all involve different sections of the facial skeleton coming separated from the main skull
23
Q
How many bones make up the vertebral column?
A
33
24
Q
What are the five different categories of bones in the vertebral column and how many bones are in each category?
A
Cervical - 7 (C1-C7) Thoracic - 12 (T1-T12) Lumbar - 5 (L1-L5) Sacral - 5 (fused together) Coccygeal - 4 (fused together, forming coccyx)
25
What is the distinction between primary and secondary curves of the spine?
There are 4 curve - 2 point outwards, 2 point inwards Primary point out Secondary point in
26
Within a vertebral body, what is the function of the vertebral arch?
To protect spinal cord Formed of 2 x lamina and 2 x pedicle
27
What can emerge from an intervertebral formamen?
Spinal nerves
28
Where do facet joints form?
Between two articular processes of two adjacent vertebral bodies
29
All cervical vertebrae have ___ transverse foraminae for allowing passage of _________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Two Vertebral arteries
30
Why is C1 (atlas) unique?
It has no body or spinous process Instead it has posterior and anterior arches
31
Why is C2 (axis) unique?
It has an odontoid process (dens) which articulates with C1 and allows for head rotation
32
Why is C7 (vertebrae prominens) special?
It is (usually) the first spinous process that can be palpated
33
How many pairs of ribs exist?
12
34
What are the three categories of ribs?
1. True ribs - articulate directly to sternum 2. False ribs - articulate to sternum via coastal cartilage 3. Floating ribs - do not articulate to sternum
35
Which ribs are the true ribs?
Pairs 1-7
36
Which ribs are the false ribs?
Pairs 8-10
37
Which ribs are the floating ribs?
Pairs 11-12
38
Why is rib 1 less likely to fracture?
It is protected by the sternum
39
What composes the pectoral girdle?
2 scapulae, 2 clavicles
40
What composes the pelvic girdle
2 hip bones and the sacrum
41
What is the most proximal bone in the arm?
Humerus
42
What are the names of the two more distal bones in the arm?
Radius (more lateral) and ulna (more medial)
43
What three types of bones make up the hand?
Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
44
What is the largest bone in the leg?
Femur
45
What are the two long bones in the lower leg?
Tibia (more medial) and fibula (more lateral)
46
What three types of bones make up the foot?
Tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges
47
What are four functions of bone?
1. Support and protection
2. Calcium metabolism
3. Red blood cell formation
4. Provides and area for skeletal muscle attachment
48
What are three functions for cartilage?
1. Flexibility
2. Shock absorber
3. Provide motility in joints where it is required
49
What is the name of the joint between the clavicle and the acromium process of the scapula?
Acromioclavicular joint
50
What are the three classes of joints?
1. Fibrous
2. Cartilaginous
3. Synovial
51
Fibrous joints have the primary function of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Stability
52
There are two types of fibrous joint, what are they?
1. Syndesmoses
2. Sutures
53
What are syndesmoses?
Fibrous joints
Unites bones with a fibrous sheet such as the interosseous membrane between the fubula and tibia
54
What are sutures?
Fibrous joints
Found between bones in the skull
55
During infancy, what are in place of sutures in the skull?
Fontanelles
Soft and membranous wide sutures
There are anterior, posterior and lateral fontanelles and allow the bones to slide over eachother during birth
56
What are cartilaginous joints?
These are joints with a balance between stability and mobility
They are composed of cartilage
57
What are cells of cartilage called?
Chondrocytes
58
What are the two types of cartilaginous joint called?
1. Primary - synchondroses - growth plates
2. Secondary - symphyses
59
What are synchondroses?
Primary cartilaginous joints
Consist of a plate of hyaline cartilage allowing for bone growth by ossification
60
What are symphyses?
Secondary cartilaginous joints
Very strong and act as cushioning
They are fibrocartilage - a hybrid of firbrous and cartilaginous tissue
61
What is the inside of a intervertebral disc called?
Nucleus pulposus
62
What is the outside of the intervertebral disc called?
Annulus fibrosus
63
Why can a slipped disc cause pain in the legs?
Herniation of the disc may occur, which involves fluid contacting the spinal nerves causing leg pain
64
Where are synovial joints present?
Where two or more bones come together
65
How is a synovial joint structures around bone?
The joint will encapsulate bone from each side which forms a central joint cavity that contains synovial fluid for cushioning
66
What are bursae?
Fluid filled sacs around synovial joints that reduce friction
67
What are the five types of synovial joints?
1. Pivot
2. Balla and socket
3. Plane (uniaxial)
4. Hinge
5. Biaxial
68
Whata re the two types of biaxial synovial joint?
* Saddle - i.e. between trpezium and metacarpal I
* Condylar - i.e. between metacarpal and phalangeal joints
Condylar - oval surface articulating within a concave surface prevents full ball and socket type movement
69
Of the three main joint types which is the most stable and which has highest motility?
Most stable - Fibrous
Most mobile - Synovial
70
What is a slipped disc?
Articular surfaces are still in their normal anatomical relationship
71
What is subluxation?
There is recuced contact area between articular surfaces and they are slightly out of position
72
What is a dislocation?
There is complete loss of contact between articular surfaces - the bones are completely out of position
73
What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?
Synovial
74
The temporomandibular joint is an articulation between the _________ \_\_\_\_\_\_ and the _________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (of the temporal bone) with the head of the _________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the mandible
Mandibular fossa
Articular tubercle
Condylar process
75
What are the three different types of muscle?
1. Cardiac
2. Smooth
3. Skeletal
76
Skeletal muscle is made up of many __________ which are made up of many muscle fibres which are made up of ____________ which are composed of _______ and _________ fibres within functionla units called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Fascicles
Myofibrils
Actin and myosin
Sarcomeres
77
What is the difference between a sprain and a strain?
Muscles strain - think straining to lift a weight
Ligaments sprain - think sprained ankle - ankle has lots of ligaments and little muscle
78
In order to make a joint move, a muscle must do what?
Attach before and after the joint
79
What attaches muscle to bone?
Tendons
80
In releation to a muscle what are its "origin" and "insertion"?
Origin - this is where the beginning of the muscle attaches on one side of the joint
Insertion - this is where the end of the muscle will attach on the other side of the joint
81
What is an aponeurosis?
A flat tendon
(generally articulates with flat muscles and attaches to soft tissue rather than bone)
82
What movements does the deltoid muscle allow for?
1. Extension of shoulder - posterior fibres
2. Abduction of shoulder - middle fibres
3. Flexion of shoulder - anterior fibres
83
The shallow socket of the glenoid fossa allows for what of the shoulder?
Circumduction
84
What are reflexes?
Involuntary protective actions mediated by the nervous system
85
What are the two main reflexes in relation to skeletal muscles
* Stretch reflex
* Flexion withdrawal
86
Describe the reflex responsible for protecting against overstretching
Stretch reflex
Stretch to muscle by action on tendon causing contraction
The reflex arc will bypass the brain
87
What is paralysis?
A muscle without a functioning motor nerve - muscle has reduced tone
88
What is spasticity?
Motor nerve is intact, descending controls from brain do not function so inhibitory factors are gone meaning the muscle has increased reflex action that is not filtered or controlled
89
What is atrophy?
Muscle wastage
Myocytes become smaller reducing muscle bulk and strength
90
Why is hypertrophy?
Muscle enlargement
Myocytes increase in size
91
What is hyperplasia?
Increase in the number of cells
92
What is hypoplasia?
Decrease in the number of cells
93
In what layer of tissue are skeletal muscles found?
Deep fascia
94
What is a septum?
A partion separating two compartments
95
How many compartments are in:
* The thigh
* The leg (calf)
* Arm
* Forearm
* The thigh - 3
* The leg (calf) - 3
* Arm - 2
* Forearm - 2
96
What is compartment syndrome?
Pressure can build within fascia formed compartments due to haemorrhage or fluid build up
This can affect the functioning of the muscles/nerves sue to pressure
The condition can be acute or chronic
97
What is the treatment for compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomy
Fascia is cut to relieve tension
98
What two components make up mucosa?
Epithelium and lamina propria
99
The upper and lower GI tract is separated by what?
Ileocecal junction
100
Which joint is most involved in chewing?
Temporomandibular joint
101
What is the collective name for the muscles involved in chewing?
Muscles of mastication
102
Which muscles are in control of closing the mouth?
Temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid
103
Opening the mouth is controlled by which muscle?
Lateral pterygoid
104
What is the name of the circular muscle surrounding the mouth?
Orbicularis oris
105
What are gingivae?
The area of the gums
106
What are papilla?
Finger-like projections on the surface of the tongue
107
What are the four types of papillae?
1. Foliate - edges of tongue (taste)
2. Vallate - large lumps to the back (taste)
3. Fungiform - visible all over (taste)
4. Filiform - very small (touch and temperature)
108
Which two classes of muscle is the tongue made up of?
1. Extrinsic - attaches tongue to skeleton to move it around during speech, swallowing and mastication (four pairs)
2. Intrinsic - allows the shape of the tongue to be changed (four pairs)
109
What is the main muscle associated with the cheek?
Buccinator
110
What are the 4 types of teeth present at adulthood?
1. Incisors
2. Canines
3. Premolars
4. Molars (includes wisdom teeth)
111
How many teeth are present at adulthood?
32
112
What are the three main types of salivary glands?
1. Parotid
2. Submandibular
3. Sublingual
113
Where does the parotid gland secrete saliva into the mouth?
By the upper second molar
114
Where does the sublingual gland secrete saliva?
In the floor of the mouth
| (saliva is secreted superiorly)
115
Where does the submandibular glands secrete saliva?
Base of the tongue at the point where the tongue joins the mouth floor
116
What three parts of the pharynx split?
1. Nasopharynx - posterior to nasal cavity
2. Oropharynx - posterior to oral cavity
3. Laryngopharynx - posterior to larynx
117
Tonsils produce _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_
White blood cells
118
The pharynx is composed of which three constrictor muscles?
1. Superior pharyngeal
2. Middle pharngeal
3. Inferior pharyngeal
(their purpose is to push food inferiorly towards the oesophagus)
119
Why is the larynx raised during aspiration?
To prevent the aspiration of food or unwanted material.
It move the laryngeal outlet away from the passage of food and the epiglottis will close the inlet
120
Where is the oesophagus located in relation to the trachea?
Posterior
121
The oesophagus pierces the diaphragm at which verebral level?
T10
122
What is the peritoneum?
A serous membrane which can secrete lubricating peritoneal fluid that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity
123
What are thw two types of peritoneum?
1. Visceral
2. Parietal
124
What is peritonitis?
Inflammation of the peritoneum
125
What is abdominal guarding?
A defence mechanism by which the muscles of the abdomen involuntarily contracts to provide organ protection
126
The stomach will pass its contents through the _________ into the small intestine
Duodenum
127
How is the small intestine joined to the body wall?
Via the mesentary
128
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunum
3. Ileum
129
What is the mesentary?
A double fold in the peritoneum involved in connecting intraperitoneal organs to the body wall
The space it creates between the folds allows for passage of neurovasculature
130
What are the three main functions of the large intestine?
1. Transit
2. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes
3. Stool formation
131
What are the 5 different areas to the large intestine?
1. Caecum
2. Ascending colon (retroperitoneal)
3. Transverse colon (intraperitoneal)
4. Descending colon (retroperitoneal)
5. Sigmoid colon (intraperitoneal)
132
The functions of the rectum and anus?
Stool formation
Waste excretion
133
Control of defecation is conferred by what?
Anal sphincter
| (voluntary control)
134
What is the name given to the process that moves contents distally in the GI tract?
Peristalsis
135
There are two types of muscle in the walls of the GI tract - these are?
* Longitudinal (outer layer) - shortens the tube
* Circular (inner layer) - constricts the diameter
136
In the stomach which type of mucosa exists?
Secretory mucosa
137
Sphincter muscles have what function?
Control flow of substances
| (through the GI tract)
138
Where is the cricopharyngeal sphincter muscle located?
Between the laryngopharynx and oesophagus - it prevents regurgitation
139
What is the name of the sphincter muscle between the stomach and duodenum called?
Pyloric sphincter
140
What are the names of the two sphincter muscles near the anus?
1. Internal sphincter
2. External (anal) sphincter
141
The abdominal organs are split into three parts, what are these three parts?
1. Foregut - oesophagus to mid-duodenum
2. Midgut - mid-duodenum to proximal 2/3rd of transverse colon - contains half of pancreas
3. Hindgut - distal 1/3rd of transverse colon to proximal 1/2 of anal canal - includes other half of the pancreas
142
The foregut, midgut and hindgut regions are each supplied by which branches of the ascnding aorta?
1. Foregut - splenic vein
2. Midgut - superior mesenteric vein
3. Hindgut - inferor mesenteric vein via splenic vein
143
The foregut, midgut and hind gut are each drain by different veins, what are these?
1. Foregut - splenic vein
2. Midgut - superior mesenteric vein
3. Hindgut - inferior mesenteric vein via splenic vein
144
The splenic and superior/inferior mesenteric arteries drain into which vein?
Hepatic portal vein
145
Hepatic veins in the liver drain into which vein?
Inferior vena cava
146
What are the two venous systems in the body?
Portal system - drains absorptive organs (associated with the liver via the HPV)
Systemic system - drains all body organs (includes blood from liver)
147
Where do foregut structures drain lymph?
Via nodes along the splenic artery towards coeliac nodes around the origin of the coeliac trunk
148
Where do midgut structures drain lymph?
Via nodes located along the superior mesenteric artery towards superior mesenteric nodes located around the origin of the superior mesenteric artery
149
Where do hindgut structures drain lymph?
Via nodes located along the inferior mesenteric artery towards the inferior mesenteric nodes which are located around the origin of the inferior mesenteric artery
150
Obstruction of the GI tract can be caused by which two factors?
External - compress the wall of the tract
Internal - obstruct the lumen e.g. tumour, foreign body etc
151
How does the GI tract respond to a blockage?
The action of peristalsis is increased
152
What are collections of nerve cell bodies called in the CNS and PNS respectively?
Nucleus
Ganglion
153
What are bundles of axons termed in the CNS and PNS respectively?
Tracts
Nerves
154
What are afferent neurones?
Sensory neurones that bring signal towards the CNS
155
What is the somatic nervous system?
The nervous system of the external environment (out with organs) and the body wall
156
What is the automonic nervous system?
The nervous system associated with the interal environment of organs
It is composed of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
157
What are the four lobes of the brain?
1. Frontal
2. Parietal
3. Occipital
4. Temporal
158
What are gyri and sulci?
The outmost layer of brain tissue - the cerebral neocortex - is covered in lumps (gyri) and crevices (sulci)
159
The cerebellum is associated with which aspects?
Motor control and coordination
160
What are the three fossae of the cranial cavity floor?
1. Anterior
2. Middle
3. Posterior
161
The brainstem exits through which foramen in the cranial cavity floor?
Foramen magnum
162
What is the role of the midbrain?
Vision and hearing
163
What is the general function of the medulla oblongata?
To aid vital functions
164
The spinal cord extends down to which vertebral level?
L2
165
What is the tip of the spinal cord called?
Conus medullaris
166
Nerves exit the conus medullaris inferiorly through filmants called what?
Cauda equina
167
How many pairs of bilateral spinal nerves will exit the spinal cord?
31
168
What are the name of the two enlargements in the spinal cord and where are they located?
1. Cervical enlargement - cervical region
2. Lubosacral enlargement - at the transition between the lumbar and sacral regions
169
Why are the two enlargements in the spinal cord required?
To accomodate extra neurones for the limbs
170
Where is white and grey hatter found in the brain?
White matter - inner area (contains myelinated axons)
Grey matter - outer area (full of cell bodies)
171
Where is white and grey matter found in the spinal cord?
White - outside
Grey - inside
172
What is the dorsal horn of a spinal nerve?
The is where sensory neurones come into the spinal cord
173
What is the ventral horn of a spinal nerve?
The area where motor cell bodies exist to send signals ut of the cord.
174
How are nerves composed?
Myelinated/non-myelinated fibres will group together and become surrounded by endoneurium
Perineurium groups many endoneurium groups together
Many perineurium strands are grouped together with fibrofatty tissue and blood vessels into an epineurium
175
What is the name of cranial nerve 1?
The olfactory nerve
176
The olfactory nerve (CN I) has which types of functionality?
Sensory
It contains sensory fibres related to smell
177
What is the name of cranial nerve 2?
The optic nerve
178
The optic nerve (CN II) has what functionality?
Sensory
Transmits visual information from the retina via sensory fibres
179
What is the name of cranial nerve 3?
Oculumotor nerve
180
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) has what functionality?
Motor
Involved in innervating muscles that aid eye movement, eyelid movement, pupil dilation and accomodation (focussing)
181
What is the name of cranial nerve 4?
Trochlear nerve
182
What is the functionalty of the trochlear nerve (CN IV)?
Motor
Innervates the superior oblique muscle in the eye
183
What is the name of cranial nerve 5?
Trigeminal nerve
184
The trigeminal nerve (CN V) has what functionality?
Sensory and motor
It allows for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing
It has 3 divisions:
1. V1 - the ophthalmic nerve (sensory)
2. V2 - the maxillary nerve (sensory)
3. V3 - the mandibular nerve (sensory and motor)
185
What is the name of cranial nerve 6?
Abducent nerve
186
What is the functionality of the abducent nerve (CN VI)?
Motor
Controls the lateral rectus muscle in the eye
187
What is the name of cranial nerve 7?
Facial nerve
188
What is the functionality of the facial nerve (CN VII)?
Sensory and motor
Controls muscles of facial expression and transports taste signals from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue
189
What is the name of cranial nerve 8?
Vestibulocochlear nerve
190
What is the functionality of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)?
Sensory
Transports sound and balance information to the brain
191
What is the name of cranial nerve 9?
Glosspharyngeal nerve
192
What is the functionality of the glossopharyneal nerve (CN IX)?
Sensory and motor
Carries general sensory information from the skin of the external ear, internal surface of the tympanic membrane, the walls of the upper pharynx, and the posterior one-third of the tongue.
Parasympathetic component of the glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the ipsilateral parotid gland
193
What is the name of cranial nerve 10?
Vagus nerve
194
What is the functionality of the vagus nerve (CN X)?
Sensory and motor
Responsible for parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and digestive tract as well as other organs
It also innervates some skeletal muscle in the body
195
What is the name of cranial nerve 11?
Spinal accessory nerve
196
What is the functionality of the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)?
Motor
Supplies sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
197
What is the name of cranial nerve 12?
Hypoglossal nerve
198
What is the functionality of the hypoglossal nerve nerve (CN XII)
Motor
Innervates all extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus
199
What are foramina?
Areas where cranial nerves will exit the brain and pass out through the skull
200
What two components come together to form a spinal nerve?
1. The posterior rootlets of the dorsal horn
2. The anterior rootlets of the ventral horn
201
Where do spinal nerves lie?
In the intervertebral foramen
This is the space formed between two vertebrae which articulate together
202
What is the general type of functionality of any spinal nerve
Sensory and motor
203
What happens to a spinal nerve when it leaves the intervertebral foramen?
It will split into anterior and posterior rami (both of which are mixed nerves)
204
How many vertebrae are there?
33
205
How many spinal nerves are there?
31
206
How many spinal nerves comes from each region of the spinal cord?
* Cervical - 8
* Thoracic - 12
* Lumbar - 5
* Sacral - 5
There is also one coccygeal spinal nerve
207
If there are only 7 cervical vertebrae, how are there 8 associated spinal nerves?
Initially, each spinal nerve arises above the vertebra it is names after
The the thoracic region the spianl nerves are then names after the vertebra below
This means there is a space for the 8th cervical spinal nerve above T1 vertebra
208
What is a dermatome?
An area of skin supplied by one sensory axon of a spinal nerve fibre only
This will generally correspond to axial segments along the body length
209
Nerve plexuses are only formed by _______ rami
Anterior
210
What is a plexus?
An intertwining of anterior rami
211
Name some nerve plexuses in the body
* Cervical - C1-C4 anterior rami
* Brachial - C5-T1 anterior rami
* Lumbar - L1-L4 anterior rami
* Sacral - L5-S4 anterior rami
212
Where does the sypathetic nerve outflow arise between?
T1 and L2
213
Why does sympathetic outflow arise between T1 and L2?
These vertebrae have an additional horn - the lateral horn
This allows sympathetic axons to leave the spinal cord via ventral rootlets
214
How do parasympathetic axons leave the CNS?
* Cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X
* Sacral spainal nerves (craniosacral outflow)
215
The body wall is innervated by which types of neurones?
* Somatic sensory
* Somatic motor
216
Organs have which types of innervation?
* Visceral afferent (sensory)
* Sympathetic/parasympathetic (motor)
217
What are the two functional divisions of the nervous system?
* Somatic nervous system - body wall
* Autonomic nervous system - internal environment
218
What are nociceptors?
Receptors for pain
219
The somatic pathway for touch is a three neurone chain, describe it
1. First order neurone - delivers impulse form body wall to dorsal horn
2. Second order neurone - depending on sensation, the impulse will cross the spinal cord at different levels. Second order neurones run up the spinal cordand synpase again at the thalamus
3. Third oder neurone - travels to appropriate area of the cortex based on repose from thalamus
220
What is a dermatome?
An area of skin, usually an axial segment, supplied by one spinal nerve
221
The associated dematome of T10 is at what level on the body
Area of umbilicus
222
What are the four lobes of the cerebrum?
1. Occipital
2. Temporal
3. Parietal
4. Frontal
223
Which two parts compose the somatic motor pathway?
* Upper motor neurone
* Lower motor neurone
224
How does the motor pathway result in skeletal muscle movement?
* Voluntary intentions begin in the primary somatomotor cortex
* The action potential reaches the ventral horn of the spinal cord via the upper motor neurone
* The upper motor neurone then synapses with the lower motor neurone
* The AP continues along axons to reach the spinal nerve and continues to the anterior ramus
* The impulse continues through a plexus and finally the neuromuscular junction is reached for the specific muscle
225
Describe paralysis
The muscle is without a functioning lower motor neurone
The muscle has reduced tone and cannot contract
It is caused by a lower motor neurone lesion
226
Describe spasticity
Occurs due to an upper motor neurone lesion
Inhibitory signals can no longer be sent to calm down reflexes and the muscle will therefore have increased tone
227
Sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord between which vertebrae?
T1 to L2
This is the thoracolumbar outflow
228
In the sympathetic nervous system, there is a two neurone chain, what are these two neurones?
* Preganglionic
* Postganglionic
229
The preganglionic nerone leaves the spinal cord via which area?
Ventral horn
230
Splanchnic nerve supply what?
Visceral organs
231
Where do parasympathetic ganglia lie?
On the organ wall
232
All parasympathetic axons leave the CNS by which cranial nerves?
* CN III - oculomotor nerve
* CN VII - facial nerve
* CN IX - glossopharyngeal nerve
* CN X - vagus nerve
233
What is the only instance of a one-neurone chain?
The adrenal gland is innervated solely by a preganglionic sympathetic nerve.
It will release secretions (adrenaline) directly into the bloodstream
234
The vagus nerve supplies which areas of the body?
* Neck
* Chest
* Abdomen
* Mid-gut
235
The sacral spinal nerves carry sympathetic innervation to which body areas?
* Hindgut
* Pelvis
* Perineum
236
What are the male and female gametes?
Male - spermatozoa
Female - Oocyte
237
What is the pelvic floor?
An internal wall of skeletal muscle separating the pelvic cavity from the perineum
238
Where is the perineum located in respect to the pelvic floor?
Inferiorly
| (between proximal parts of lower limbs)
239
What are the three openings in the pelvic floor?
1. Distal alimentary tract
2. Renal tract
3. Reproductive tract
240
What forms the pelvic roof?
Formed from parietal peritoneum
241
What is the most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity?
Rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)
242
In females, where is the vesico-uterine pouch located?
Between the bladder and uterus
243
What are the three layers to the uterus wall?
1. Perimetrium (outermost)
2. Myometrium
3. Endometrium (innermost)
244
What moves the ovum along the uterine tubes?
Cilia
245
What is the role of fimbriae?
To gather the ovum into the infundibulum of the uterine tube
246
Where does fertilisation occur?
Ampulla
247
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
When the fertilised ovum implants outwith the uterine cavity
This can be an emergency due to the risk of haemorrhage
(tubal pregnancies at much more common than abdominal)
248
How can female sterilisation be brought about?
Tubal ligation
* Both uterine tubes are clipped or cut
* The lumen is blocked and the ovum has no passage to the uterus
249
What is the anatomical position of the penis?
Erect
250
What is the tube that sperm pass through?
Vas deferens
251
How long do sperm take to mature?
64 days
252
What is the epididymis?
The transition from the testis to the vas deferens
253
What is the function of the dartos muscle?
Lies in superficial fascia to wrinkle/thicken scrotal skin to maintain correct scrotal temperature
254
What is present in the spermatic cord?
* Vas deferens
* Testicular artery
* Pampiniform plexus
255
How does torsion of the testis occur?
Twisting of spermatic cord
Blood supply is stopped and swelling follows
This causes severe pain and danger of testicular necrosis
256
Which glands contribute to semen?
Seminal and prostate
257
Erection and ejaculation are controlled by which branches of the ANS?
Erection - parasympathetic
Ejaculation - sympathetic
258
The spermatic cord reaches the pelvic cavity via which canal?
Inguinal canal
259
What is a vasectomy?
The cutting of the vas deferens
260
What are the two main divisions of the mediastinum?
1. Superior
2. Inferior
Inferior further divided into anterior, middle, posterior
261
Where is the heart located?
Middle medistinum
262
Which anatomical landmark signifies the border between the superior and inferior mediastinum?
Sternal angle
263
What is the pericardium?
Fibrous sac surrounding the heart and major vessels
264
How many layers is the pericardium comprised of and what are they?
2
Fibrous - tough and thick, prevents overfilling, protective
Serous - Thinner, membraneous, secretes serous fluid
265
Which condition involving the fibrous pericardium is very dangerous?
Haemopericardium
This is blood in the pericardial space leading to cardiac tamponade
The blood contributes to increased pressure compressing the heart
266
The serous pericardium is subdividied into which two layers?
1. Visceral - lines heart
2. Parietal - lines fibrous pericardium
267
What are the three layers of heart muscle?
1. Epicardium
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium
268
What are the auricles of the heart?
Extensions of the atria
269
What are the four heart borders?
1. Right - formed by right atrium
2. Left - formed by left ventricle
3. Superior - left and right atrium as well as great vessels
4. Inferior - left and right ventricles
270
What does the inner fibrous cartilage skeleton of the heart allow for?
Structure to be mainatined
A electrical insulator between heart chambers
271
What are endocrine glands responsible for?
Manufacturing, storing and releasing hormones (into the bloodstream)
272
What makes up the diencephalon?
Hypothalamus and thalamus
| (located superior to the brainstem)
273
What are the three components of the brain stem from superior to inferior?
1. Midbrain
2. Pons
3. Medulla oblongata
274
What connects the anterior and posterior pituitary glands?
The infundibulum
275
Which hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
1. Oxytocin
2. Vasopressin (ADH)
276
Which hormones can the anterior pituitary secrete?
* FSH
* LH
* Growth hormone
* Prolactin
* TSH
* Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
277
How do the stimulating hormones from the hypothalamus reach the anterior pituitary to allow it to produce hormones?
* Hormones from hypothalamus are secreted into first capillary bed
* They then travel to the hypophyseal portal veins
* Then to the second capillary bed
* They can then stimulate the anterior pituitary cells to produce its hormones
278
They thyroid gland is made up of which three parts?
1. Isthmus
2. Right lobe
3. Left lobe
(there is also a fourth lobe - the pyramidal lobe)
279
The thyroid gland used what to manufacture which two hormones?
Iodine
1. Triiodothyronine (T3) - regulates metabolism
2. Thyroxine (T4) - regulates metabolis,
280
Where are the parathyroid glands located?
There are 4
Superior and inferior to either side of the cricoid cartilages
281
What is the role of the parathyroid glands?
To secrete parathyroid hormone
This controls the amount of calcium in blood and bone
282
Which arteries supply the thyroid gland?
Right thyroid artery - branch of right subclavian
Left thyroid artery - branch of left subclavian
283
Which veins drain the thyroid gland?
Superior, middle and inferior thyroid veins
284
The pancreas is a __________ organ
Retroperitoneal
285
Which arteries supply the pancreas?
Coeliac and superior mesenteric arteries
286
Which veins drain the pancreas?
Splenic and superior mesenteric veins
287
What are the two functionally distinct areas of the pancreas?
Endocrine - secretes hormones into blood
Exocrine - secretes digestive enzymes into duct system
288
The adrenal glands are directly superior to which organs?
Kidneys
289
What are the two functional areas of the adrenal glands?
1. Arenal cortex
2. Adrenal medulla
290
The adrenal cortex will produce which hormones?
1. Glucocorticoids
2. Mineralocorticoids - regulate salt balance and blood pressure
3. Androgens - male sex hormones
291
The inner medulla of the adrenal gland will produce which hormones?
1. Adrenaline
2. Noradrenaline
Involved in the fight or flight response
292
The adrenal glands are supplied by which arteries?
1. Superior suprarenal artery - originates from inferior phrenic artery
2. Middle suprarenal artery - originates from aorta directly
3. Inferior suprarenal artery - originates from renal arteries
293
What is the venous drainage pathway of the left adrenal gland?
Suprarenal vein, left renal vein, IVC
294
What is the venous drainage pathway for the right adrenal gland?
Right suprarenal vein directly to IVC
295
The testes secrete testosterone in response to which hormone?
LH
| (from anterior pituitary)
296
The ovaries produce oestrogen and progesterone in response to which hormones?
LH and FSH
297
Which arteries supply the reproductive organs?
Gonadal arteries
| (direct branches of IVC)
298
What is the venous drainage pathway for the right gonad?
Direct to IVC
299
What is the venous drainage pathway for the left gonad?
Left renal vein, then IVC
300
At which vertebral level does the aorta enter the abdominal cavity?
T12
301
At which vertebral level does the coeliac trunk come off of the aorta?
T12
302
At which vertebral level do the gonadal arteries come off of the aorta?
L2
303
At which vertebral level does the SMA come off the aorta?
L1
304
At which vertebral level does the IMA come off of the aorta?
L3
305
At which vertebral level does the aorta bifurcate to the common iiac arteries?
L4
306
At which vertebral level does the common iliac artery bifurcate?
L5
307
How do arteries often prevent overstretching?
Running in a tortuous course
308
Why are arteries located deep to veins?
To reduce haemorrhage and increase protection
309
Which "tone" is always present in arteries?
Sympathetic
310
Does the smooth muscle in artery walls have parasympathetic control?
No
Only vary degrees of sympathetic control - there a tonic conduction of sympathetic APs
311
At which vertebral level range is the sympathetic outflow?
T1 to L2
312
What is the angle of Louis?
This is the sternal angle
The point at which the start of the aortic arch cuts through axially to meet the end
313
The ascending aorta has 2 branches, what are these?
1. Right coronary artery
2. Left coronary artery
314
What are the 3 branches of the aortic arch?
1. Brachiocephalic trunk
2. Left common carotid artery
3. Left subclavian artery
315
The vertebral arteries arise from which arteries?
Right and left subclavian arteries
316
Where do the verebral arteries travel?
Through the transverse foraminae within cervical vertebrae
They enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum
317
What is the name given to the circular vessel formation in the brain formed by the anastomosis of the internal carotid areteries and vertebral arteries?
Circle of Willis
318
The left and right internal vertebral arteries converge together at the brainstem forming which artery?
Basilar artery
319
What is the function of the carotid sinus?
Blood pressure sensor
It is located at the carotid bifurcation
320
Baroreceptors at the carotid sinus are innervated by which cranial nerve?
CN IX
Glossopharyngeal nerve
(also innervates the carotid body to monitor blood/gas levels and pH)
321
What is the blood brain barrier?
Tight junctions between endothelial cells in the brain preventing leaky capillaries
322
What are the support cells that surround brain capillaries?
Astrocytes
323
Which sustances can diffuse throug the blood brain barrier?
Oxygen, glucose and carbon dioxide
324
In an anastomosis, what is each alterative route termed?
A collateral
325
What are end arteries?
End arteries occur when they ar the only artery supplying a certain region of the body
326
The aortic hiatus occurs at which vertebral level?
T12
327
At which vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifrcate into the left and right common iliac arteries?
L4
328
Name the main peripheral pulses in the:
a) Neck
b) Upper limb
c) Lower limb
a) Carotid pulse
b) Brachial pulse, radial pulse
c) Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse, posterior tibial pulse, dorsalis pedis pulse
329
How can veins utilise the pulsatile properties of arteries to aid the movement of blood within them?
By wrapping aroud arteries forming plexuses
330
What are the two main venous systems?
1. Hepatic portal system
2. Systemic venous system
331
What is tissue fluid called once it enters the lymphatic system?
Lymph
332
Where is lymph returned to the venous system?
Left and right lymphatic ducts into the left and right venous angles of the subclavian veins in the neck
333
What is the only lymphatic vessel large enough to be found in dissection?
Thoracic duct
334
Generally, what are the main functions of the urinary tract?
* Blood pH control
* Water balance
* Electrolyte balance
* Blood pressure control
* Metabolism of waste products and drugs
* Stimulates red blood cell production - by action of erythropoietin hormone
* Absorption of calcium
335
Describe the pathway of urine through the body
1. Kidneys
2. Ureter
3. Bladder
4. Urethra
336
What is the epithelium of the urinary tract?
Transitional epithelium
(urothelium)
It has a stratified appearance with dome shaped cells allowing for stretching
It is present from the ureter to the proximal end of the the urethra
337
The distal end of the urethra has which type of epithelium?
Stratified squamous
338
The urinary tract is split into which two divisions?
1. Upper - bilateral structures, kidneys, ureters
2. Lower - midline structures, bladder, urethra
339
Where does the upper urinary tract begin and end?
Begins in abdomen with the kidneys and ureters
Ends at level of ileac crests at L4
340
Where does the lower urinary tract begin and end?
Begins at level of ileac crests
Ends at perineum
341
What can protect the kidneys?
* Being retroperitoneal
* Ribs 11 and 12
* Skeletal muscles of back, anterolater and posterior walls (guarding)
* Renal fascia, para and perinephric far and the renal capsule
342
At which vertebral level is each kidney situnated?
Right - L1-L3
Left - T12 and L2
343
What do the renal hilum structures include?
1. Renal vein
2. Renal artery
3. Ureter
344
Which arteries supply the kidneys and what are these arteries branches of?
Renal arteries
| (branches of aorta)
345
Which renal artery is longer and why?
Right renal artery
The vena cava is beside the right kidney, so the right renal artery must go past it
346
What are the three paired bilateral branches of the aorta?
1. Adrenal arteries
2. Renal arteries
3. Gonadal arteries
347
How many segments make up a kidney?
5 segments
348
Which vein will drain into the left renal vein?
Left gonadal vein
349
What are the two main layers of the kidney called?
1. Renal cortex (outer)
2. Renal medulla (inner)
350
What is the name given to the apex of the renal pyramids?
Papilla
351
What is the name given to the first section of a nephron, and what composes this section?
Renal corpuscle
| (Bowman's capsule and glomerulus)
352
Describe the passage of urine through the kidney
1. Nephron collecting ducts
2. Renal papillae
3. Minor calyx
4. Major calyx
5. Renal pelvis
6. Ureter
353
Kidney stones are formed by what?
Calcium salts
354
What is the first area of potential obstruction in the kidney?
Pelviuteric junction
355
What are the second and third areas of constriction to the ureter?
* When ureter crosses the anterior aspect of the external iliac artery
* Ureteric orifice - opening between ureter and bladder
356
What is the name of pain given to that of the kidneys caused by obstruction?
Renal colic
357
What are the three points of entry/exit to the bladder?
Ureteric orifices
2 superior (from kidney ureters)
1 inferior passes into urethra
358
What are the muscles that act as sphincters at the ureteric orifices?
Detrusor muscles
359
The external urethral sphincter allows for what?
Voluntary control of micturition
360
What is the term given to the process by which a prostate gland will gradually increase in size with age?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
| (gradually compresses urethra)
361
What are the two types of catheterisation in relation to the urinary tract in males specifically?
1. Suprapubic - inserted above public symphysis
2. Urinary - through urethra, prostatic urethra and into the bladder
362
Give the 3 main characteristic of the female urethra
1. It is shorter than in males
2. It is distensible - due to elastic tissue in its walls
3. It opens into the vestibule - opening with external environment
363
What are the consequences of the properties of the female urethr when compared to males?
* Easier to catheterise
* More commonly encounter UTI
364
At which point does the upper respiratory tract become the lower?
Vertebral level C6
At the junction between the larynx and trachea
365
How many lobar bronchi are within each lung
There is only for each lung lobe
Right - 3
Left - 2
366
How many segmental bronchi are there?
10
Each supplies a bronchopulmonary segment
367
Each lung lobe is separated by what?
Fissure
368
Why can pronchopulmonary segments be easily removed by surgeons?
They have their own segmental bronchi, blood supply, lymphatics and nerve supplies
This means their removal does not impact the rest of thelung as much as it otherwise would
369
What is the epithelium of the lower respiratory tract?
Respiratory epithelium
| (goblet cells and ciliated cells)
370
What is the mucociliary escalator?
The process by which mucous is constantly produced by goblet cells and projected up and out of the respiratory tract by cilia
371
Cilia and their function are affected by which 3 main factors?
1. Temperature (cool environments specifically)
2. Drying of the mucosa
3. Toxins - such as cigarette smoke
372
Hyaline cartilage is present in the trachea until when?
Segmental bronchi
373
What separates the nasal cavities?
Nasal septum
(anterior cartilage and bony posterior section)
374
Which two bones make up the bony posterior section of the the nasal septum?
* Ethmoid bone (superior)
* Vomer bone (inferior)
375
Which four main types of cartilage make up the larynx?
* Thyroid
* Cricoid
* Epiglottis
* Arytenoid
376
What is the rima glottidis?
The space between vocal cords
| (narrowest point)
377
What are the three interesting structures on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?
* The superior concha
* The middle concha
* The inferior concha
378
What is the purpose of the conchae in the nasal cavity?
They are shell shaped, increasing surface area, and allowing turbulent air flow which brings air in contact with walls
This allows air to be warmed and humidified
379
What is the purpose of tonsils?
To produce white blood cells
380
The pharynx contains which three parts?
1. Nasopharynx
2. Oropharynx
3. Laryngopharynx
381
Which ribs connect directly to the sternum?
The true ribs
| (ribs 1-7)
382
How do false ribs articulate with the sternum?
Ribs 8-10 join to the sternum via the costal cartilage
383
The head of the rib articulates with what?
Vertebral colum forming a costovertebral joint
384
The tubercle on the neck of a rib articulates with what?
Thoracic vertebra
385
What is the purpose of the costal groove on the body of the rib?
This houses the neurovascualr bundle
| (intercostal nerve, artery and vein)
386
What are the four components of the sternum?
1. Manubrium
2. Sternal angle
3. Body
4. Xiphoid process
387
What is the name of the joint between ribs and vertebrae?
Costovertebral joints
388
What is the name of the joint between the sternum and costal cartilage?
Sternocostal joint
389
What is the name of the joint between a rib and costal cartilage?
Costochondral
390
What are the three anatomical planes?
1. Sagittal
2. Coronal
3. Axial (transverse)
391
What are the posterior surfaces of the wrists, hand and tongue referred to as?
Dorsal surfaces
392
The anterior surface of the wrist is which type of surface?
Volar surface
393
The anterior surface of the tongue is called what?
Ventral surface
394
What does the term ipsilateral mean?
The structure is on the same side of the body to the structure to which it is being compared
395
What does contrelateral mean?
The structure lies on the opposite side to the structure to which it is being compared
396
What is circumduction?
Circular motion at a joint
