Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE > Anatomy - sidebyside > Flashcards

Anatomy - sidebyside Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Define anisocytosis.

A

varying cell sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Defi ne poikilocytosis

A

varying cell shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

From which cells do B cells

arise?

A

stem cells in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

From which cells do plasma

cells differentiate?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can a Nissl stain be used
to differentiate microglia
from oligodendroglia?

A 
Microglia are not discernable 
in a Nissl stain while 
oligodendroglia appear as 
small dark nuclei with dark 
chromatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what type of CNS tissue
(white or grey) are
oligodendroglia predominant?

A

white matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Into what cell type does a
monocyte differentiate in
tissues?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 2 substances produced

by an eosinophil.

A

histiminase and arylsulfatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the three types of

leukocytic granulocytes.

A

basophils, eosinophils, and

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the two types of

mononuclear leukocytes.

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 2 functions of T cell

lymphocytes?

A
  • cellular immune response -
    regulation of B lymphocytes
    and macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 2 morphological

features of microglia?

A
  • small irregular nuclei - and

relatively little cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 3 examples of

peripheral lymphoid tissue?

A
  • follicles of lymph nodes -
    white pulp of spleen -
    unencapsulated lymphoid
    tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 3 functions of a

macrophage?

A 
- pagocytosis of bacteria, 
cell debris, and senescent red 
cells - scavenges damaged 
cells and tissues - can 
function as an antigen 
presenting cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 3 morphological

characteristics of monocytes?

A
  • Large - Kidney-shaped
    nucleus - Extensive ‘frosted
    glass’ cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 4 characteristics of

the plasma cell morphology?

A
  • Off center nucleus - Clock
    face chromatin distribution -
    Abundant RER - Well
    developed Golgi apparatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 4 morphologic
characteristics of
lymphocytes?

A
  • Round - Small - Densely
    staining nucleus - Small
    amount of pale cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 4 substances
contained within the
lysosomes of neutrophils?

A
  • hydrolytic enzymes -
    lysozyme - myeloperoxidase
  • lactoferrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 4 types of cells into

which T cells di! erentiate?

A 
- cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, 
CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII, 
CD4) - suppressor T cells - 
delayed hypersensitivity T 
cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 5 important
causes for eosinophilia in
humans?

A

Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic
process, Collagen vascular
disease, and Parasites
(pneumonic NAACP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !enentiation names of the 
ACTIVE T CELL line beginning
with the pluripotent 
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
A
  • Pluripotent hematopoietic
    stem cell - Lymphoblast - T
    cell - Active T cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
ERYTHROCYTE cell line 
beginning with pluripotent 
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
A
  • Pluripotent hematopoietic
    stem cell - Proerythroblast -
    Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
MONOCYTE cell lines 
beginning with the 
pluripotent hematopoietic 
stem cell? (3)
A
  • Pluripotent hematopoietic
    stem cell - Mono blast -
    Monocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, 
and BASOPHIL cell lines 
beginning with the 
myeloblast stage? (6)
A
  • Myeloblast - Promyelocyte
  • Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte
  • Stab cell - Neutrophil,
    eosinophil or basophil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
PLASMA CELL line beginning
with the pluripotent 
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
A
  • Pluripotent hematopoietic
    stem cell - Lymphoblast - B
    cell - Plasma cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
PLATELET CELL line beginning
with the hematopoietic stem 
cell? (4)
A
  • Pluripotento hematopoietic
    stem cell - Megakaryoblast -
    Megakaryocyte - Platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the components of

the air-blood barrier?

A
  • Type I pneumocyte - tight

junction - endothelial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the steps of
maturation of a B cell? (2
points)

A
  • maturation in the marrow -
    migration to peripheral
    lymphoid tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the substances
contained within the densly
basophilic granules of the
basophil? (4)

A 
- Heparin (anticoagulant) -
histamine (vasodilator) - 
vasoactive amines - Slow 
reacting substance of 
anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are two basic
morphological characteristics
of neutrophils?

A
  • multilobed nucleus - large,
    spherical azurophilic primary
    granules (lysosomes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are two important

functions of a neutrophil?

A
  • acute infl ammmatory
    response of a cell -
    phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are two names for an
increased number of red
cells?

A

Erythrocytosis and

polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What cell type closely

resembles a mast cell?

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What cranial nerves are
commonly involved in an
acoustic neuroma?

A

CN VII, VIII (association with

internal acoustic meatus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What disease is characterized
by destruction of
oligodendroglia?

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does CD stand for?

A

cluster of di ! Erentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What drug prevents mast cell

degranulation?

A

What drug prevents mast cell

degranulation?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What immunoglobulin can
bind to the membrane of a
mast cell?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

What is a reticulocyte?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an important example

of a Schwannoma?

A

Acoustic neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is another name for

pulmonary sufractant?

A

DPPC

dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is percentage of
leukocytes in the blood exist
as basophils?

A

less than 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the ‘gap’ between the
myelination segment of 2
Schwann cells called?

A

Node of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the advantage of the
large surface area:volume
ratio in erythrocytes?

A

easy gas exchange (Oxygen

and Carbon dioxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the basic morphologic

structure of an erythrocyte?

A

Anucleate, biconcave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the basic morphology

of an eosinophil? (2 things)

A
  • bilobate nucleus - packed
    with large eosinophilic
    granules of uniform size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the embryologic

origin of microglia?

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

I miss u so much~

A

kiss my dear bear~

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of
Interferon gamma with
relation to macrophages?

A

macrophage activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of

microglia?

A

phagocytosis in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of

oligodendroglia?

A

myelination of multiple CNS

axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of

pulmonary surfactant?

A

lowers alveolar surface
tension and prevents
atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the function of

Schwann cells?

A

myelination of PNS (a
Schwann cell myelinates only
one PNS axon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the importance of the

lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?

A

> 2.0 in fetal lung is
indicative of fetal lung
maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the importance of the
physiologic chloride shift in
erythrocytes?

A 
Membranes contain the 
chloride bicarbonate antiport 
allowing the RBC to transport 
carbon dioxide from the the 
lung periphery for 
elimination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the last segment of
lung tissue in which ciliated
cells are found?

A

respiratory bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the last segment of
lung tissue in which goblet
cells are found?

A 
terminal broncioles 
(remember ciliated cells 
sweep away mucous 
produced by goblet cells and 
therefore run deeper)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the primary function

of a basophil?

A

Mediates allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the primary function

of a leukocyte?

A

Defense against infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the primary function

of a mast cell?

A

Mediates allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the primary function

of a plasma cell?

A

production of large amounts
of a specific antibody to a
particular antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the primary source of

energy for erythrocytes?

A

glucose (90% anaerobically
degraded to lactate, 10% by
HMP shunt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the process of

degranulation in mast cells?

A

release of histamine, heparin,
and eosinophil chemotactic
factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the range of
concentration for leukocytes
in the blood?

A

4,000 - 10,000 cells per

microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the response of an
eosiniphil to antigen antibody
complexes?

A

high degree of phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the response of

microglia to tissue dammage?

A

transformation into large

ameboid phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the response to

microglia infected with HIV?

A

fusion to form multinucleated

giant cells in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the survival time for

an erythrocyte?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What pathognomonic change
is seen in neutrophils of a
person who is folate/vitamin
B12 defi cient?

A

hypersegmented polys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

hypersegmented polys

A

1 - 6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What percentage of
leukocytes exist as
neutrophils in the blood?

A

40 - 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What percentage of
leukocytes in blood are
monocytes?

A

2 - 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What process occurs when
type I pneumocytes are
damaged?

A

Type II pneumocytes develop

into type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q 
What substance in 
eosinophilic granules is 
primarily responsible for 
defense against helminths 
and protozoan infections?
A

major basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is the site of

maturation of T lymphocytes?

A

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which cell type constituitively
secretes pulmonary
surfactant?

A

Type II pneumocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which cell type lines the

alveoli?

A

Type I pneumocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which leukemia is the result

of plasma cell neoplasm?

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity
reaction is a mast cell
involved in?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which type of immunity do B

cells exhibit?

A

humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

After arising from the floor of
the primitive pharynx, where
does the thryoid diverticulum
go?

A

It descends down into the

neck

82
Q

After the first breath at birth,
what causes closure of the
ductus arteriosus?

A

An increase in oxygen

83
Q

After the first breath at birth,
what causes the closure of
the foramen ovale?

A

A decrease resistance in
pulmonary vasculature causes
increased left atrial pressure
vs. right atrial pressure

84
Q

Although the diaphragm
descends during
development, it maintains
innervation from ____?

A

C3-C5

85
Q

An easy pneumonic to
remember fetal erythropoiesis
is?

A

Young Liver Synthesizes

Blood

86
Q

At what time in the course of
development is the fetus
most susceptible to
teratogens?

A

Weeks 3-8

87
Q 
Deoxygenated blood from the
SVC is expelled into the 
pulmonary artery and \_\_\_\_ 
\_\_\_\_ to the lower body of the 
fetus.
A

ductus arteriosus

88
Q

Do the cardiovascular
structures arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

89
Q

Do the chroma” n cells of the
adrenal medulla arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

90
Q

Do the enterochroma” n cells
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

91
Q 
Do the lungs arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Endoderm

92
Q 
Do the lymphatics arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Mesoderm

93
Q

Do the melanocytes arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

94
Q

Do the neural crest cells arise
from mesoderm, ectoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Ectoderm

95
Q

Do the odontoblasts arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

96
Q

Do the parafollicular (C) cells
of the thyroid arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

97
Q

Do the Schwann cells arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

98
Q

Do the urogenital structures
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

99
Q

Does blood arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

100
Q

Does bone arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

101
Q 
Does muscle arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Mesoderm

102
Q

Pat pat~

A

Everyhing’ll be just fine~

103
Q 
Does the  thyroid arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Endoderm

104
Q

Does the adrenal cortex arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

105
Q 
Does the ANS arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

106
Q

Does the celiac ganglion arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

107
Q

Does the dorsal root ganglion
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

108
Q

Does the dura connective
tissue arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

109
Q

Does the gut tube epithelium
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

A

Endoderm

110
Q 
Does the liver arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Endoderm

111
Q 
Does the pancreas arise from
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Endoderm

112
Q

Does the parathyroid arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Endoderm

113
Q 
Does the pia arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

114
Q

Does the serous linings of
body cavities arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

A

Mesoderm

115
Q 
Does the spleen arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Mesoderm

116
Q 
Does the thymus arise from 
neural crest (ectoderm), 
mesoderm, or endoderm?
A

Endoderm

117
Q

From what does the
ligamentum teres hepatis
arise?

A

Umbilical vein

118
Q

How does a bicornate uterus

form?

A

Results from incomplete
fusion of the
paramesonephric ducts

119
Q

How does a cleft lip form?

A

Failure of fusion of the
maxillary and medial nasal
processes

120
Q

How does a cleft palate form?

A

Failure of fusion of the lateral
palatine processes, the nasal
septum, and/or the median
palatine process

121
Q

How does a horseshoe kidney

form?

A 
Inferior poles of both kidneys
fuse, as they ascend from the
pelvis during development 
they get trapped under the 
inferior mesenteric artery, 
and remain low in the 
abdomen
122
Q

How is meckel’s diverticulum
di !erent than an
omphalomesenteric cyst?

A

Omphalomesenteric cyst is a
cystic dilatation of the
vitelline duct

123
Q

How long does full
development of
spermatogenesis take?

A

2 months

124
Q

How many arteries and veins
does the umbilical cord
contain?

A

—2 umbilical arteries (carries
deoxygenated blood away
from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein
(oxygenated blood to fetus)

125
Q

Is a primary spermatocyte 2N

or 4N?

A

4N

126
Q

Is a primary spermatocyte

haploid or diploid?

A

Diploid, 4N

127
Q

Is a secondary spermatocyte

haploid or diploid?

A

Haploid, 2N

128
Q

Is a secondary spermatocyte

N or 2N?

A

2N

129
Q

Is a speratogonium haploid or

diploid?

A

Diploid, 2N

130
Q

Is a spermatid haploid or

diploid?

A

Haploid, N

131
Q

Meiosis I is arrested in which

phase until ovulation?

A

Prophase

132
Q

Meiosis II is arrested in which

phase until fertilization?

A

Metaphase (an egg MET a

sperm)

133
Q 
Most oxygenated blood 
reaching the heart via IVC is 
diverted through the \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_
and pumped out the aorta to 
the head.
A

foramen ovale

134
Q

The right common cardinal
vein and right anterior
cardinal vein give rise to what
adult heart structure?

A

Superior vena cava

135
Q

The stapedius muscle of the
ear is formed by which
branchial arch?

A

2nd

136
Q 
This type of bone formation 
consists of ossification of 
cartilaginous molds and 
forms long bones at primary 
and secondary centers.
A

Endochondral

137
Q

True or False, blood in the
umbilical vein is 100%
saturated with oxygen?

A

False, it is 80% saturated

138
Q

True or False, there are two

types of spermatogonia?

A

True, type A & type B

139
Q

What are the 1st branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by?

A

CN V2 and V3

140
Q

What are the 2nd branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by?

A

CN VII

141
Q

What are the 3rd branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by?

A

CN IX

142
Q

What are the 4th and 6th
branchial arch derivatives
innervated by?

A

CN X

143
Q

What are the cartilage
derivatives (5) of the 4th and
6th branchial arches?

A

— Thyroid - Cricoid -
Arytenoids - Corniculate -
Cuneiform

144
Q

What are the five 2’s
associated with meckel’s
diverticulum?

A 
— 2 inches long - 2 feet from 
the ileocecal valve - 2% of the 
population - Commonly 
presents in the first 2 years of 
life - May have 2 types of 
epithelia
145
Q

What are the rule of 2’s for
the 2nd week of
development?

A 
— 2 germ layers: epiblast 
& hypoblast - 2 cavities: 
amniotic cavity & yolk 
sac - 2 components to the 
placenta: cytotrophoblast 
& syncytiotrophoblast
146
Q

What are the rule of 3’s for

the 3rd week of development?

A

3 germ layers (gastrula):
ectoderm, mesoderm,
endoderm

147
Q

What can a persistent cervical

sinus lead to?

A

A branchial cyst in the neck

148
Q

What can be found in the

cortex of the thymus?

A

It is dense with immature T

cells

149
Q

What can be found in the

medulla of the thymus?

A

It is pale with mature T cells,
epithelial reticular cells, and
Hassall’s corpuscles

150
Q

What connects the thyroid

diverticulum to the tongue?

A

The thyroglossal duct

151
Q

What devlopmental
contributions does the 5th
branchial arch make?

A

None

152
Q 
What do the 2nd - 4th 
branchial clefts form, which 
are obliterated by 
proliferation of the 2nd arch 
mesenchyme?
A

Temporary cervical sinuses

153
Q

What does aberrant
development of the 3rd and
4th pouches cause?

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

154
Q

What does the 1st aortic arch

give rise to?

A

Part of the maxillary artery

155
Q

What does the 2nd
pharyngeal pouch develop
into?

A

Epithelial lining of the

palantine tonsils

156
Q

What does the 3rd aortic arch

give rise to?

A

Common carotid artery and
proximal part of the internal
carotid artery

157
Q

What does the 4th pharyngeal

pouch develop into?

A

Superior parathyroids

158
Q

What does the 5th aortic arch

give rise to?

A

Nothing

159
Q

What does the 5th pharyngeal

pouch develop into?

A

C cells of the thyroid

160
Q

What does the 6th aortic arch

give rise to?

A

The proximal part of the
pulmonary arteries and (on
left only) ductus arteriosus

161
Q

What does the ductus

arteriosus give rise to?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

162
Q

What does the ductus
venosus shunt blood away
from?

A

Liver

163
Q

What does the fi rst branchial

cleft develop into?

A

The external auditory meatus

164
Q

What does the foramen ovale

give rise to?

A

Fossa ovalis

165
Q

What does the left 4th aortic

arch give rise to?

A

Aortic arch

166
Q

What does the ligamentum

venosum come from?

A

Ductus venosus

167
Q

What does the notochord give

rise to?

A

Nucleus Pulposus

168
Q

What does the primitive atria

give rise to?

A

Trabeculated left and right

atrium

169
Q

What does the primitive

ventricle give rise to?

A

Trabeculated parts of the left

and right ventricle

170
Q

What does the right 4th aortic

arch give rise to?

A

Proximal part of the right

subclavian artery

171
Q

Fighting~!

A

Hug hug~

172
Q

What does the right horn of
the sinus venosus give rise
to?

A

Smooth part of the right

atrium

173
Q

What does the spleen arise

from?

A

Dorsal mesentery, but is
supplied by the artery of the
foregut

174
Q

What does the thymus arise

from?

A

Epithelium of the 3rd

branchial pouch

175
Q

What does the thyroid

diverticulum arise from?

A

The fl oor of the primitive

pharynx

176
Q

What does the truncus

arteriosus give rise to?

A

The ascending aorta and

pulmonary trunk

177
Q

What does the umbilical

arteries give rise to?

A

Medial umbilical ligaments

178
Q

What ear muscle does the 1st

branchial arch form?

A

Tensor tympani

179
Q

What effect does 13-cis-
retinoic acid have on the
fetus?

A

Extremely high risk for birth

defects

180
Q

What effect does ACE

inhibitors have on the fetus?

A

Renal Damage

181
Q

What effect does iodide have

on the fetus?

A

Congenital goiter or

hypothyroidism

182
Q

What effect does warfarin and

x-rays have on the fetus?

A

Multiple anomalies

183
Q

What effects does cocaine

have on the fetus?

A

Abnormal fetal development

and fetal addiction

184
Q

What embryonic structure are
the smooth parts of the left
and right ventricle derived
from?

A

Bulbus cordis

185
Q

What embryonic structure
does the coronary sinus come
from?

A

Left horn of the sinus

venosus

186
Q

What embryonic structure
does the median umbilical
ligament come from?

A

Allantois (urachus)

187
Q

What fetal landmark has
developed within week 2 of
fertilization?

A

Bilaminar disk

188
Q

What fetal landmark has
occurred within week 1 of
fertilization?

A

Implantation

189
Q

What fetal landmark has
occurred within week 3 of
fertilization?

A

Gastrulation

190
Q

What fetal landmarks (2) have
developed within week 3 of
fertilization?

A

Primitive streak and neural

plate begin to form

191
Q

What five things arise from

neuroectoderm?

A

— Neurohypophysis - CNS
neurons - Oligodendrocytes -
Astrocytes - Pineal gland

192
Q

What four structures make up

the diaphragm?

A

— Septum transversum -
pleuroperitoneal folds - body
wall - dorsal mesentery of
esophagus

193
Q

What four things arise from

surface ectoderm?

A

— Adenohypophysis - Lens of
eye - Epithelial linings -
Epidermis

194
Q

What four things does
Meckel’s cartilage (from the
1st arch) develop into?

A

— Mandible - Malleus - Incus

- Sphenomandibular ligament

195
Q

What four things does
Reichert’s cartilage (from the
2nd arch) develop into?

A

— Stapes - Styloid process -
Lesser horn of hyoid -
Stylohyoid ligament

196
Q

What four things does the
dorsal pancreatic bud
become?

A

Body, tail, isthmus, and

accessory pancreatic duct

197
Q

What four things does the
mesonephric (wol”an) duct
develop into?

A

— Seminal vesicles -
Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct
- Ductus deferens

198
Q

What induces the ectoderm to
form the neuroectoderm
(neural plate)?

A

Notochord

199
Q

What is a hiatal hernia?

A

Abdominal contents herniate
into the thorax due to
incomplete development of
the diaphragm

200
Q

What is a hypospadias?

A

Abnormal opening of penile
urethra on inferior side of
penis due to failure of
urethral folds to close

USMLE (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions