Anatomy Review Flashcards
What is Scoliosis?
A lateral curvature of the spine
The vertebrae are connected by a series of ligaments that limits movement and creates a cohesive spinal column. Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the spinal cord?
Anterior longitudinal ligament
An obese 65-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis reports acute onset low back pain that radiates down the back of the right thigh to the lower right leg. What vertebral injury would most likely cause her symptoms?
Posterolateral herniation of the L4-L5 IV disc
A 65-year-old man with a history of long-standing atherosclerotic disease slowly develops an atherosclerotic blockage of the right axillary artery below the level of the first rib but above the level of the subscapular artery. What is most likely to be true in this patient?
Direction of blood flow in the sub-scapular artery will be reversed
A breast cancer survivor patient with a history of axillary node dissection presents with symptoms consistent with scapular winging: primarily, inability to abduct the arm above the horizontal plane. She describes pain that radiates the length of her arm and numbness and tingling that extend into the hand.
What portion of the brachial plexus has been damaged?
Roots
An infant with a history of upward force on arm during delivery presents with total claw hand. The lumbricals appear to be flexing the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, as well as extending the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints. These findings result from damage to which aspect of the brachial plexus?
Lower trunk
When the arms are extended, which muscle is the prime mover?
Triceps brachii
You are caring for a patient who sustained an injury to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle. Based on this data, the injury is closest to which structure?
Elbow
A patient presents with injury to the left upper limb. On physical exam, the patient shows inability to flex the forearm at the elbow and loss of sensation to the lateral forearm. What nerve has been damaged?
Musculocutaneous
A patient presents with characteristics of carpal tunnel syndrome. Which nerve is most likely damaged?
Median nerve
If the trapezius were paralyzed, the patient is still able to raise the arm above the head, albeit with difficulty. Which muscle aids this action?
Serratus anterior muscle
Which of the following is the correct sequence of respiratory structures of the bronchial tree?
Primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles
In human beings, the lower respiratory system divides into the right and left lungs. Which of the following is true about the number of lobes in each lung?
The right lung has 3 lobes, while the left lung has 2
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a stab wound to his chest. Palpation of the radial pulse is rapid at 150 and the blood pressure is low at 75/30. The neck veins are also visibly engorged. The patient is suffering from cardiac tamponade. What is causing this patient’s condition?
Fluid accumulation between the parietal and visceral serous pericardium
A 32-year-old man with a history of tricuspid valve replacement with a prosthetic valve as a child has been managed without complications for years on baby aspirin. He suddenly develops a toothache and finds that he needs a root canal. His history is a significant risk factor for developing what cardiac condition?
Endocarditis
Which of the following anatomical landmarks indicates where the navel is situated?
Ventral
The lymphatic vessels from the spleen directly drain to which lymph nodes?
Pancreaticosplenic lymph nodes
A patient with difficulty swallowing is evaluated with a barium swallow study. The result is considered normal, although there are 3 areas of the esophagus that appear narrowed. These normal constrictions in the esophagus are formed by the compression of which structures on the esophagus?
Aortic arch, left main bronchus, diaphragm
Despite our necessary balance of homeostasis, there are parts of the body that thrive in extreme environments. Where in our body can the highly erosive hydrochloric acid be found?
Stomach
A patient presents with a small bowel obstruction. The obstruction is located in a region of the small intestines that under histological examination contains numerous Paneth Cells and Peyer’s Patches. Where is this obstruction located?
Ileum
The blood supply to the entire small intestine comes from branches of a single artery, Which artery is this?
Superior mesenteric artery
A patient comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain. After questioning the patient, the physician orders imaging scans to be done, as they suspect the patient just has severe constipation. Upon arrival of the scans, where should the doctor look to see if their diagnosis is correct?
Sigmoid colon
A 67-year-old man presents to his physician for an annual checkup. He has no acute complaints but does admit to increased fatigue, an unintentional 20-pound weight loss over the last year, and worsening constipation. He has never had a prior colonoscopy. On physical exam, he appears pale and fatigued but not acutely ill. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. His rectal exam is heme-occult negative. He is referred for a colonoscopy where the endoscopist discovers a circumferential mass in his sigmoid colon. He undergoes resection of the sigmoid colon, Hartmann’s pouch creation, and diverting colostomy.
What vessel was divided to complete this sigmoid resection and what is its embryological origin?
Inferior mesenteric artery; hindgut
What vessel is adjacent to the head of the pancreas?
Superior mesenteric artery
The portal triad, made up of the hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein, and common bile duct, is often clamped to control bleeding from the liver in trauma surgery. If bleeding stops with this maneuver, it indicates injury to the hepatic artery or portal vein that may be causing bleeding. If the liver continues to bleed with clamping of the portal triad, what structure is likely injured?
Hepatic vein
The liver has 4 lobes. Which lobes of the liver are directly separated by the falciform ligament?
Left lobe and right lobe
The hepatic circulation is controlled by the hepatic buffer control system. How does the hepatic buffer control system make adjustments to blood flow?
Increases blood flow in the hepatic artery in response to decreased blood flow to the portal vein
Which of the following kidney structures houses the renal pyramids?
Renal medulla
Which of the following urinary system sequences is the exact urine excretion pathway?
Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, urethra
A patient dislocated their hip in a car accident. Anatomically, the head of the femur slipped out of a structure, leaving them in intense pain. What is the structure?
Acetabulum
Which of the following bodily structures is possibly defective if a person is incontinent? A. Trigone B. Transversus abdominis C. Urethral sphincter muscles D. Detrusor muscle
C. Urethral sphincter muscles
What male reproductive structure is situated surrounding the urethra?
Prostate
After delivering twins, a G4P5 woman presents to the OB/GYN 2 weeks postpartum due to constipation and pressure in her vagina and pelvis. Upon digital examination, the OB/GYN feels a bulging mass deep within the vaginal cavity. These findings are concurrent with what diagnosis?
Rectocele
A 49-year-old man presents due to groin pain. At his next appointment, the physician tells him the bulging is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia is he diagnosed with?
Direct
What muscle helps to flex the thigh at the hip and is located somewhere other than one of the thigh compartments?
Iliopsoas
The superior and inferior gluteal arteries are branches of the internal iliac artery. What muscle separates these two arteries as they exit the greater sciatic foramen?
Piriformis
The sacral plexus forms nerves that supply many of the muscles of the gluteal region. What nerve from this plexus branches off to supply the gluteus maximus muscle?
Inferior gluteal nerve
There are four major muscles located in the anterior compartment of the leg. Which muscle is the strongest of these muscles responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot?
Tibialis anterior
Avascular necrosis of the head of the femur can be caused by specific damage to what crucial artery supplying the hip joint?
Medial circumflex femoral artery
A 17-year-old male high school soccer player quickly changed direction during a game and averted a defensive player, scoring a goal, but also injuring himself. What type of injury might he have sustained with his quick start-stop directional change movement?
Anterior cruciate ligament tear
When positioning a patient, what intervention helps prevent problems (contractures) with the ankle?
Dorsiflexion of 90°
In an exam for peripheral vascular disease, the pulses of which arteries in the foot are normally palpated?
Dorsalis pedis artery, posterior tibial artery
Which of the following bones make up the lambdoidal suture?
Parietal bones and occipital bone
Surgical removal of the parotid gland is often performed to treat salivary gland tumors, 80% of which occur in the parotid glands. The branches of which nerve should be preserved during this surgery?
Facial nerve
A 20-year-old man is seen due to difficulty hearing in the right ear that started shortly after blunt force trauma to the head. An examination reveals a normal tympanic membrane without rupture, infection, or excess fluid. After further evaluation with advanced imaging, there is a disruption of the lenticular process. Which of the ossicles has been affected, causing hearing loss?
Incus
Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of many medications, causing a sudden decrease in blood pressure upon standing. Which division of the nervous system is responsible for such sudden changes in blood pressure seen in this condition?
Autonomic nervous system
What is the likely diagnosis for a child who reports increased back pain, an uneven gait, and favoritism to the left side?
Scoliosis
The brain and the spinal cord make up the human central nervous system. Which region of the spine does the lower end of the spinal cord itself stop?
Conus medullaris
When positioning a patient, what intervention helps prevent problems (contractures) with the axilla?
Abduction
A 55-year-old male patient with a 20-year smoking history is experiencing pain, swelling, and weakness in the right arm and hand, with slight difficulty seeing out of the right eye. Computerized tomography (CT) imaging confirms the diagnosis of a Pancoast tumor. What structure is being compressed?
Sympathetic trunk
Eight bones form the cranial portion of the skull. Which of them surrounds the external acoustic meatus? A. Ethmoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Sphenoid
C. Temporal
Bones of the skull are connected by synarthrosis. Which of them runs between each temporal bone and parietal bone? A. Coronal B. Lambdoid C. Sagittal D. Squamosal
D. Squamosal
Eight bones form the cranial portion of the skull. Which of the bones exists singularly? A. Frontal B. Lacrimal C. Parietal D. Temporal
A. Frontal
The vestibulocochlear nerve passes through the posterior cranial fossa. What provides passage of this structure?
Internal acoustic meatus
Olfactory axons of cranial nerve I pass through the anterior cranial fossa. What provides passage of this structure?
Cribriform plate
A fissure exists between the anterior and middle cranial fossa. Which structure within this fissure is most inferior?
Abducens nerve
The greater petrosal nerve passes through the middle cranial fossa. What provides passage of this structure?
Foramen lacerum
A patient’s procerus muscle has been damaged. What action will be affected?
Flaring the nostrils
A patient has difficulty abducting the jaw. What muscle is affected?
Lateral pterygoid
A muscle innervated by cranial nerve VII originates from the maxilla and mandible and inserts into the orbicularis oris muscle. How does this muscle assist in mastication?
Prevents food pocketing into cheek
A muscle innervated by cranial nerve VII crosses the angle of the mouth to the upper lip and inserts into the skin near the median line. What is a function of this muscle?
Emphasizes vocal communication
The largest cranial nerve contains three divisions that leave the skull through separate foramina; one travels through the foramen ovale. Which nerve of this branch supplies the skin on the side of the head?
Auriculotemporal nerve
The largest cranial nerve contains three divisions that leave the skull through separate foramina; one exits through the foramen rotundum. Which nerve of this branch supplies the lacrimal gland, forehead, and cheek?
Zygomatic nerve
The largest cranial nerve contains three divisions that leave the skull through separate foramina; one exits through the superior orbital fissure. Which nerve of this branch becomes the anterior ethmoid nerve?
Nasocilliary
The largest cranial nerve arises directly from the pons. What discrete aspect of this structure is an important site for reflexes?
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
The largest cranial nerve arises directly from the pons. What discrete aspect of this structure regulates biting force?
Mesencephalic nucleus
A structure separates the external ear from the middle ear. What is the general function of this structure?
Translate sound waves into mechanical vibrations
A structure contains ossicles connected to the tympanic membrane. What is connected to the membrane of the oval window?
Stapes
A structure contains the malleus, incus, and stapes. What facilitates air pressure equalization for this structure?
Eustachian tube
A structure consists of the pinna and the external acoustic meatus. What vessel supplies this structure?
External carotid artery
A structure consists of the pinna and the external acoustic meatus. What does this structure direct sound toward?
Tympanic membrane
A fossa is composed of the sphenoid bone and the temporal bones. What is this structure bound to on its front surface?
Chiasmatic groove
A fossa is composed of the frontal bone, ethmoid bone, and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. What does this structure contain?
Olfactory bulb
What structure is supported by the lateral boundaries of the anterior cranial fossa?
Frontal lobes of the cerebrum
A cranial nerve with both sensory and motor components has fibers that extend into the abdomen. What activity does this nerve modulate?
Heart rate
A cranial nerve with both sensory and motor components sends the sensation of taste from the posterior portion of the tongue. What type of muscle does this nerve innervate?
Muscle of pharynx
A purely efferent cranial nerve is involved in deliberate and involuntary movements. What is a general function of this nerve?
Clearing of saliva from the mouth
A purely efferent cranial nerve affects accommodation. What can result from damage to this nerve?
Double vision
A patient diagnosed as having rotator cuff syndrome demonstrates impingement involving the supraspinatus muscle. What anatomical feature’s failure typically causes this injury?
Subacromial bursa
A tendon arises from a muscle that medially rotates the arm at the glenohumeral joint and inserts onto the lesser tubercle of the humerus. From what muscle does this tendon arise?
Subscapularis
A musculotendinous collar surrounds the anterior, superior and posterior aspects of the glenohumeral joint. Besides the tendons of the rotator cuff, what composes this structure?
Capsule
A group of muscles arises from various locations on the scapula and inserts in the proximal humerus. Which muscle of this group inserts most posteriorly?
Teres minor
The anterolateral projection of a bone arches over the glenohumeral joint and has a small oval facet on its distal end for articulation. What structure does this projection articulate with?
Clavicle
The superior border of a flat triangular bone contains a hook-like structure that projects anterolaterally. How is this structure positioned relative to the lateral part of the clavicle?
Inferior
A portion of bone oriented horizontally between the proximal humerus and the shaft is weaker than other areas. What is the name of this portion, which is a common fracture site?
Surgical neck
Landmarks on the proximal end of the humerus are the site of attachment for rotator cuff muscles. Relative to the greater of these landmarks, where is the lesser landmark?
Anterior
A bone with an S-shaped contour serves as an attachment between the trunk and the upper limb. Where does this attachment articulate medially?
Manubrium of the sternum
The transition of the neck and the arm is formed by the clavicle, scapula, upper thoracic wall, and humerus with related muscles. What directly enters through the medial wall of this structure?
Intercostobrachial nerve
The transition of the neck and the arm is formed by the clavicle, scapula, upper thoracic wall, and humerus with related muscles. What blood vessel supplies this structure?
Subclavian artery
The transition of the neck and the arm is formed by the clavicle, scapula, upper thoracic wall, and humerus with related muscles. This structure contains the proximal portion of what other structure?
Coracobrachialis
The transition of the neck and arm is formed by the clavicle, scapula, upper thoracic wall, and humerus with related muscles. Which wall of this structure is formed by the scapula, subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, teres major, and the triceps brachii?
Posterior
The transition of the neck and the arm is formed by the clavicle, scapula, upper thoracic wall, and humerus with related muscles. How is the apex of the inlet of this structure directed?
Lateral
An artery originating from the axillary artery passes through the quadrangular space of the teres major, teres minor, triceps brachii, and humerus. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery that this structure originates from?
3
An artery originating from the axillary artery has branches from the inferior margin of the pectoralis major muscle that contribute to the vascular supply of the breast in women. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery from which this structure originates?
2
An artery supplies the upper regions of the medial and anterior axillary walls. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery from which this structure originates?
1
The part of the axillary artery anterior to the subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle has 3 branches. How is this part oriented in relation to the pectoralis minor?
Distal
A blood vessel passes through the axilla to the inferior margin of the teres major muscle. What is formed by this continuation?
Brachial artery
An artery originating from the axillary artery passes through the quadrangular space of the teres major, teres minor, triceps brachii, and humerus. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery that this structure originates from?
3
An artery originating from the axillary artery has branches from the inferior margin of the pectoralis major muscle that contribute to the vascular supply of the breast in women. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery from which this structure originates?
2
An artery supplies the upper regions of the medial and anterior axillary walls. How many branches arise from the part of the axillary artery from which this structure originates?
1
The part of the axillary artery anterior to the subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle has 3 branches. How is this part oriented in relation to the pectoralis minor?
Distal
A blood vessel passes through the axilla to the inferior margin of the teres major muscle. What is formed by this continuation?
Brachial artery
A nerve innervates the skin on the lower lateral surface of the arm and the dorsal lateral surface of the hand. This nerve is the largest terminal branch of what formation?
Posterior cord of the brachial plexus
The cord of a plexus is positioned medial to the second part of the axillary artery. What nerve originates from this cord?
Ulnar nerve
The cord of a plexus is positioned posterior to the second part of the axillary artery. What nerve originates from this cord?
Thoracodorsal nerve
The cord of a plexus is positioned posterior to the second part of the axillary artery. What roots are the origin of this structure?
C5 to T1
The roots and trunks of a plexus enter the posterior triangle of the neck between the anterior scalene and middle scalene. What forms the inferior trunk of this plexus?
Union of C8 and T1 roots
A hinge joint with three separate articulations has a shared synovial cavity. One of the three articulations is involved in pronation and supination of the forearm. What structure forms an articulation with the head of the radius to enable this movement?
Radial notch of the ulna
A compartment of the arm is innervated by the radial nerve. What muscle is contained in this compartment?
Triceps brachii
An artery passes through the anterior compartment of the arm and terminates distal to the elbow joint. What vessel is medial to this artery?
Basilic vein
An artery passes through the anterior compartment of the arm and terminates distal to the elbow joint. This structure continues from what artery?
Axillary
A muscle enables extension of the forearm at the elbow joint. What is the insertion site of this muscle?
Proximal radius
A muscle innervated by the radial nerve enables extension of the forearm at the elbow joint. Where does the long head of this muscle originate?
Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
A muscle in the posterior compartment of the arm is innervated by the radial nerve. What movement does this structure enable?
Extension of the elbow
A muscle in the anterior compartment of the arm is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and enables flexion of the glenohumeral joint. Where does the long head of this muscle originate?
Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
A muscle extends from the coracoid process of the scapula to the midshaft of the humerus. Which nerve innervates this muscle?
Musculocutaneous nerve
A 58-year-old man cannot actively extend his left ring finger. On exam, his ring finger is flexed at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint and proximal interphalangeal joint. What tendon is malfunctioning?
Flexor digitorum superficialis
What muscle performs a flexion action despite its location on the posterior forearm?
Brachioradialis
What muscle forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox?
Extensor pollicus longus
What is a deep muscle of the posterior forearm?
Extensor pollicus brevis
A muscle within the deep layer of the posterior forearm is wrapped around the proximal end of the radius during protonation of the hand. What is a role of this muscle?
Supinator of forearm
A muscle in the intermediate layer of the forearm splits into two parts near the proximal phalanx of each finger. What other muscle’s tendon does this structure pass around posteriorly?
Flexor digitorum profundus
A square-shaped muscle in the deep layer of the distal forearm originates from a linear ridge on the lower ulna. Where does it insert?
Flat surface of the radius
A muscle in the deep layer of the anterior forearm originates from the anterior and medial surfaces of the ulna. What is another point of origin for this muscle?
Anterior surface of the interosseous membrane
A muscle in the intermediate layer of the forearm contains two heads, one of which originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Where is the second origin of this head?
Coronoid process of the ulna
A muscle in the superficial layer of the anterior forearm originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and passes to the lateral side of the anterior surface of the wrist. Where does it insert?
Bases of metacarpals II and III
An osteofibrous passageway leads from the wrist to the hand. What enables free movement of tendons within this structure?
Synovial sheath
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus, and the median nerve are contained by an osteofibrous passageway leading from the wrist to the hand. Which structure is deep to the tendons of the largest extrinsic flexor of the forearm?
Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus
An osteofibrous passageway leads from the wrist to the hand. What lies in the distal row of the osseous plane of this structure?
Trapezium
Joints in the upper limb, including the wrist and digits, display actions powered by flexor muscles. Which of them facilitates flexion and extension as main mechanisms of movement?
Interphalangeal joint
A group of muscles is associated with flexion of the wrist joint. Which muscle of this group is also responsible for abduction of the wrist?
Flexor carpi radialis
The joint of the first metacarpal facilitates flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction. What other bone makes up this joint?
Trapezium
A 26-year-old man is seen in the ED after cutting his wrist while opening a package with a knife. Upon examination, he cannot flex his thumb. What structure was injured?
Flexor pollicus longus
An adult demonstrates slight extension of the cervical and lumbar spine. What condition in these regions of the spine is likely?
Lordosis
A female teenager demonstrates abnormal lateral deviation of the thoracic spine. What condition is likely?
Scoliosis
Structures in the vertebral column increase in size as the column descends. Which part of these structures forms the walls of the spinal canal?
Vertebral arch
Five vertebrae compose a region of the vertebral column. What aspect of these structures is directed backward and is oval-shaped?
Pedicle
Structures protecting the spinal cord form foramina between discrete bodies, arches, and pedicles. Which of these structures is characterized by having a large cone-shaped transverse process?
L5
What grouping of vertebrae displays a heart-shaped body?
Thoracic
Which vertebrae contains an odontoid process that assists in rotational movement?
C2
A structure forms the central axis of bearing weight. Which region of this structure is subjected to forces that may cause anterior spondylolisthesis?
Lumbosacral
Cartilaginous structures between adjacent vertebrae enable motion of the spine and protection from heavy loads. Which component of these structures is composed of loose collagen fibers, water, and proteins?
Nucleus pulposus
The vertebral canal is smallest in which region of the vertebral column?
Thoracic
Bundles of fibers transmit information to and away from the spinal cord. Which of these structures provides innervation to the multifidus?
Medial branch of dorsal ramus
Bundles of fibers transmit information to and away from the spinal cord. Which part of these structures forms an intersecting convergence after exiting the vertebral column?
Plexus
Which spinal nerve supplies the lower extremities?
L3
Nervous tissue is protected from vertebrae by membrane-like coatings that cover the spinal cord. Analgesics target the space between which of these structures?
Dura mater and ligamentum flavum
Which of the spinal meninges is deepest? A. Arachnoid mater B. Epidural space C. Pia mater D. Subarachnoid space
C. Pia mater
Where does a branch re-enter the intervertebral foramen of a spinal nerve to supply the vertebrae?
Rami
What region of the mediastinum is significant regarding potential descending thoracic aortic aneurysm?
Posterior
Which region of the mediastinum can be obstructed by ingestion of foreign substances?
Superior
What region of the mediastinum contains no major named nerves?
Anterior
Which region of the mediastinum is innervated by the cardiac plexus?
Middle
A nerve inferior to the aortic arch controls the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid muscle. This structure is located in which region of the mediastinum?
Superior
The descending aorta courses slightly left of midline towards the diaphragm. This occurs in which region of the mediastinum?
Posterior
A major vessel of the heart originates from the right ventricle and branches into the right and left pulmonary arteries. This structure is located in which region of the mediastinum?
Middle
A soft bilobed gland is relatively large during early years and becomes comparatively smaller throughout adulthood. This structure is located in the superior portion of which region of the mediastinum?
Anterior
The thoracic musculature works in unison to support respiration. The superior portion of which part of this group inserts on ribs 2 through 5?
Serratus posterior
The intercostal arteries supply the muscles of the thoracic wall. They are located between the internal intercostal and what other structure?
Innermost intercostal
A muscle is attached to the sternal portion of the xiphoid process, the lumbar vertebrae, and the lower 6 ribs. How does this muscle aid in normal exhalation?
Passive relaxation
A muscle is attached to the sternal portion of the xiphoid process, the lumbar vertebrae, and the lower 6 ribs, How does this muscle aid in inspiration?
Pulls the central tendon inferiorly
The thoracic musculature works in unison to support respiration. In what direction does the innermost layer insert onto the rib below?
Superior and medial
The conducting zone of the respiratory system ends when terminal bronchioles divide into respiratory bronchioles. Which structure of subsequent divisions is the main site of gas exchange?
Alveolar sacs
The vessels of the lungs are classified into pulmonary and systemic groups with key differences of function, size, and origin. Which of these structures receives oxygenated blood from capillaries surrounding alveoli?
Pulmonary veins
Extensions of the trachea serve as branches of the bronchial tree, distributing air throughout the lungs. Subdivision of the primary two bronchi yields another secondary segment per lobe. How many secondary segments does the right lung contain?
3
A graduate student observes the typical differences in right versus left lung size. What accounts for the smaller volume of the left?
Heart
Organs within a pleural cavity provide oxygen to the blood. Their costal surface is molded to what structure?
Chest wall
Vascular and bronchial structures compose the attachment between the lungs and the mediastinum. These structures are located on which surface of the lung?
Medial
The oblique sinus of the pericardium is superior to what landmark?
Inferior vena cava
Which portion of the pericardium forms a space with the parietal layer to house pericardial fluid?
Serous layer
Ligaments attach the pericardium anteriorly to what?
Sternum
What may be caused by inflammation of the pericardium?
Pericardial effusion
What is facilitated by the pericardium?
Ventricular interdependence
Which of the following is one of the functions of the pericardium?
Separate a structure from encircling tissue
What is facilitated by the cavity formed between layers of the pericardium?
Providing a frictionless space for gliding movement
Defined surfaces of the heart are organized into layers. Which layer, under typical physiological conditions, contains adipose tissue constituting 20% of heart mass?
Epicardium
Endothelial cells arrange into a single layer to line the chambers of the heart. This layer is located on which inner surface?
Myocardium
Two atria are superior to two ventricles. Which of these contains the thickest wall?
Left ventricle
Two atria are superior to two ventricles. Which of these characteristically contains the crista terminalis?
Right atrium
Two atria are superior to two ventricles. Which of these forms the most posterior surface of the heart?
Left atrium
What is enclosed by the rectus sheath?
Pyramidalis
Which portion of the abdominal wall contains fibers from the external oblique?
Aponeuroses
What deep membranous layer of the abdominal wall is part of the subcutaneous tissue?
Scarper’s fascia
Which muscle of the abdominal wall originates from the lateral inguinal ligament and iliac crest?
Internal oblique
Which component of the spleen surrounds the central arteriole?
White pulp
What condition involving the spleen may result from bacterial infection?
Splenomegaly
What attaches the spleen to the lateral border of the stomach?
Gastrosplenic ligament
The spleen is located between the fundus of the stomach and what other structure?
Diaphragm
What marks the endpoint of the abdominal segment of the esophagus?
Fundus of the stomach
Where does the cervical segment of the esophagus begin?
Cricopharyngeus
What is superior to the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)?
Cardia
What is anterior to the upper esophageal sphincter?
Larynx
What mediates relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)?
Dorsal motor nucleus
What nerve provides primary innervation for peristaltic propulsion inside the esophagus?
Vagus nerve
What orientation does the pylorus of the stomach display in relation to the superior mesenteric artery?
Anterior
Which layer of the stomach contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels?
Submucosa
Which layer of the stomach is responsible for churning?
Muscularis
What dome-shaped portion is the superior portion of the stomach?
Fundus
What provides blood to the portion of the small intestine with the longest villi?
Superior mesenteric artery
What provides blood to the longest portion of the small intestine?
Superior mesenteric artery
Where in the small intestine are villi longest?
Jejunum
Which segment of the large intestine precedes the rectum?
Sigmoid colon
What is the proximal segment of the ascending portion of the large intestine?
Cecum
A portion of the alimentary canal absorbs water from indigestible contents. What else is absorbed by this structure?
Vitamins
What supplies blood to the proximal segment of the duodenum?
Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
Which segment of the duodenum extends transversely from left to right?
Third
Which segment of the duodenum contains the bulb?
First
What structure’s contraction is stimulated by the release of Cholecystokinin?
Gallbladder
What does bile secrete to protect from enteric infections?
IgA
What is the main pigment of bile and where in the body is it derived?
Bilirubin from red blood cells
What structure does bile flow through directly before formation of the right and left hepatic ducts?
Interlobular duct
What structure collects bile from the functional unit of the liver?
Intralobular duct
Where in the hepatic portal system is blood shuttled to the inferior vena cava?
Veins
Where in the hepatic portal system does blood mix with hepatic arterial supply?
Sinusoids
Which part of the hepatic portal system results from divisions of left and right branches of a major vein?
Venules
What does the portal vein travel to posteriorly upon entering the triad?
Hepatic artery
What percentage of blood supply does the hepatic portal system provide to the liver?
75%
What orientation does the uterus display in relation to the bladder?
Posterior
Which part of the bladder is at the base of the trigone?
Fundus
What supplies the upper portion of the ureters?
Renal arteries
What directly covers the kidney?
Fibrous capsule
What is anterior to the left kidney?
Descending colon
What is adjacent to the right kidney?
Duodenum
Which paired visceral branching of the abdominal aorta forms an anastomosis with the uterine artery?
Ovarian arteries
Which major branch of the abdominal aorta divides into the arteries that supply the sigmoid colon and superior rectum?
Inferior mesenteric artery
Which major branch of the abdominal aorta divides into the arteries that supply the liver, pancreas, and spleen?
Celiac trunk
Which portion of the pelvis partially composes the greater sciatic foramen?
Sacrospinous ligament
Which bone of the pelvis partially composes the obturator foramen?
Ischium
Which cartilaginous junction within the pelvis is located above the external genitalia?
Pubis symphysis
Which part of the pelvis supports the internal viscera?
Pelvic floor
Which part of the pelvis is significantly wider in females than in males?
Pelvic cavity
What supplies innervation to the middle segment of the pelvic ureter?
Ureteric plexus
What supplies innervation to the proximal segment of the pelvic ureter?
Renal plexus
What supplies the middle segment of the pelvic ureter?
Abdominal aorta
What composes the outermost layer of the ureter?
Circular muscle
What is located between the apex and fundus of the bladder?
Body
What provides voluntary somatic input to the internal sphincter of the bladder?
Hypogastric nerve
What part of the bladder comprises the posteroinferior portion?
Fundus
What orientation does the bladder typically display with respect to the rectum?
Anterior
What is the bladder posterior to?
Pubic symphysis
What structure receives seminal fluid from the testes, is estimated to be nearly 20 feet long when unraveled, and facilitates the maturation of sperm?
Epididymis
Paired tubular glands posteroinferior to the urinary bladder secrete fructose for energy for sperm motility. What structure produces this secretion?
Seminal vesicles
A structure within the spermatic cord delivers sperm to the ejaculatory duct. What lies near the junction of this structure and the seminal vesicle?
Prostate
Which part of the penis is compressed by the bulbospongiosus muscle during erection?
Deep dorsal vein
What supplies blood to the testes?
Cremasteric artery
What provides innervation to the anterior portion of the scrotum?
Genitofemoral nerve
Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules. What undergoes meiosis I?
Primary spermatocytes
The endpoint of the male urinary and reproductive systems is composed of a fibromuscular structure. What part of this structure travels the length of the penis?
Spongy urethra
Ductus deferens provide passage for the travel of mature germ cells. What organ merges with this structure to form the ejaculatory duct?
Seminal vesicle
What portion of the epididymis is connected to the vas deferens?
Tail
Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules. What cell type is present during the first stage of this process?
Spermatogonia
Blood and uterine materials are discharged through the vagina in cycles. Discharging of blood begins on which day of this cycle?
1
Which portion of the fallopian tubes contains fimbria?
Infundibulum
What supplies blood to the ovaries?
Abdominal aorta
Which portion of the uterus varies due to hormonal stimulation?
Endometrium
A structure represents a conduit between the uterus and vagina. What lines the inside of this canal?
Stratified squamous epithelium
What supplies blood to the vagina?
Internal iliac artery
A number of structures support female pelvic organs. Which of them is attached to the ovary inferiorly?
Ovarian ligament
Which portion of the broad ligament connects to the female gonad?
Mesovarium
Which portion of the broad ligament extends to the fallopian tube?
Mesosalpinx
Muscles are located in the compartment responsible for thigh adduction. Which of these muscles inserts on the medial proximal tibia?
Gracilis
Muscles are located in the compartment responsible for hip flexion and knee extension. Which of these muscles originates from the greater trochanter?
Vastus lateralis
The musculature of the femoral region is divided into three compartments. Which muscle of this region is inside the compartment responsible for hip flexion?
Sartorius
Which part of the femoral triangle is partially composed of the iliopsoas?
Floor
Which of the contents of the femoral triangle pass through the popliteal fossa?
Femoral artery
What forms the floor of the femoral triangle?
Pectineus
What forms the superior border of the femoral triangle?
Inguinal ligament
Multiple muscles activate to enable movement of the hip and increase stability of the body. Where does the smallest muscle in the posterior region of this group insert?
Greater trochanter
Multiple muscles activate to enable movement of the hip and increase stability of the body. Which muscle of the posterior region of this group originates between the anterior and posterior gluteal lines?
Gluteus medius
Multiple muscles activate to enable movement of the hip and increase stability of the body. Which muscle of the posterior region of this group originates on the gluteal line of the ilium?
Gluteus maximus
Multiple muscles activate to enable movement of the hip and increase stability of the body. What primary function is enabled by the largest muscle of the posterior region of this group?
Extensor of the hip
Myotomes distribute to skeletal muscles in the gluteal region. Which of these structures distributes to the tensor fasciae latae?
Superior gluteal nerve
Sensory fibers from a dermatome and cutaneous nerves provide innervation to the gluteal region. What dermatome number corresponds to the infragluteal fold?
S3
Sensory fibers from a dermatome and cutaneous nerves provide innervation to the gluteal region. Which of these fibers provides sensation to the upper buttock?
Superior cluneal nerve
Which compartment of the leg contains the plantaris?
Superficial posterior
What provides innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg?
Tibial nerve
Which compartment of the leg is innervated by the superficial fibular nerve?
Lateral
Which compartment of the leg contains the popliteus?
Deep posterior
The stability of the acetabulofemoral joint is enhanced by several ligaments. Which of these structures is independent of the joint capsule?
Transverse acetabular ligament
A bone rests in the concavity of the acetabulum in a ball and socket joint. What ridge extends down the posterior surface of this structure and is a source of attachment for the adductor longus?
Linea aspera
A ball and socket joint is the main point of articulation for the femur and pelvis. What is primarily enabled by the shape of the acetabulum?
Stability
What muscle enables flexion of the knee?
Biceps femoris
What is composed of fibrocartilage and supports the knee by absorbing shock?
Meniscus
What ligament supports the knee by inhibiting anterior translation of the tibia on the femur?
Anterior cruciate ligament
Which part of the knee do tibial condyles articulate with during flexion and extension?
Femoral condyles
What muscles supports inversion of the ankle?
Tibialis posterior
Which stabilizing structure of the ankle connects the tibia to another bone inferiorly?
Tibiocalcaneal ligament
What is the primary medial stabilizer of the ankle?
Deltoid ligament
What joins with the inferior articular surface of the tibia to form the mortise of the ankle?
Superior margin of the talus
What bones compose the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot?
Fourth and fifth metatarsal heads, cuboid, and calcaneus bones
What bones compose the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?
First three metatarsals, cuneiforms, navicular talus, and calcaneus bones
What muscle facilitates eversion of the foot?
Fibularis longus
What muscle facilitates inversion of the foot?
Tibialis posterior
What bone is located in the fore region of the foot?
First phalange
What bone is located in the mid-region of the foot?
Medial cuneiform
What bone is located in the hind region of the foot?
Calcaneus
Which vertebrae is characterized by having a large cone-shaped transverse process?
L5
What region is composed of the largest vertebrae?
Lumbar
Which grouping of vertebrae displays costal facets?
Thoracic
Which tract associated with the spinal cord originates in the brain and then ends in the spinal cord?
Descending tract
A structure forms the central axis of bearing weight. Which region of this structure displays the highest range of motion?
Craniocervical
A column composed of vertebrae presents several curves that correspond to different regions of the column. What region, with curve directed concave forward, displays kyphosis to provide space for organs?
Thoracic
A patient has an MRI joint showing hypertrophic arthropathy of the zygapophyseal joints. What part of the body is affected by this condition?
Spine
A structure is composed of water in a collagen matrix and provides suspension between vertebral bodies. Herniation of this structure may result in pressure applied to what part of a spinal nerve?
Root
The brain and the spinal cord make up the human central nervous system. In what region of the spine does the lower end of the spinal cord itself stop?
Conus medullaris
A 54-year-old man sustains a spinal cord injury during a motorcycle accident. Motor and sensory innervation is intact in his upper extremities, but not in his lower extremities. While testing dermatomes, it is found he has no response to testing at the level of his umbilicus.
What dermatome innervates the level of the umbilicus?
T10
What muscle is considered an extrinsic back muscle?
Latissimus dorsi
Blunt force trauma to the chest can lead to injury that markedly reduces the cardiac output by the collection of a large amount of blood between the heart muscle and what anatomical structure?
Pericardium
The pain fibers that innervate the pericardium are referred to which of the following areas of the body?
The left supraclavicular region
A 75-year-old patient on a ventilator who is positioned nearly upright in bed develops pneumonia, resulting in the drainage of pus from the lung into the pleural space. In this patient’s position, in what anatomic space would the pus most likely settle?
Costodiaphragmatic recess
A 27-year-old intoxicated man presents to the emergency department via EMS following a high-speed crash in which he was the unrestrained driver. He was intubated at the scene for combativeness. During the primary survey in the trauma bay, breath sounds are noted to be diminished on the right, and the respiratory therapist notes that it is difficult to ventilate the patient. A chest radiograph is ordered; it demonstrates a large right pneumothorax. The surgery resident prepares to insert a right thoracostomy tube.
Where is the appropriate placement of the chest tube?
Fifth intercostal space in the midaxillary line
Which of the following is the correct sequence of respiratory structures of the bronchial tree?
Primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles
When looking at cardiac circulation, the right side of the heart is filled with deoxygenated blood from what structure?
Vena cava
A man went to the ED after feeling extremely fatigued the past couple of days. He has noted ankle swelling and occasional shortness of breath. After an echocardiogram was performed, it was found that his heart is not pumping the proper amount of blood with each contraction. What is the term for the amount of blood pumped from the ventricles with each beat?
Ejection fraction
Where do the fibers that directly provide sympathetic innervation to the sino-atrial (SA) node have their cell bodies?
The cervical and thoracic paravertebral ganglion
A 40-year-old female breast cancer patient underwent chemotherapy and has developed a low blood cell count. Which primary lymphoid organ is affected?
Bone marrow
In attempting to identify and dissect the thymus gland in the chest, where can the anatomist most likely locate it?
Superior and anterior to the heart
75% of the breast lymphatics drain directly into what nodes?
Pectoral nodes
Transection of which spinal roots would result in the complete paralysis of the thoracic diaphragm on the affected side?
C 3, 4, 5
Which of the following sets of organs is the correct sequence of the alimentary tract?
Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
Which of the following anatomical landmarks indicates where the navel is situated?
Ventral
Which structure lies anterior to the spleen?
Stomach
Which lobes of the liver are directly separated by the falciform ligament?
Left lobe and right lobe
Which bile duct drains the bile directly from the largest lobe of the liver?
Right hepatic duct
The portal triad, made up of the hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein, and common bile duct, is often clamped to control bleeding from the liver in trauma surgery. If bleeding stops with this maneuver, it indicates injury to the hepatic artery or portal vein that may be causing bleeding. If the liver continues to bleed with clamping of the portal triad, what structure is likely injured?
Hepatic vein
Glucagon is an endocrine hormone produced from which pancreatic cells?
Alpha cells
Thrombosis of what vessel would result in increased portal vein pressure but normal hepatic sinusoid pressure?
Portal vein
The lymphatic vessels from the spleen directly drain to which lymph nodes?
Pancreaticosplenic lymph nodes
What vessel is adjacent to the head of the pancreas?
Superior mesenteric artery
What is the correct sequence of organs that bile passes through?
Liver, gallbladder, ampulla of Vater, duodenum
A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has had similar episodes over the past 2 years after eating, but they typically resolve with time. This episode started last night following dinner and has not remitted. The pain is sharp and in her right upper quadrant. She denies fever or chills. Her vital signs are within normal limits and confirm that she is afebrile. On physical exam, she appears moderately uncomfortable. Her sclera are clear and without jaundice or injection. She has tenderness to palpation in her right upper quadrant and arrests respiration with deep palpation of the area. Labs are notable for an elevated white blood cell count to 15,000 but have no other abnormalities. A right upper quadrant ultrasound demonstrates gallstones, thickened gallbladder wall, and pericholecystic fluid.
What is her most likely diagnosis?
Acute cholecystitis
What best describes the renal capsule?
Consists of collagen-rich fibrous connective tissue
Which of the following urinary system sequences is the exact urine excretion pathway?
Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, urethra
The blood supply to the entire small intestine comes from branches of a single artery. Which artery is this?
Superior mesenteric artery
As chyme passes through the gastrointestinal system, it must pass through the ileocecal valve. What portion of the large intestine does this valve pass the chyme into?
Cecum
What artery supplies nutrients and oxygen to the cervical portion of the esophagus?
Inferior thyroid artery
Where in our body can the highly-erosive hydrochloric acid be found?
Stomach
A 42-year-old man with a history of anxiety and peptic ulcer disease develops severe back pain. An analysis reveals the presence of amylase, lipase, and peptidase in his stomach. This patient’s condition is caused by erosion of a peptic ulcer in what structure?
Pancreas
A 67-year-old man presents to his physician for an annual checkup. He has no acute complaints but does admit to increased fatigue, an unintentional 20-pound weight loss over the last year, and worsening constipation. He has never had a prior colonoscopy. On physical exam, he appears pale and fatigued but not acutely ill. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. His rectal exam is heme-occult negative. He is referred for a colonoscopy where the endoscopist discovers a circumferential mass in his sigmoid colon. He undergoes resection of the sigmoid colon, Hartmann’s pouch creation, and diverting colostomy.
What vessel was divided to complete this sigmoid resection and what is its embryological origin?
Inferior mesenteric artery; hindgut
Which of the following sequences of the portions of the small intestine is correct?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
A 28-year-old man presents with buffalo hump, thinning arms, hypertension, and diabetes. He is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. What leads to development of this syndrome when produced in excess?
Cortisol
Which vein emerges from the hilum of the adrenal glands rich with cortisol, norepinephrine, and epinephrine from these glands?
Medullary vein
The suprarenal or adrenal glands are located atop the kidneys on either side of the body. Which layer of these organs is responsible for synthesizing most of the androgens by these structures?
Zona reticularis
A patient dislocated their hip in a car accident. Anatomically, the head of the femur would have slipped out of what structure, leaving them in intense pain?
Acetabulum
What is the largest component of the hip bone?
Ilium
Injury to the L5 nerve root from a sacral fracture would produce what type of symptoms?
Dysfunction of foot dorsiflexion
How many bones comprise the pelvic girdle?
2
A pregnant woman in labor wants as natural a birth as possible. Her OB/GYN provider has agreed to accommodate her wishes by giving a local anesthetic to her vaginal vault. What type of pain control is being utilized to her perineum?
Pudendal block
What best describes the function of the scrotum?
Promotes production and viability of sperm
What is the correct sequence of the male urethral sections, beginning from the innermost?
Prostatic, membranous, spongy
The obturator artery is a minor artery that supplies the head of the femur at the hip joint. Which ligament encloses this artery?
Ligament of the head of the femur
A 49-year-old man presents due to groin pain. At his next appointment, the physician tells him the bulging is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia is he diagnosed with?
Direct
The hip joint is considered what type of joint?
Ball and socket joint
A 50-year-old woman was ice skating when she fell and damaged the right medial side of her leg. Which area of the leg was damaged?
Tibia
What does the tibial nerve pass through before termination in the foot?
Tarsal tunnel
A 65-year-old man who has recently retired notices pain in his right foot that develops midway through a round of golf. He presents to the clinic and is observed to have thickened nails on his right big toe, a small ulcer at the ball of his foot (medial side at the head of the first metatarsal), and lack of hair on the anterior surface of his right ankle and lower leg. An arteriogram reveals occlusive arterial disease in the right popliteal artery just inferior to the adductor hiatus.
What is most likely in this patient?
Branches of femoral artery will provide perfusion to lower leg
What is the term for when a baby is born with the left foot twisted inward with the arch angle increased?
Clubfoot
Which bone of the ankle or foot is a part of the ankle joint?
Talus
In an exam for peripheral vascular disease, the pulses of which arteries in the foot are normally palpated?
Dorsalis pedis artery, posterior tibial artery
The pes anserine bursa lies deep to which three muscles?
Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus
