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Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

A network of vessels and nodes that conveys lymph

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2
Q

Sections of the lymphatic system?

A

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary

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3
Q

What is lymph?

A

Clear-to-white fluid of white blood cells

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4
Q

Functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Defends against pathogens
Makes lymphocytes
Removes excess fluid
Absorption and transport of fats to the blood stream

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5
Q

What happens at primary lymphoid organs?

A

Immune cells develop

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6
Q

Main site of haematopoiesis?

A

Bone marrow

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7
Q

Where do T-cells mature?

A

Thymus

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8
Q

Why is a bone marrow transplant also called a stem cell transplant?

A

Stem cells can now be collected from blood rather than bone marrow

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9
Q

Primary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus
Bone marrow

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10
Q

T-cell development process?

A

Precursors travel from bone marrow to thymus via blood
Pass through development stages in thymus
Selected on basis of self reactivity to MHC
Proliferate extensively but most die

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11
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymph nodes
Spleen
Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

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12
Q

What happens at secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Immune response initiated

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13
Q

Where can MALT be found?

A

Tonsils
Peyers patches (small intestine)
Appendix
Lymphoid follicles in mucous membranes

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14
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found?

A

Ileum of small intestine

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15
Q

Where is the spleen found?

A

upper left side of abdomen, next to stomach and behind left ribs

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16
Q

Functions of the spleen?

A

fights invading germs in the blood
it controls the level of blood cells
it filters the blood and removes any old or damaged red blood cells

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17
Q

Where is white pulp found?

A

Spleen

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18
Q

What does white pulp contain?

A

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) rich in T-lymphocytes and macrophages

A marginal zone, rich in macrophages

Lymphoid follicles, rich in naive B-lymphocytes

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19
Q

Purpose of the marginal zone in white pulp?

A

A trap for antigens

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20
Q

What separates the red and white pulp?

A

Marginal zone

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21
Q

What is red pulp made up of?

A

tissue known as the cords, which is rich in macrophages, and the venous sinus

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22
Q

Functions of the red pulp?

A

Removal of old, dead, damaged or unwanted red blood cells

Phagocytosis of opsonised bacteria by macrophages

Storage of red blood cells in case of hypovolaemia, these can then be released following an injury resulting in blood loss

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

What are the first organised structures of the lymphatic system to face pathogens?

A

Lymph nodes

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25
Lymph node function?
filter lymphatic fluid to isolate and kill foreign invaders that cause infection or disease
26
Function of lymph nodes?
filter lymphatic fluid to isolate and kill foreign invaders that cause infection or disease
27
What do lymph nodes contain?
Lymphocytes
28
Key locations for lymph nodes?
armpits, neck, groin, upper abdomen, and mediastinum
29
Regions of the lymph node?
Cortex Follicle Para-cortex Medulla
30
What is contained in the cortex of the lymph node?
B cells Macrophages Follicular dendritic cells
31
What happens at the follicle of the lymph node?
It is a micro environment to support development of B cells
32
What is contained in the para-cortex?
T cells Dendritic cells
33
What happens at the medulla of the lymph nodes?
Lymphocytes exit
34
Purpose of MALT?
Organises response to antigen entering mucosal membrane
35
Examples of organised MALT?
Tonsils Adenoids Peyer’s patches
36
Where are M-cells found?
MALT
37
Structure and function of M-cells?
Specialised epithelial cells of MALT that transport antigen across epithelium
38
What is GALT?
Gut associated lymphoid tissue
39
Where is tertiary lymphoid tissue?
The site of infection
40
How can the abdomen be divided?
In quadrants RUQ LUQ RLQ LLQ
41
Structures located in RUQ?
Liver Gall bladder Duodenum Head of the pancreas Right adrenal gland Portion of the right kidney portions of the ascending and transverse colon
42
Conditions arising from RUQ?
Biliary colic Hepatitis Peptic ulcer Pancreatitis Renal colic Herpes zoster Myocardial ischaemia
43
Structure located in the LUQ?
Left lobe of liver Stomach Spleen Body of pancreas Left adrenal gland Portion of left kidney Portions of the transverse and descending colon
44
Conditions arising from LUQ?
Gastritis Splenic enlargement or rupture Pancreatitis Renal colic Herpes zoster Myocardial ischaemia
45
Structure located in the RLQ?
Lower portion of the right kidney Caecum and appendix Portion of the ascending colon Ovary and Fallopian tube Uterus IF enlarged Right ureter
46
Conditions arising from RLQ?
Appendicitis Diverticulitis Intestinal obstruction Renal colic Ectopic pregnancy Ovarian cysts Salpingitis Endometriosis
47
Structures located in LLQ?
Lower portion of left kidney Sigmoid colon Portion of the descending colon Ovary and Fallopian tube Uterus IF enlarged Left ureter
48
Conditions arising from LLQ?
Diverticulitis Intestinal obstruction Renal colic IBS Ectopic pregnancy Ovarian cysts Salpingitis Endometriosis
49
Primary function of the lymphatic system?
Immune defence
50
What component of blood is filtered by lymph nodes?
White blood cells
51
Main function of the tonsils in the lymphatic system?
Protect against infections
52
Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the lower half of the body and returns it to the circulatory system?
Thoracic duct
53
Primary function of lymphatic capillaries?
Absorb dietary fats
54
Lymphatic vessels that transport lymph away from lymph nodes?
Efferent vessels
55
Lymphatic vessels that transport lymph to lymph nodes?
Afferent vessels
56
Primary function of natural killer cells in the lymphatic system?
Cell-mediated cytotoxicity
57
Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the upper right side of the body into the circulatory system?
Right subclavian vein
58
Main function of the lymphatic system in response to tissue injury or infection?
Drain excess fluid tissue and return it to bloodstream
59
Which lymphatic organ decrease in size and function as a person ages?
Thymus
60
Primary function of lymphatic vessels in the digestive system?
Absorb and transport dietary fats
61
Name for enlarged lymph nodes?
Lymphadenopathy
62
Primary function of the lymphatic nodules in the mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts?
Trap and remove foreign particles
63
Which lymphatic vessel collects lymph from the right arm and right side of the head and neck?
Right subclavian vein
64
What is the main function of the lacteals in the small intestine?
Absorb and transport dietary fats
65
Main function of lymphatic vessels in the skin?
Drain excess tissue fluid
66
What is the largest lymphatic organ?
Spleen
67
Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the left side of the head, neck and upper chest and returns it to the circulatory system?
Left subclavian vein
68
What are the primary lymphatic vessels that carry lymph from peripheral tissue towards the heart?
Lymphatic capillaries
69
What lymphatic organ acts as a reservoir for the red blood cells and platelets?
Spleen
70
What is the name of specialised lymphatic capillaries found in the small intestine that absorb dietary fats?
Lacteals
71
Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the right leg and lower right side of the body and returns it to the circulatory system?
Hepatic vein
72
What are epigenetics?
A pattern of inheritance in which a gene or chromosome is modified temporarily that changes gene expression and function or regulation of DNA, protein, or RNA molecule, without changing their primary sequence Mechanism that can selectively activate or silence genes without modifying the nucleotide sequence
73
What doesn’t change in a gene/chromosome with epigenetics mechanism?
Their primary sequence
74
What lifestyle factors can affect epigenetics?
Recreational drugs Medication Diet Exercise
75
What are stable epigenetic modifications?
Can be passed on to next generations
76
What are dynamic epigenetic modifications?
A response to external stimuli
77
Mammalian cells only allow one X chromosome to remain active, what happens to the other(s)?
Inactivated forming a Barr body
78
What is a Barr body?
An inactivated X chromosome
79
What explain why phenotypes associated with X chromosomes are less severe that those associated with Y chromosomes?
Only one X remains active
80
Number of Barr bodies in a normal female?
1
81
Number of Barr bodies in a normal male?
0
82
Number of Barr bodies in a turner syndrome female? (XO)
0
83
Number of Barr bodies in a triple X syndrome female?
2
84
Number of Barr bodies in a Klinefelter syndrome male? (XXY)
1
85
What is genomic imprinting?
A form of epigenetic inheritance in which expression of a gene depends on parent sex
86
What is the most known epigenetic modification?
DNA methylation
87
What happens during DNA methylation?
A methyl group is added to cytosine in a CpG site (region needed for gene regulation and expression)
88
What does methylation of cytosine in DNA cause?
Silence of genes
89
What are classical genetics controlled by?
Promotors, enhancers or protein binding sites that are present or absent in the DNA sequence
90
An example of classical genetic regulation?
Oncogenes
91
What is an oncogene?
A gene that contributes to cancer. Not usually expressed but can acquire a mutation to allow it to be expressed
92
Main difference between genetic and epigenetic regulation?
Epigenetics do not involve changes to DNA sequence
93
What does the ‘epi’ in epigenetics represent?
‘On top of’ Meaning regulation on top up usual genetic mechanisms
94
Types of cancer drugs that target epigenetic?
DNA methyl-transferase inhibitors Histone de-acetylase inhibitors
95
examples of DNA methyl-transferase inhibitors?
Azacitidine Decitabine
96
How does azacitidine work?
Inhibits methyltranferase to prevent epigenetic modification Covalent binding to DNA methyltransferase results in DNA hypomethylation and prevents DNA synthesis
97
Examples of Histone de-acetylase inhibitors?
Vorinostat Romidepsin
98
What is carcinogenesis?
The molecular process by which cancer develops
99
What are agents that cause cancer known as?
Carcinogens
100
Stages of carcinogenesis?
Initiation Promotion Transformation Progression
101
What is the first stage of carcinogenesis?
Initiation
102
What is the second stage of carcinogenesis?
Promotion
103
What is the third stage of carcinogenesis?
Transformation
104
What is the fourth stage of carcinogenesis?
Progression
105
What happens during initiation in carcinogenesis?
Random change in the genetic make up of a cell Carcinogen(s) interacts with DNA causing damage in location of a gene that regulates cell growth If repair mechanisms do not occur the cell may turn cancerous
106
What happens during promotion in carcinogenesis?
Mutated cells are stimulated and start to divide forming a population which is the beginning for a benign tumour Stage is still reversible
107
What happens during progression in carcinogenesis?
Malignant conversion stage Irreversible Changes in cell genome structure Increased growth rate Biochemical changes and neoplastic cells born Tumour expands
108
What do tumour suppressor genes do?
Associated with healthy cell activities including growth, differentiation and apoptosis Produce proteins that inhibit cell reproduction during inappropriate times
109
What happens to tumour suppressor cells when cancer occurs?
They can become inactivated
110
What are proto-oncogenes?
Altered versions of normal genes, regulate cell growth and survival
111
How do proto-oncogenes become oncogenes?
Through mutation
112
What is the most common tumour suppression gene associated with cancer?
P53 inactivation
113
Why do we study colon cancer as a model for studying multi-stage carcinogenesis?
Many of the described genetic changes have been identified in the development of colon cancer
114
Stages of carcinogenesis described in colon cancer?
Mutations of the APC (adenomatous polyposis coli) DCC (deletion in colon cancer gene) Changes in P53 gene DNA micro satellite instability
115
What percentage of colon cancer cases are due to irregular mutations rather than hereditary factors?
85%
116
Lung cancer tumour markers?
CA125 CEA
117
Lung cancer tumour markers?
CA125 CEA
118
Liver cancer tumour marker?
AFP
119
Prostate cancer tumour marker?
PSA
120
Testicular cancer tumour markers?
AFP HCG
121
Breast cancer tumour markers?
CA125 CEA HER2
122
Stomach cancer tumour marker?
CEA
123
Colon cancer tumour maker?
CEA
124
Pancreatic cancer tumour markers?
CA125 CEA
125
Ovarian cancer tumour markers?
CA125 CEA
126
CA125 can be a tumour marker for what kinds of cancer?
Lung Breast Pancreatic Ovarian
127
CEA can be a tumour marker for which kinds of cancer?
Lung Breast Stomach Colon Pancreatic Ovarian
128
AFP can be a tumour maker for which cancers?
Liver Testicular
129
PSA can be a tumour marker for which cancer?
Prostate
130
HCG can be a tumour marker for which type of cancer?
Testicular
131
HER2 can be a tumour marker for which kind of cancer?
Breast
132
What are tumour markers?
Substances produced by cells of the body in response to cancer or benign conditions
133
What can most tumour markers be detected?
Blood Urine Stool Tumour tissue Other body fluid samples
134
Benefits of the use of tumour markers?
Highly sensitive and specific for early detection Can be used to manage some kinds of cancer Helps to know stages and suitable therapies Determine whether responding to treatment
135
Limitations of using tumour markers?
Can suggest but not diagnose Can also increase in non cancerous condition Not all cancer patients have raised markers Markers not identified for all types of cancer
136
Main portions of the GI tract?
Oesophagus Stomach Small intestine Large intestine Rectum
137
Accessory glands to the GI tract?
Teeth Tongue Salivary glands Liver Gall bladder Pancreas
138
Four layers of the GI tract?
Mucosa Sun mucosa Muscularis propria Adventita
139
Layers of the GI mucosa?
Epithelium Lamina propria Muscularis mucosa
140
What is the smooth muscle layer of the GI tract called?
Muscularis propria
141
What is the Muscularis propria?
Smooth muscle layer of the GI tract
142
Describe the Muscularis propria?
Smooth muscle layer of two layers The inner circular muscle and the outer longitudinal layer
143
Function of the Muscularis propria?
Peristalsis
144
Peristalsis definition?
Contraction to produce rhythmic waves to facilitate the food movement down the gut
145
Salivary digestive enzymes?
Salivary amylase Lingual lipase
146
Source of salivary amylase?
Salivary glands
147
Source of lingual lipase?
Lingual glands in tongue
148
Substrates for salivary amylase?
Starches
149
Substrates for lingual lipase?
Triglycerides and other lipids
150
Purpose of teeth?
Mechanical digestion
151
What is enamel made of?
Calcium salts
152
Enamel purpose?
Protects tooth from wear and tear
153
What is dentin?
Calcified connective tissue Makes up the majority of the tooth
154
What does salivary amylase convert polysaccharides (starch) to?
Disaccharides (maltose)
155
Another term for swallowing?
Deglutition
156
Three phases of swallowing?
Oral Pharyngeal Oesophageal
157
What happens during the oral phase of swallowing?
Food prepared into a food bolus of appropriate size to pass from mouth into oropharynx Further channeled by back of tongue and other pharynx muscles Voluntary elevation of soft palate required to prevent food entering nose Cranial nerves involved
158
What is voluntary elevation of the soft palate required during swallowing?
To prevent food from entering the nose
159
Cranial nerves involved in the oral phase of swallowing?
Trigeminal Facial Hypoglossal
160
What happens during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?
Bolus reaches pharynx Sensory receptors activate the involuntary part of swallowing pushing food back further into oesophagus Larynx closes by epiglottis during this stage
161
What closes the larynx during the pharyngeal phases of swallowing?
Epiglottis Vocal cords
162
Why does the larynx close during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?
Prevents food and other particles from getting into the trachea and lungs
163
What happens during the oesophageal phase of swallowing?
Leads food to stomach by peristalsis
164
What serves as a physical barrier to regurgitated food?
Oesophageal sphincters
165
What are the two oesophageal sphincters?
Upper and lower
166
Functions of the stomach?
Mixes saliva, food and gastric juice to form chyme Reservoir for food before released to small intestine Secretes gastric juice, pepsin, intrinsic factor and gastric lipase Secretes gastrin into blood
167
What does gastric juice contain?
Hydrochloric acid Pepsis Intrinsic factor Gastric lipase
168
Purpose of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice?
Kills bacteria and denatures proteins
169
Purpose of pepsin in gastric juice?
Begins digestion of proteins
170
Purpose of intrinsic factor in gastric juice?
Aids absorption of vitamin B12
171
Purpose of gastric lipase in gastric juice?
Aids digestion of triglycerides
172
What secretes gastrin?
G cells in stomach, duodenum and pancreas
173
Purpose of gastrin?
Stimulates stomach to release hydrochloric acid
174
How is pepsin formed?
Hydrochloric acid converts pepsinogen to pepsin
175
Inactive form of pepsin?
Pepsinogen
176
Types of cell in the stomach?
Surface mucous cells Mucous neck cells Parietal cells Chief cells G cells
177
What do surface mucous cells in the stomach secrete?
Mucous
178
What do mucous neck cells in the stomach secrete?
Mucous
179
What do parietal cells in the stomach secrete?
Hydrochloric acid Intrinsic factor
180
What do chief cells in the stomach secrete?
Pepsinogen Gastric lipase
181
What do G cells in the stomach secrete?
Gastrin
182
Where does most digestion and absorption occur?
Small intestine
183
Purpose of circular folds in the small intestine?
Increase surface area for digestion and absorption
184
Purpose of intestinal juice?
Provides a vehicle for absorption of substances from chyme as they come into contact with the villi
185
Where are brush border enzymes found?
Surface of the microvilli of absorptive cells
186
Purpose of brush border enzymes?
Break down food products
187
Where is the pancreas found?
Posterior to the stomach
188
What does the pancreas produce?
Enzymes that digest carbohydrates, proteins, fats and nucleic acids Sodium bicarbonate to buffer stomach acid
189
Why does the pancreas produce sodium bicarbonate?
Buffers the stomach acid
190
Where does the pancreas empty it’s contexts?
The duodenum
191
What does the liver make?
Bile
192
What is bile important for?
Emulsification of fats
193
Where is bile stored?
The gallbladder
194
What delivers bile from the liver to the gallbladder?
The common bile duct
195
Sections of the large intestine?
Cecum Ascending colon Transverse colon Descending colon Sigmoid colon Rectum Anal canal Anus
196
Functions of the large intestine?
1) Haustral churning and peristalsis drive contents of the colon into the rectum 2) bacteria in large intestine convert protein to amino acids, break down amino acids, produce some B vitamins and vitamin K 3) absorption of some water, ions and vitamins 4) formation of faeces 5) defecation
197
What do bacteria in the large intestine do?
Break down substances such as proteins Synthesise vitamins such as some B and vitamin K
198
What vitamins to bacteria in the large intestine produce?
Some B vitamins Vitamin K
199
What does faeces consist of?
Water Inorganic salts Sloughed off epithelial cells Bacteria Products of bacterial decomposition Undigested portions of food
200
Name three macronutrients?
Lipid Protein Carbohydrate
201
Two methods of digestion?
Chemical Mechanical
202
What neurons control the digestive system?
Enteric nervous system
203
Is the enteric system autonomic or somatic?
Autonomic
204
What is mechanical digestion?
Large particles are broken down into smaller particles using physical force
205
What is chemical digestion?
Large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules through chemical reactions
206
What is segmentation? (GI)
Muscle contractions which force food to mix together into a single solution
207
Types of mechanical digestion?
Segmentation Peristalsis
208
How is chemical digestion sped up?
By digestive enzymes
209
How do digestive enzymes work?
They recognise a specific macronutrient Bind them together And break bond that exist between the molecules
210
211
What is gastric emptying?
The rate the stomach allows food the enter the small intestine
212
Phases of mechanical digestion?
Propulsion Grinding Retropulsion
213
What is the propulsion phase of mechanical digestion?
Food pushed against an almost closed pyloric sphincter. Pressure forces smaller food particles into the small intestine
214
What is the grinding phase of mechanical digestion?
Muscle contractions trap food in the antrum and churn it through segmentation
215
What is the retropulsion phase of mechanical digestion?
Large particles are forced back into the body of the stomach
216
217
Main features of the stomach?
Antrum Body Fundus Pyloric sphincter
218
Function of the antrum?
Rhythmic contractions of smooth muscle mechanically digest food
219
Function of the body of the stomach?
Stores most food
220
Function of the fundus?
Stores gases released during chemical digestion and extra food when a large meal in consumed
221
What is the pyloric sphincter?
A ring of smooth muscle that controls passage of food out of the stomach and into the small intestine
222
What happens to large objects that cannot be mechanically digested?
After the phase of mechanical digestion the pyloric sphincter relaxes to allow large, undigested objects to pass into the small intestine
223
Another name for sugars?
Saccharides
224
Simple sugars?
Monosaccharides Disaccharides
225
What bond links sugar molecules?
Glycosidic
226
How many sugar molecules on an oligosaccharide?
3-10
227
How many sugar molecules in polysaccharides?
>10
228
Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?
In the mouth
229
Which sugar molecules can be absorbed?
Only monosaccharides so the others must be broken down
230
Examples of monosaccharides?
Glucose Fructose Galactose
231
Example of disaccharides?
Lactose Maltose
232
Example of polysaccharides?
Starch Cellulose
233
What is sucrose made up of?
Fructose and glucose
234
What is lactose made up of?
Glucose and galactose
235
What is maltose made up of?
Two glucose
236
Can cellulose be broken down by humans?
No
237
An example of dietary fibre?
Cellulose
238
Why does cellulose act as dietary fibre?
It passes through the GI tract undigested and holds more water in the digestive tract
239
What type of bond is a glycosidic bond?
Covalent
240
Types of food higher in fibre?
Fruit Vegetables While grains Nuts Seeds
241
Main site of absorption of monosaccharide?
Small intestine
242
How many amino acids in our body?
20
243
How many essential amino acids?
9
244
What are essential amino acids?
Amino acids that must be obtained from diet as the body cannot produce these
245
What can denature proteins in food?
Cooking Acidic environment of the stomach
246
What enzyme breaks down proteins?
Pepsin
247
How does pepsin work?
Binds proteins and breaks peptide bonds
248
Can digestive enzymes break any peptide bond?
No, only able to break peptide bonds after certain amino acids
249
What protein products can be absorbed without further digestion?
Amino acids Tripeptides Dipeptides
250
What protein products cannot be absorbed without further digestion?
Tetramers Polypeptides
251
Where does most lipid digestion occur?
Small intestine
252
Why do lipid-rich meals trigger a delay in gastric emptying?
So the contents reach the small intestine at the same time as bile salts are released from the gall bladder so they are emulsified to form micelles
253
What are micelles? (Lipid digestion)
Emulsified fat droplets that have a single layer of bile salts and phospholipids surrounding a lipid core
254
Why does micelle formation increase lipid digestion?
Increased the surface area of the lipid droplet so more enzymes can bind
255
What are the four main sources of lipids in the diet?
Fatty acids Triglycerides Phospholipid Cholesterol
256
What length fatty acids can be absorbed straight into the bloodstream?
Small Medium
257
What are triglycerides?
Three fatty acids bound to a glycerol
258
Events involved in lipid digestion?
Delay of stomach emptying Bile salt secretion Formation of micelles Micelle and enzyme interaction Lipid digestion
259
What happens to micelles in the small intestine?
Fat soluble lipids within micelle diffuse into cell when they come into contact with epithelial cell membrane Free fatty acids reassembled into triglycerides by SER Packaged in Golgi apparatus for export as chylomicrons Exit cell into lymph vessels called lacteals
260
What are chylomicrons?
A type of transport proteins that contains a lipid
261
Structural difference between a micelle and a chylomicron?
Chylomicrons have proteins on the surface instead of bile salts
262
How does the acidic environment in the stomach help protein digestion?
Denatures proteins which gives proteases better access to the peptide bonds

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