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301 > Anatomy & Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

A network of vessels and nodes that conveys lymph

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2
Q

Sections of the lymphatic system?

A

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary

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3
Q

What is lymph?

A

Clear-to-white fluid of white blood cells

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4
Q

Functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Defends against pathogens
Makes lymphocytes
Removes excess fluid
Absorption and transport of fats to the blood stream

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5
Q

What happens at primary lymphoid organs?

A

Immune cells develop

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6
Q

Main site of haematopoiesis?

A

Bone marrow

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7
Q

Where do T-cells mature?

A

Thymus

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8
Q

Why is a bone marrow transplant also called a stem cell transplant?

A

Stem cells can now be collected from blood rather than bone marrow

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9
Q

Primary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus
Bone marrow

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10
Q

T-cell development process?

A

Precursors travel from bone marrow to thymus via blood
Pass through development stages in thymus
Selected on basis of self reactivity to MHC
Proliferate extensively but most die

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11
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymph nodes
Spleen
Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

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12
Q

What happens at secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Immune response initiated

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13
Q

Where can MALT be found?

A

Tonsils
Peyers patches (small intestine)
Appendix
Lymphoid follicles in mucous membranes

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14
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found?

A

Ileum of small intestine

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15
Q

Where is the spleen found?

A

upper left side of abdomen, next to stomach and behind left ribs

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16
Q

Functions of the spleen?

A

fights invading germs in the blood
it controls the level of blood cells
it filters the blood and removes any old or damaged red blood cells

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17
Q

Where is white pulp found?

A

Spleen

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18
Q

What does white pulp contain?

A

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) rich in T-lymphocytes and macrophages

A marginal zone, rich in macrophages

Lymphoid follicles, rich in naive B-lymphocytes

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19
Q

Purpose of the marginal zone in white pulp?

A

A trap for antigens

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20
Q

What separates the red and white pulp?

A

Marginal zone

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21
Q

What is red pulp made up of?

A

tissue known as the cords, which is rich in macrophages, and the venous sinus

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22
Q

Functions of the red pulp?

A

Removal of old, dead, damaged or unwanted red blood cells

Phagocytosis of opsonised bacteria by macrophages

Storage of red blood cells in case of hypovolaemia, these can then be released following an injury resulting in blood loss

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

What are the first organised structures of the lymphatic system to face pathogens?

A

Lymph nodes

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25
Q

Lymph node function?

A

filter lymphatic fluid to isolate and kill foreign invaders that cause infection or disease

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26
Q

Function of lymph nodes?

A

filter lymphatic fluid to isolate and kill foreign invaders that cause infection or disease

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27
Q

What do lymph nodes contain?

A

Lymphocytes

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28
Q

Key locations for lymph nodes?

A

armpits, neck, groin, upper abdomen, and mediastinum

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29
Q

Regions of the lymph node?

A

Cortex
Follicle
Para-cortex
Medulla

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30
Q

What is contained in the cortex of the lymph node?

A

B cells
Macrophages
Follicular dendritic cells

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31
Q

What happens at the follicle of the lymph node?

A

It is a micro environment to support development of B cells

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32
Q

What is contained in the para-cortex?

A

T cells
Dendritic cells

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33
Q

What happens at the medulla of the lymph nodes?

A

Lymphocytes exit

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34
Q

Purpose of MALT?

A

Organises response to antigen entering mucosal membrane

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35
Q

Examples of organised MALT?

A

Tonsils
Adenoids
Peyer’s patches

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36
Q

Where are M-cells found?

A

MALT

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37
Q

Structure and function of M-cells?

A

Specialised epithelial cells of MALT that transport antigen across epithelium

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38
Q

What is GALT?

A

Gut associated lymphoid tissue

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39
Q

Where is tertiary lymphoid tissue?

A

The site of infection

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40
Q

How can the abdomen be divided?

A

In quadrants
RUQ
LUQ
RLQ
LLQ

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41
Q

Structures located in RUQ?

A

Liver
Gall bladder
Duodenum
Head of the pancreas
Right adrenal gland
Portion of the right kidney
portions of the ascending and transverse colon

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42
Q

Conditions arising from RUQ?

A

Biliary colic
Hepatitis
Peptic ulcer
Pancreatitis
Renal colic
Herpes zoster
Myocardial ischaemia

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43
Q

Structure located in the LUQ?

A

Left lobe of liver
Stomach
Spleen
Body of pancreas
Left adrenal gland
Portion of left kidney
Portions of the transverse and descending colon

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44
Q

Conditions arising from LUQ?

A

Gastritis
Splenic enlargement or rupture
Pancreatitis
Renal colic
Herpes zoster
Myocardial ischaemia

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45
Q

Structure located in the RLQ?

A

Lower portion of the right kidney
Caecum and appendix
Portion of the ascending colon
Ovary and Fallopian tube
Uterus IF enlarged
Right ureter

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46
Q

Conditions arising from RLQ?

A

Appendicitis
Diverticulitis
Intestinal obstruction
Renal colic
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian cysts
Salpingitis
Endometriosis

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47
Q

Structures located in LLQ?

A

Lower portion of left kidney
Sigmoid colon
Portion of the descending colon
Ovary and Fallopian tube
Uterus IF enlarged
Left ureter

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48
Q

Conditions arising from LLQ?

A

Diverticulitis
Intestinal obstruction
Renal colic
IBS
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian cysts
Salpingitis
Endometriosis

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49
Q

Primary function of the lymphatic system?

A

Immune defence

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50
Q

What component of blood is filtered by lymph nodes?

A

White blood cells

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51
Q

Main function of the tonsils in the lymphatic system?

A

Protect against infections

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52
Q

Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the lower half of the body and returns it to the circulatory system?

A

Thoracic duct

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53
Q

Primary function of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Absorb dietary fats

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54
Q

Lymphatic vessels that transport lymph away from lymph nodes?

A

Efferent vessels

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55
Q

Lymphatic vessels that transport lymph to lymph nodes?

A

Afferent vessels

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56
Q

Primary function of natural killer cells in the lymphatic system?

A

Cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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57
Q

Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the upper right side of the body into the circulatory system?

A

Right subclavian vein

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58
Q

Main function of the lymphatic system in response to tissue injury or infection?

A

Drain excess fluid tissue and return it to bloodstream

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59
Q

Which lymphatic organ decrease in size and function as a person ages?

A

Thymus

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60
Q

Primary function of lymphatic vessels in the digestive system?

A

Absorb and transport dietary fats

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61
Q

Name for enlarged lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy

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62
Q

Primary function of the lymphatic nodules in the mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts?

A

Trap and remove foreign particles

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63
Q

Which lymphatic vessel collects lymph from the right arm and right side of the head and neck?

A

Right subclavian vein

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64
Q

What is the main function of the lacteals in the small intestine?

A

Absorb and transport dietary fats

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65
Q

Main function of lymphatic vessels in the skin?

A

Drain excess tissue fluid

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66
Q

What is the largest lymphatic organ?

A

Spleen

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67
Q

Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the left side of the head, neck and upper chest and returns it to the circulatory system?

A

Left subclavian vein

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68
Q

What are the primary lymphatic vessels that carry lymph from peripheral tissue towards the heart?

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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69
Q

What lymphatic organ acts as a reservoir for the red blood cells and platelets?

A

Spleen

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70
Q

What is the name of specialised lymphatic capillaries found in the small intestine that absorb dietary fats?

A

Lacteals

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71
Q

Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the right leg and lower right side of the body and returns it to the circulatory system?

A

Hepatic vein

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72
Q

What are epigenetics?

A

A pattern of inheritance in which a gene or chromosome is modified temporarily that changes gene expression and function or regulation of DNA, protein, or RNA molecule, without changing their primary sequence

Mechanism that can selectively activate or silence genes without modifying the nucleotide sequence

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73
Q

What doesn’t change in a gene/chromosome with epigenetics mechanism?

A

Their primary sequence

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74
Q

What lifestyle factors can affect epigenetics?

A

Recreational drugs
Medication
Diet
Exercise

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75
Q

What are stable epigenetic modifications?

A

Can be passed on to next generations

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76
Q

What are dynamic epigenetic modifications?

A

A response to external stimuli

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77
Q

Mammalian cells only allow one X chromosome to remain active, what happens to the other(s)?

A

Inactivated forming a Barr body

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78
Q

What is a Barr body?

A

An inactivated X chromosome

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79
Q

What explain why phenotypes associated with X chromosomes are less severe that those associated with Y chromosomes?

A

Only one X remains active

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80
Q

Number of Barr bodies in a normal female?

A

1

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81
Q

Number of Barr bodies in a normal male?

A

0

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82
Q

Number of Barr bodies in a turner syndrome female? (XO)

A

0

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83
Q

Number of Barr bodies in a triple X syndrome female?

A

2

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84
Q

Number of Barr bodies in a Klinefelter syndrome male? (XXY)

A

1

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85
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

A

A form of epigenetic inheritance in which expression of a gene depends on parent sex

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86
Q

What is the most known epigenetic modification?

A

DNA methylation

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87
Q

What happens during DNA methylation?

A

A methyl group is added to cytosine in a CpG site (region needed for gene regulation and expression)

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88
Q

What does methylation of cytosine in DNA cause?

A

Silence of genes

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89
Q

What are classical genetics controlled by?

A

Promotors, enhancers or protein binding sites that are present or absent in the DNA sequence

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90
Q

An example of classical genetic regulation?

A

Oncogenes

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91
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

A gene that contributes to cancer. Not usually expressed but can acquire a mutation to allow it to be expressed

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92
Q

Main difference between genetic and epigenetic regulation?

A

Epigenetics do not involve changes to DNA sequence

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93
Q

What does the ‘epi’ in epigenetics represent?

A

‘On top of’
Meaning regulation on top up usual genetic mechanisms

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94
Q

Types of cancer drugs that target epigenetic?

A

DNA methyl-transferase inhibitors
Histone de-acetylase inhibitors

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95
Q

examples of DNA methyl-transferase inhibitors?

A

Azacitidine
Decitabine

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96
Q

How does azacitidine work?

A

Inhibits methyltranferase to prevent epigenetic modification

Covalent binding to DNA methyltransferase results in DNA hypomethylation and prevents DNA synthesis

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97
Q

Examples of Histone de-acetylase inhibitors?

A

Vorinostat
Romidepsin

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98
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

The molecular process by which cancer develops

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99
Q

What are agents that cause cancer known as?

A

Carcinogens

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100
Q

Stages of carcinogenesis?

A

Initiation
Promotion
Transformation
Progression

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101
Q

What is the first stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Initiation

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102
Q

What is the second stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Promotion

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103
Q

What is the third stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Transformation

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104
Q

What is the fourth stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Progression

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105
Q

What happens during initiation in carcinogenesis?

A

Random change in the genetic make up of a cell
Carcinogen(s) interacts with DNA causing damage in location of a gene that regulates cell growth
If repair mechanisms do not occur the cell may turn cancerous

106
Q

What happens during promotion in carcinogenesis?

A

Mutated cells are stimulated and start to divide forming a population which is the beginning for a benign tumour
Stage is still reversible

107
Q

What happens during progression in carcinogenesis?

A

Malignant conversion stage
Irreversible
Changes in cell genome structure
Increased growth rate
Biochemical changes and neoplastic cells born
Tumour expands

108
Q

What do tumour suppressor genes do?

A

Associated with healthy cell activities including growth, differentiation and apoptosis
Produce proteins that inhibit cell reproduction during inappropriate times

109
Q

What happens to tumour suppressor cells when cancer occurs?

A

They can become inactivated

110
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Altered versions of normal genes, regulate cell growth and survival

111
Q

How do proto-oncogenes become oncogenes?

A

Through mutation

112
Q

What is the most common tumour suppression gene associated with cancer?

A

P53 inactivation

113
Q

Why do we study colon cancer as a model for studying multi-stage carcinogenesis?

A

Many of the described genetic changes have been identified in the development of colon cancer

114
Q

Stages of carcinogenesis described in colon cancer?

A

Mutations of the APC (adenomatous polyposis coli)
DCC (deletion in colon cancer gene)
Changes in P53 gene
DNA micro satellite instability

115
Q

What percentage of colon cancer cases are due to irregular mutations rather than hereditary factors?

A

85%

116
Q

Lung cancer tumour markers?

A

CA125
CEA

117
Q

Lung cancer tumour markers?

A

CA125
CEA

118
Q

Liver cancer tumour marker?

A

AFP

119
Q

Prostate cancer tumour marker?

A

PSA

120
Q

Testicular cancer tumour markers?

A

AFP
HCG

121
Q

Breast cancer tumour markers?

A

CA125
CEA
HER2

122
Q

Stomach cancer tumour marker?

A

CEA

123
Q

Colon cancer tumour maker?

A

CEA

124
Q

Pancreatic cancer tumour markers?

A

CA125
CEA

125
Q

Ovarian cancer tumour markers?

A

CA125
CEA

126
Q

CA125 can be a tumour marker for what kinds of cancer?

A

Lung
Breast
Pancreatic
Ovarian

127
Q

CEA can be a tumour marker for which kinds of cancer?

A

Lung
Breast
Stomach
Colon
Pancreatic
Ovarian

128
Q

AFP can be a tumour maker for which cancers?

A

Liver
Testicular

129
Q

PSA can be a tumour marker for which cancer?

A

Prostate

130
Q

HCG can be a tumour marker for which type of cancer?

A

Testicular

131
Q

HER2 can be a tumour marker for which kind of cancer?

A

Breast

132
Q

What are tumour markers?

A

Substances produced by cells of the body in response to cancer or benign conditions

133
Q

What can most tumour markers be detected?

A

Blood
Urine
Stool
Tumour tissue
Other body fluid samples

134
Q

Benefits of the use of tumour markers?

A

Highly sensitive and specific for early detection
Can be used to manage some kinds of cancer
Helps to know stages and suitable therapies
Determine whether responding to treatment

135
Q

Limitations of using tumour markers?

A

Can suggest but not diagnose
Can also increase in non cancerous condition
Not all cancer patients have raised markers
Markers not identified for all types of cancer

136
Q

Main portions of the GI tract?

A

Oesophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Rectum

137
Q

Accessory glands to the GI tract?

A

Teeth
Tongue
Salivary glands
Liver
Gall bladder
Pancreas

138
Q

Four layers of the GI tract?

A

Mucosa
Sun mucosa
Muscularis propria
Adventita

139
Q

Layers of the GI mucosa?

A

Epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosa

140
Q

What is the smooth muscle layer of the GI tract called?

A

Muscularis propria

141
Q

What is the Muscularis propria?

A

Smooth muscle layer of the GI tract

142
Q

Describe the Muscularis propria?

A

Smooth muscle layer of two layers
The inner circular muscle and the outer longitudinal layer

143
Q

Function of the Muscularis propria?

A

Peristalsis

144
Q

Peristalsis definition?

A

Contraction to produce rhythmic waves to facilitate the food movement down the gut

145
Q

Salivary digestive enzymes?

A

Salivary amylase
Lingual lipase

146
Q

Source of salivary amylase?

A

Salivary glands

147
Q

Source of lingual lipase?

A

Lingual glands in tongue

148
Q

Substrates for salivary amylase?

A

Starches

149
Q

Substrates for lingual lipase?

A

Triglycerides and other lipids

150
Q

Purpose of teeth?

A

Mechanical digestion

151
Q

What is enamel made of?

A

Calcium salts

152
Q

Enamel purpose?

A

Protects tooth from wear and tear

153
Q

What is dentin?

A

Calcified connective tissue
Makes up the majority of the tooth

154
Q

What does salivary amylase convert polysaccharides (starch) to?

A

Disaccharides (maltose)

155
Q

Another term for swallowing?

A

Deglutition

156
Q

Three phases of swallowing?

A

Oral
Pharyngeal
Oesophageal

157
Q

What happens during the oral phase of swallowing?

A

Food prepared into a food bolus of appropriate size to pass from mouth into oropharynx
Further channeled by back of tongue and other pharynx muscles
Voluntary elevation of soft palate required to prevent food entering nose
Cranial nerves involved

158
Q

What is voluntary elevation of the soft palate required during swallowing?

A

To prevent food from entering the nose

159
Q

Cranial nerves involved in the oral phase of swallowing?

A

Trigeminal
Facial
Hypoglossal

160
Q

What happens during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

Bolus reaches pharynx
Sensory receptors activate the involuntary part of swallowing pushing food back further into oesophagus
Larynx closes by epiglottis during this stage

161
Q

What closes the larynx during the pharyngeal phases of swallowing?

A

Epiglottis
Vocal cords

162
Q

Why does the larynx close during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

Prevents food and other particles from getting into the trachea and lungs

163
Q

What happens during the oesophageal phase of swallowing?

A

Leads food to stomach by peristalsis

164
Q

What serves as a physical barrier to regurgitated food?

A

Oesophageal sphincters

165
Q

What are the two oesophageal sphincters?

A

Upper and lower

166
Q

Functions of the stomach?

A

Mixes saliva, food and gastric juice to form chyme
Reservoir for food before released to small intestine
Secretes gastric juice, pepsin, intrinsic factor and gastric lipase
Secretes gastrin into blood

167
Q

What does gastric juice contain?

A

Hydrochloric acid
Pepsis
Intrinsic factor
Gastric lipase

168
Q

Purpose of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice?

A

Kills bacteria and denatures proteins

169
Q

Purpose of pepsin in gastric juice?

A

Begins digestion of proteins

170
Q

Purpose of intrinsic factor in gastric juice?

A

Aids absorption of vitamin B12

171
Q

Purpose of gastric lipase in gastric juice?

A

Aids digestion of triglycerides

172
Q

What secretes gastrin?

A

G cells in stomach, duodenum and pancreas

173
Q

Purpose of gastrin?

A

Stimulates stomach to release hydrochloric acid

174
Q

How is pepsin formed?

A

Hydrochloric acid converts pepsinogen to pepsin

175
Q

Inactive form of pepsin?

A

Pepsinogen

176
Q

Types of cell in the stomach?

A

Surface mucous cells
Mucous neck cells
Parietal cells
Chief cells
G cells

177
Q

What do surface mucous cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Mucous

178
Q

What do mucous neck cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Mucous

179
Q

What do parietal cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Hydrochloric acid
Intrinsic factor

180
Q

What do chief cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Pepsinogen
Gastric lipase

181
Q

What do G cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Gastrin

182
Q

Where does most digestion and absorption occur?

A

Small intestine

183
Q

Purpose of circular folds in the small intestine?

A

Increase surface area for digestion and absorption

184
Q

Purpose of intestinal juice?

A

Provides a vehicle for absorption of substances from chyme as they come into contact with the villi

185
Q

Where are brush border enzymes found?

A

Surface of the microvilli of absorptive cells

186
Q

Purpose of brush border enzymes?

A

Break down food products

187
Q

Where is the pancreas found?

A

Posterior to the stomach

188
Q

What does the pancreas produce?

A

Enzymes that digest carbohydrates, proteins, fats and nucleic acids
Sodium bicarbonate to buffer stomach acid

189
Q

Why does the pancreas produce sodium bicarbonate?

A

Buffers the stomach acid

190
Q

Where does the pancreas empty it’s contexts?

A

The duodenum

191
Q

What does the liver make?

A

Bile

192
Q

What is bile important for?

A

Emulsification of fats

193
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

The gallbladder

194
Q

What delivers bile from the liver to the gallbladder?

A

The common bile duct

195
Q

Sections of the large intestine?

A

Cecum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
Anal canal
Anus

196
Q

Functions of the large intestine?

A

1) Haustral churning and peristalsis drive contents of the colon into the rectum
2) bacteria in large intestine convert protein to amino acids, break down amino acids, produce some B vitamins and vitamin K
3) absorption of some water, ions and vitamins
4) formation of faeces
5) defecation

197
Q

What do bacteria in the large intestine do?

A

Break down substances such as proteins
Synthesise vitamins such as some B and vitamin K

198
Q

What vitamins to bacteria in the large intestine produce?

A

Some B vitamins
Vitamin K

199
Q

What does faeces consist of?

A

Water
Inorganic salts
Sloughed off epithelial cells
Bacteria
Products of bacterial decomposition
Undigested portions of food

200
Q

Name three macronutrients?

A

Lipid
Protein
Carbohydrate

201
Q

Two methods of digestion?

A

Chemical
Mechanical

202
Q

What neurons control the digestive system?

A

Enteric nervous system

203
Q

Is the enteric system autonomic or somatic?

A

Autonomic

204
Q

What is mechanical digestion?

A

Large particles are broken down into smaller particles using physical force

205
Q

What is chemical digestion?

A

Large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules through chemical reactions

206
Q

What is segmentation? (GI)

A

Muscle contractions which force food to mix together into a single solution

207
Q

Types of mechanical digestion?

A

Segmentation
Peristalsis

208
Q

How is chemical digestion sped up?

A

By digestive enzymes

209
Q

How do digestive enzymes work?

A

They recognise a specific macronutrient
Bind them together
And break bond that exist between the molecules

210
Q
A
211
Q

What is gastric emptying?

A

The rate the stomach allows food the enter the small intestine

212
Q

Phases of mechanical digestion?

A

Propulsion
Grinding
Retropulsion

213
Q

What is the propulsion phase of mechanical digestion?

A

Food pushed against an almost closed pyloric sphincter. Pressure forces smaller food particles into the small intestine

214
Q

What is the grinding phase of mechanical digestion?

A

Muscle contractions trap food in the antrum and churn it through segmentation

215
Q

What is the retropulsion phase of mechanical digestion?

A

Large particles are forced back into the body of the stomach

216
Q
A
217
Q

Main features of the stomach?

A

Antrum
Body
Fundus
Pyloric sphincter

218
Q

Function of the antrum?

A

Rhythmic contractions of smooth muscle mechanically digest food

219
Q

Function of the body of the stomach?

A

Stores most food

220
Q

Function of the fundus?

A

Stores gases released during chemical digestion and extra food when a large meal in consumed

221
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter?

A

A ring of smooth muscle that controls passage of food out of the stomach and into the small intestine

222
Q

What happens to large objects that cannot be mechanically digested?

A

After the phase of mechanical digestion the pyloric sphincter relaxes to allow large, undigested objects to pass into the small intestine

223
Q

Another name for sugars?

A

Saccharides

224
Q

Simple sugars?

A

Monosaccharides
Disaccharides

225
Q

What bond links sugar molecules?

A

Glycosidic

226
Q

How many sugar molecules on an oligosaccharide?

A

3-10

227
Q

How many sugar molecules in polysaccharides?

A

> 10

228
Q

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

A

In the mouth

229
Q

Which sugar molecules can be absorbed?

A

Only monosaccharides so the others must be broken down

230
Q

Examples of monosaccharides?

A

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose

231
Q

Example of disaccharides?

A

Lactose
Maltose

232
Q

Example of polysaccharides?

A

Starch
Cellulose

233
Q

What is sucrose made up of?

A

Fructose and glucose

234
Q

What is lactose made up of?

A

Glucose and galactose

235
Q

What is maltose made up of?

A

Two glucose

236
Q

Can cellulose be broken down by humans?

A

No

237
Q

An example of dietary fibre?

A

Cellulose

238
Q

Why does cellulose act as dietary fibre?

A

It passes through the GI tract undigested and holds more water in the digestive tract

239
Q

What type of bond is a glycosidic bond?

A

Covalent

240
Q

Types of food higher in fibre?

A

Fruit
Vegetables
While grains
Nuts
Seeds

241
Q

Main site of absorption of monosaccharide?

A

Small intestine

242
Q

How many amino acids in our body?

A

20

243
Q

How many essential amino acids?

A

9

244
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that must be obtained from diet as the body cannot produce these

245
Q

What can denature proteins in food?

A

Cooking
Acidic environment of the stomach

246
Q

What enzyme breaks down proteins?

A

Pepsin

247
Q

How does pepsin work?

A

Binds proteins and breaks peptide bonds

248
Q

Can digestive enzymes break any peptide bond?

A

No, only able to break peptide bonds after certain amino acids

249
Q

What protein products can be absorbed without further digestion?

A

Amino acids
Tripeptides
Dipeptides

250
Q

What protein products cannot be absorbed without further digestion?

A

Tetramers
Polypeptides

251
Q

Where does most lipid digestion occur?

A

Small intestine

252
Q

Why do lipid-rich meals trigger a delay in gastric emptying?

A

So the contents reach the small intestine at the same time as bile salts are released from the gall bladder so they are emulsified to form micelles

253
Q

What are micelles? (Lipid digestion)

A

Emulsified fat droplets that have a single layer of bile salts and phospholipids surrounding a lipid core

254
Q

Why does micelle formation increase lipid digestion?

A

Increased the surface area of the lipid droplet so more enzymes can bind

255
Q

What are the four main sources of lipids in the diet?

A

Fatty acids
Triglycerides
Phospholipid
Cholesterol

256
Q

What length fatty acids can be absorbed straight into the bloodstream?

A

Small
Medium

257
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

Three fatty acids bound to a glycerol

258
Q

Events involved in lipid digestion?

A

Delay of stomach emptying
Bile salt secretion
Formation of micelles
Micelle and enzyme interaction
Lipid digestion

259
Q

What happens to micelles in the small intestine?

A

Fat soluble lipids within micelle diffuse into cell when they come into contact with epithelial cell membrane
Free fatty acids reassembled into triglycerides by SER
Packaged in Golgi apparatus for export as chylomicrons
Exit cell into lymph vessels called lacteals

260
Q

What are chylomicrons?

A

A type of transport proteins that contains a lipid

261
Q

Structural difference between a micelle and a chylomicron?

A

Chylomicrons have proteins on the surface instead of bile salts

262
Q

How does the acidic environment in the stomach help protein digestion?

A

Denatures proteins which gives proteases better access to the peptide bonds

301 (5 decks)

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