Anatomy & Phys. Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The human body can be divided into how many primary body planes?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

A

B. Three

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2
Q

From an anatomist’s viewpoint, the unitary bladder belongs to which section?
A. The hypogastric region
B. The right upper quadrant
C. The umbilical region
D. The left lower quadrant

A

A. The hypogastric region

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3
Q

What is the name of the plane of motion that divides the body into right and left sides?
A. Frontal
B. Sagittal
C. Axial
D. Transverse

A

B. Sagittal

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4
Q

The term distal refers to:
A. Position towards the front of the body
B. Position towards the back of the body
C. Position away from the where the limb is attached to the body
D. Position near where the limb is attached to the body

A

C. Position away from the where the limb is attached to the body

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT found in the dorsal cavity of the body?
A. Cerebellum
B. Heart
C. Brainstem
D. Spine

A

B. Heart

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a secondary function of the respiratory system?
A. pH regulation of the blood
B. Thermoregulation
C. Speech production
D. Heart rate regulation

A

D. Heart rate regulation

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7
Q

Which of the following statements properly describes how the structure moves during inspiration?
A. The lungs contract on inspiration
B. The diaphragm moves downward on inspiration
C. The ribs remain fixed during inspiration
D. The heart moves inward on inspiration

A

B. The diaphragm moves downward on inspiration

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8
Q

What is the name of the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood?
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Dissipation
D. Reverse osmosis

A

B. Diffusion

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9
Q

Which element or structure within the respiratory system is responsible for removing foreign matter from the lungs?
A. Bronchial tubes
B. Cilia
C. Trachea
D. Alveoli

A

B. Cilia

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10
Q

In the respiratory system, gas exchange between oxygen breathed in and carbon dioxide to be removed takes place in the:
A. Pharynx
B. Trachea
C. Bronchi
D. Alveoli

A

D. Alveoli

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11
Q

All of the following are parts of the respiratory system EXCEPT the:
A. Trachea
B. Bronchi
C. Esophagus
D. Larynx

A

C. Esophagus

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12
Q

When de-organized blood first enters the heart, which of the following choices is in the correct order for its journey to the aorta?

I. Tricuspid valve —> Lungs —> Mitral valve
II. Mitral valve —> Lungs —> Tricuspid valve
III. Right ventricle —> Lungs —> Left atrium
IV. Left ventricle —> Lungs —> Right atrium

A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only

A

A. I and III only

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13
Q

Which of the following is the phase when the heart contracts and pushes blood out?
A. Systole
B. Cardiac cycle
C. Diastole
D. Systemic circulation

A

A. Systole

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14
Q

Of the following, the blood vessel containing the least-oxygenated blood is:
A. The aorta
B. The vena cava
C. The pulmonary artery
D. The capillaries

A

C. The pulmonary artery

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15
Q

From innermost to outermost, the heart wall is made up of which of the following?
A. The epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
B. The endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium
C. The fibrous pericardium, pericardial cavity, and epicardium
D. The epicardium, pericardial cavity, and fibrous pericardium

A

B. The endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

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16
Q

Which of the following reflects the correct blood flow pathway (heart-valve-vessel)?
A. Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, mitral valve, left ventricle, aorta
B. Right atrium, mitral valve, right ventricle, systemic circulation, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta
C. Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle, aorta
D. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary circulation, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aorta

A

D. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary circulation, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aorta

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17
Q

A small blood vessel found in the liver has large pores that allow proteins and blood cells to move in and out of the vessel. What type of blood vessel is this?
A. Continuous capillary
B. Fenestrated capillary
C. Sinusoidal capillary
D. Arteriole

A

C. Sinusoidal cavity

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18
Q

Which of the following are responsible for the exchange of nutrients, hormones, oxygen, fluids, and electrolytes between blood and the interstitial fluid of body tissues?
A. Arterioles
B. Venules
C. Capillaries
D. Hemoglobin

A

C. Capillaries

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19
Q

Which of the following blood components is involved in blood clotting?
A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. White blood cells
D. Leukocytes

A

B. Platelets

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20
Q

How much of a female’s blood volume is composed of red blood cells?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 70%

A

C. 40%

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21
Q

Which granulocyte is most likely to be elevated during an allergic response?
A. Neutrophil
B. Monocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophil

A

C. Eosinophil

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22
Q

Which of the following enzymes begins the digestions of polysaccharides into simpler sugars?
A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Pepsin
D. Cholinesterase

A

B. Amylase

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23
Q

The fungus refers to which of the following?
A. The most superior region of the stomach
B. The region where the trachea forks into primary bronchi
C. The thin stalk connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland
D. The outer bone of the lower leg

A

A. The most superior region of the stomach

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24
Q

If the parietal cells were unable to secrete substances into the gastric gland, which of the following scenarios would occur?
A. Pepsin would not convert to pepsinogen, resulting in the digestion of dietary proteins.
B. Pepsinogen would not convert to pepsin, resulting in the indigestion of dietary proteins.
C. Pepsin would convert to pepsinogen, resulting in the indigestion of dietary proteins.
D. Pepsinogen would convert to pepsin, resulting in the indigestion of dietary proteins.

A

B. Pepsinogen would not convert to pepsin, resulting in the indigestion of dietary proteins

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25
Q

The gastric pits contain specific cells that release chemicals responsible for the stimulation or initiation of the emptying of the stomach. What are these cells called?
A. Enteroendocrine cells
B. Mucous neck cells
C. Parietal cells
D. Chief cells

A

A. Enteroendocrine cells

26
Q

Pepsin in an enzyme produced by the lining of the stomach that aids in the digestion of proteins. Which of the following BEST describes the role of pepsin in protein digestion?
A. Pepsin separates the nucleotides in base pairs.
B. Pepsin severs the peptide bonds between amino acids.
C. Pepsin separates the glycerol from fatty acids.
D. Pepsin separates the glucose from fructose.

A

B. Pepsin severs the peptide bonds between amino acids.

27
Q

Which section of the digestive system is responsible for water reabsorption?
A. The large intestine
B. The duodenum
C. The small intestine
D. The gallbladder

A

A. The large intestine

28
Q

Which is NOT a function of the pancreas?
A. Secretes the hormone insulin in response to growth hormone stimulation
B. Secretes bicarbonate into small intestine to raise the pH from stomach secretions
C. Secretes enzymes used by the small intestine to digest fats, sugars, and proteins
D. Secretes hormones from its endocrine portion in order to regulate blood sugar levels

A

A. Secretes the hormone insulin in response to growth hormone stimulation

29
Q

What is the purpose of sodium bicarbonate when released into the lumen of the small intestine?
A. It works to chemically digest fats in the chyme.
B. It decreases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine.
C. It works to chemically digest proteins in the chyme.
D. It increases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine.

A

D. It increases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine

30
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the parts of the large intestine, in order?
A. Cecum, colon, and rectum
B. Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
C. Ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons
D. Liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

A

A. Cecum, colon, and rectum

31
Q

When food is traveling through the gastrointestinal system, what part of the small intestine does it enter immediately after leaving the stomach?
A. jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Rectum

A

B. Duodenum

32
Q

Which component of the nervous system is responsible for lowering the heart rate?
A. Central nervous system
B. Sympathetic nervous system
C. Parasympathetic nervous system
D. Distal nervous system

A

C. Parasympathetic nervous system

33
Q

Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is true?
A. It controls the reflex arc.
B. It contains motor (efferent) neurons.
C. It contains sensory (afferent) neurons.
D. It contains both parasympathetic nerves and sympathetic nerves.

A

D. It contains both parasympathetic nerves and sympathetic nerves.

34
Q

Which nervous system controls voluntary motor movement?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
C. Autonomic
D. Somatic

A

D. Somatic

35
Q

Nociceptors detect which of the following?
A. Deep pressure
B. Vibration
C. Pain
D. Temperature

A

C. Pain

36
Q

Which are neurons that transmit signals from the CNS to effector tissues and organs?
A. Motor
B. Sensory
C. Interneuron
D. Reflex

A

A. Motor

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the brain stem?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata

A

C. Hypothalamus

38
Q

Within which part of the brain is sensory information interpreted?
A. Cerebrum
B. Hindbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata

A

A. Cerebrum

39
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

I. Regulate body temperature
II. Send stimulatory and inhibitory instructions to the pituitary gland
III. Receive sensory information from the brain

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the reflex arc?
A. Stimulus
B. Sensory neuron
C. Actuator
D. Motor neuron

A

C. Actuator

41
Q

Which of the following are functions of a myelin sheath?

I. Insulates an axon
II. Structural support for axon
III. Increases permeability of ions

A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I, II, and III

A

A. I only

42
Q

Which of the following structures receives neurotransmitters that are transmitted across synapses?
A. Axon
B. Dendrites
C. Neuroglia
D. Node of Ranvier

A

B. Dendrites

43
Q

What is the term for the gap between neurons, where hormones and other messenger ions can pass from one cell to the next?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Ganglion
D. Synapse

A

D. Synapse

44
Q

When Ca^2+ channels open in a presynaptic cell:
A. The cell depolarizes
B. The cell hyperpolarizes
C. An action potential is propagated
D. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters

A

D. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters

45
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the functions of the neuron’s structures?
A. Dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body, and axons carry impulses away from the cell body.
B. Axons carry impulses toward the cell body, and dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.
C. Both dendrites and axons carry impulses toward the cell body.
D. Both dendrites and axons carry impulses away from the cell body.

A

A. Dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body, and axons carry impulses away from the cell body.

46
Q

Which muscle system is unlike the others?
A. Bicep: Tricep
B. Quadricep: Hamstring
C. Gluteus Maximus: Gluteus minimus
D. Trapezius/Rhomboids: Pectoralis Major

A

C. Gluteus Maximus: Gluteus minimus

47
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the relation between oxygen and muscles in aerobic exercise?
A. Slow twitch muscle delivers oxygen to the heart.
B. Slow twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood.
C. Fast twitch muscle delivers oxygen to the heart.
D. Fast twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood.

A

B. Slow twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood.

48
Q

In what plane does shoulder flexion occur?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Coronal

A

A. Sagittal

49
Q

Following right hip transplantation, the patient has been told to avoid adduction. This means that the patient should not do which of the following?
A. Bend the knee of the right leg
B. Turn the right foot outward
C. Sit with knees below hips
D. Cross the right leg over the left

A

D. Cross the right leg over the left

50
Q

Which of the following organ systems has the purpose of producing movement through contraction?
A. Skeletal
B. Muscular
C. Cardiovascular
D. Respiratory

A

B. Muscular

51
Q

Which of the following separates one sarcomere from another?
A. A line
B. D line
C. O line
D. Z line

A

D. Z line

52
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the relation between oxygen and muscles in aerobic exercise?
A. Slow twitch muscle delivers oxygen to the heart
B. Slow twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood
C. Fast twitch muscle delivers oxygen to the heart
D. Fast twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood

A

B. Slow twitch muscle takes oxygen from the blood

53
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the structures of a muscle from largest to smallest?
A. Fasciculus, muscle fiber, actin, myofibril
B. Muscle fiber, fasciculus, myofibril, actin
C. Sarcomere, fasciculus, myofibril, myosin
D. Muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomere, actin

A

D. Muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomere, actin

54
Q

How do muscle fibers shorten during contraction?
A. The actin filaments attach to the myosin, forming cross-bridges, and pull the fibers closer together.
B. Calcium enters the sarcoplasmic reticulum, initiating an action potential.
C. Myosin cross-bridges attach, rotate, and detach from actin filaments causing the ends of the sarcomere to be pulled closer together.
D. The t-tubule system allows the fibers to physically shorten during contraction.

A

C. Myosin cross-bridges attach, rotate, and detach from actin filaments causing the ends of the sarcomere to be pulled closer together.

55
Q

What is the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction?
A. To propagate the action potential across the neuromuscular junction.
B. To initiate the action potential so that voluntary muscle contraction can occur.
C. To bind to troponin, which alters the position of tropomyosin, causing the action to become pulled towards the center of the sarcomere.
D. To initiate relaxation by flooding back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and preventing actin and myosin from interacting.

A

A. To propagate the action potential across the neuromuscular junction.

56
Q

Which of the following phases is NOT part of the ovarian cycle?
A. Follicular phase
B. Ovulation
C. Proliferative phase
D. Luteal phase

A

C. Proliferative phase

57
Q

Which hormone in the female reproductive system is responsible for progesterone production?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. hCG
D. Estrogen

A

C. hCG

58
Q

What structure is responsible for the release of hormones that stimulate the gonads during puberty?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Midbrain
C. Basal ganglia
D. Hippocampus

A

A. Hypothalamus

59
Q

Which testicular cells secrete testosterone?
A. Sertoli cells
B. Leydig’s cells
C. Skene’s glands
D. Cowper’s glans

A

B. Leydig’s cells

60
Q

Which of the following hormones triggers ovulation in females?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Serotonin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

D. Luteinizing hormone

61
Q

Which cells are found in the skin and assist in boosting immune function?
A. Melanocytes
B. Reticular fibers
C. Eccrine glands
D. Langerhans cells

A

D. Langerhans cells

62
Q

Which of the following does the integumentary system, the skin, NOT do?
A. Protects internal tissues from injury
B. Waterproofs the body
C. Helps regulate body temperature
D. Returns fluid to the blood vessels

A

D. Returns fluid to the blood vessels