Anatomy of Human Development 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main events of the first week of human development?

A

Fertilisation = The process by which the male sperm and female egg join together
Cleavage = The cell undergoes rapid cell division
Blastocyst formation = The process of cell differentiation
Implantation = Embryo attaches to the wall of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four stages of fertilisation?

A
  1. Oocyte is released
    During ovulation, an oocyte (egg) is released from the ovary into to fallopian tube. The oocyte must meet and fuse with the sperm within 24 hours after ovulation or it will degenerate.
  2. Sperm and egg come into contact
    At ovulation, the sperm speed up again and swim down the uterine tube where they meet the egg.
  3. Fertilisation has occurred
    The membrane surrounding the egg, called the zona pellucida, has two major functions in fertilisation. First, the zona pellucida contains sperm receptors that are specific for human sperm. Second, once penetrated by the sperm, the membrane becomes impermeable to penetration by other sperm.
  4. Zygote is formed
    Once it meets the egg, the nuclei from the egg and sperm merge and share their genetic material. The egg now contains all the genetic material it will need to become a person.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where, within the uterine tube, does fertilisation take place?

A

Ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is cleavage and how does it progress?

A

Cleavage is a series of mitotic divisions of the zygote. Once the zygote is formed, the cell undergoes rapid cell division. The zygote cytoplasm is successively cleaved to form a blastula consisting of increasingly smaller blastomeres. The first blastomere stage consists of 2 cells (C), the next of 4 cells (D), the next of 8 cells (E) etc. At the 16 to 32 cells stage, the blastomeres form a morula (mulberry) consisting of an inner cells mass and an outer cell mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does blastocyst formation occur and what does it form?

A

Blastocyst formation occurs when fluid secreted within the morula forms the blastocyst cavity. This fluid filled cavity is known as the blastoceole. Once this stage has been reached the outer layer of the blastocyst thins to single-cell thickness to become the trophoblast, enclosing the enlarging fluid-filled blastocyst cavity. The central group of cells move to one pole of the blastocyst (the embryonic pole) to form the inner cell mass now known as the embryoblast. At the same time, the zona pellucida begins to degenerate in preparation from implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do the trophoblast and embryoblast go on to form?

A

The trophoblast contributes to the foetal component of the placenta whereas the embryoblast will go on to form the embryo..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After how long does implantation occur? Where does the blastocyst implant?

A

By 4–5 days the fully formed blastocyst reaches the uterine lumen in preparation for implantation, which occurs a day later. The blastocyst implants within the posterior superior wall of the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During which phase of the menstrual cycle does implantation occur?

A

Secretory phase
This phase always occurs from day 14 to day 28 of the menstrual cycle. Progesterone stimulated by LH is the dominant hormone during this phase to prepare the corpus luteum and the endometrium for possible fertilized ovum implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is week 2 of human development known as? What happens during this week? What has happened by day 13? What symptoms may be seen at this point?

A

Week 2 of human development is known as a week of 2’s. The embryoblasts and trophoblasts begin to differentiate. Over the course of the week, the blastocyst gets more deeply embedded within the uterine wall. By day 13 the surface defect in the endometrium is healed as the embryo has now become fully embedded. There may be a little bleeding/spotting at this time, which can be confused with the menstrual cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is trophoblast differentiation during week 2 and what does it form? What do these cells contribute to?

A

During this period, the trophoblast layer proliferates and differentiates into two distinct layers: syncitiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast.

The syncytiotrophoblast continues its growth into the endometrium to make contact with endometrial blood vessels and glands. Primary chorionic villi formed by the cytotrophoblast protrude into the syncytiotrophoblast.

It is these cells that will contribute to the formation and development of the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which cells produce hCG?

A

Synctiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the formation of the major organ systems during the embryonic period cause?

A

All major organ systems begin to develop during the embryonic period, causing a craniocaudal and lateral body folding of the embryo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Gastrulation is a process that establishes the three primary germ layer (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm), thereby forming a trilaminar embryonic disk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is embryoblast differentiation in week 2, and what does it form?

A

At the same time, the embryoblast differentiates into 2 distinct cell layers: the dorsal epiblast and the ventral hypoblast. Both layers together from a flat, ovoid-shaped disk known as the bilaminar embryonic disk.

Within the epiblast, clefts develop and eventually coalesce to from the amniotic cavity.

Hypoblast cells migrate and line the inner surface of the cytotrophoblast and eventually delimit the space called the definite yolk sac.

The epiblast and the hypoblast fuse to from the prochordal plate, which mark the future site of the mouth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the primitive streak form during gastrulation in the embryonic period?

A

This process is first indicated by the formation of a primitive streak within the epiblast. This involves the coordinated movement and re-arrangement of cells in the epiblast. Even before the streak is visible, epiblast cells have started to move.

The primitive streak is a linear band of thickened epiblast that first appears at the caudal end of the embryo and grows cranially. At the cranial end its cells proliferate to form the primitive knot (primitive node). With the appearance of the primitive streak it is possible to distinguish cranial (primitive knot) and caudal (primitive streak) ends of the embryo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do germ layers form during gastrulation in the embryonic period?

A

The cells of the epiblast migrate, detach and slip underneath the epiblast in a process called invagination. These invaginating cells displace the hypoblast and create the endoderm. The epiblast cells that do not invaginate become the ectoderm and the cells that lie between the ectoderm and the endoderm become the mesoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which structures does the ectoderm give rise to?

A
Skin
Posterior pituitary
CNS
Facial bones
Retina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which structures does the mesoderm give rise to?

A
Smooth muscle
Heart
Skeleton (not skull)
Urogenital system
Skeletal muscle
Connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which structures does the endoderm give rise to?

A

Pancreas
Lungs
Gastrointestinal tract
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is embryonic folding?

A

The flat trilaminar embryonic disk becomes a more cylindric embryo due to the longitudinal and transverse folding that occurs as a result of embryonic growth, especially the neural tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is neurulation? When does it occur and what does it create?

A

Following gastrulation, the neurulation process develops the neural tube in the ectoderm, above the notochord of the mesoderm.
During the third week of gestation the notochord sends signals to the overlying ectoderm, inducing it to become neuroectoderm and from the neural plate (the notochord forms the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disk in adults).

The neural plate folds outwards to form the neural groove. Beginning in the future neck region, the neural folds of this groove close to create the neural tube. The neural tube is open at both ends at the anterior and posterior neuropores but will eventually close.

Sometimes the neuropores will fail to close.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What conditions may occur if the neuropores fail to close?

A

Spina bifida
The posterior neuropore usually closes around day 27. Failure of closure results in a developmental congenital disorder known as spina bifida.

Anencephaly
The anterior neuropore usually closes around day 25. Failure of closure of the anterior neuropore will lead to anencephaly, the failure of the brain and skull to develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the lumen of the neural tube give rise to?

A

The ventricular system of the brain and spinal cord

The rostal/cephalic part of the neural tube becomes the adult brain whereas the caudal part of the neural tube becomes the adult spinal cord.

The lumen of the neural tube gives rise to the ventricular system of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What neural crest cells? What might they differentiate into?

A

Neural crest cells are multipotent cells. They arise at the border of the neural plate - the neural crest. The neural crest cells migrate throughout the embryo and later differentiate into multiple cell types.

Cranial neural crest cells differentiate into a variety of cells, such as bones of neurocranium, pia and arachnoid and several components of cranial nerves.

The trunk region neural crest cells differentiate into a variety of cells such as melanocytes, Schwann cells, dorsal root ganglia and parasympathetic nerves of the gut, abdomen and pelvis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What appears at the cranial end of the neural tube in the fifth week of development? What do they give rise to?

A

In the fifth week of development, swellings appear at the cranial end of the neural tube. Three primitive vesicles appear first, and subsequently these develop into five secondary vesicles. These vesicles will give rise to all the structures of the brain and cerebellum, as well as the ventricular system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the embryonic mesencephalon brain vesicle give rise to in the adult brain?

A

Midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the embryonic telencephalon brain vesicle give rise to in the adult brain?

A

Cerebrum

28
Q

What does the embryonic metencephalon brain vesicle give rise to in the adult brain?

A

Pons and cerebellum

29
Q

What does the embryonic myelencephalon brain vesicle give rise to in the adult brain?

A

Medulla

30
Q

What does the embryonic diencephalon brain vesicle give rise to in the adult brain?

A

Thalamus

31
Q

Which brain vesicle contributes to the cerebral aqueduct?

A

Mesencephalon

32
Q

Why is there a need for the formation of the chorionic villi?

A

Due to the rapid growth of the embryo during week 2, there is a need for a more efficient means of nutritional and gaseous exchange. As you already know, the blastocyst implants and invades the lining of the uterine wall. The cells begin to differentiate into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast.

33
Q

What are lacunae and what do they do? What appears at the same time as the lacunae? What does this form and what does it allow for?

A

Small clefts appear in the syncytiotrophoblast called lacunae which communicate with the maternal endometrial sinusoids, providing nutritional support for the developing embryo.

At the same time, clefts appear between the exocoelomic membrane and the cytotrophoblast. These merge to form the extra-embryonic coelom and this cavity comes to almost completely surround the embryo. This is the chorionic cavity.

The cytotrophoblast begin to form chorionic villi, which are finger-like protrusions into the lacunae.

Primary chorionic villi (A) protrude into the lacaunae and are non vascular.

Secondary chorionic villi (B) have a core of loose connective tissue, which grows into the primary villi.

Tertiary chorionic villi (C) contain embryonic blood vessels that develop from mesenchymal cells in the loose connective tissue core.

At this point uteroplacental circulation has begun.

34
Q

Once chorionic villi become vascularised, what are they called?

A

Tertiary chorionic villi

35
Q

What are the components of the placenta, what do they consist of, what are they derived from and what are their functions?

A

By the beginning of the fourth month, the placenta has two components: the maternal component and the feotal component.

The Maternal Component

The maternal contribution of the placenta consists of several parts. The predominant part is the deciduas basalis, which is derived from the endometrium of the uterus located between the blastocyst and the myometrium. Maternal blood fills the lacunae and gas and nutrient exchange occurs across the feotal portion of the placenta.

The Feotal Component

Consists of the teritiary chorionic villi derived from both the trophoblast and extraembryonic mesoderm, which collectively become known as the villous chorion. The villous chorion mostly proliferates at the site of the deciduas basalis.

36
Q

What is the placental membrane and what does it consist of? Where are the maternal vessels located?

A

The placental membrane (barrier) separates the maternal blood and feotal blood. In early pregnancy, the placental membrane consists of the syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, connective tissue and endothelium of the foetal capillaries. In late pregnancy, the cytotrophoblast and the connective tissue are displaced, leaving the syncytiotrophoblast and foetal capillary endothelium.

Maternal vessels penetrate the cytotrophoblastic shell to enter intervillous spaces, which surround the villi. Capillaries in the villi are in contact with vessels in the chorionic plate and in the connecting stalk, which in turn are connected to intraembryonic vessels.

37
Q

The placental membrane / barrier is not a true barrier as it allows many substances to pass between the maternal and foetal circulations. Which of the following materials usually do not cross the placental membrane or barrier?

A

Bacteria

Nutrients, gases, waste products, hormones and antibodies are items exchanged through the placental barrier. Unfortunately, some harmful things may also be transported. These include: drugs, viruses and harmful antibodies and hormones. Most bacteria are not allowed through.

38
Q

Tammy is in her third trimester and has experienced bleeding throughout her pregnancy. However, the bleeding has been getting worse. On examination, the doctor noted that the placenta has implanted low within her uterus. What is this condition known as?

A

Placenta previa

Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers some or all of the cervix. It can cause serious bleeding and other complications later in pregnancy. Some women experience bleeding throughout their pregnancy.

When the placenta attaches itself too deeply into the uterine wall, that is called placenta accreta, increta or percreta, depending on the severity and deepness of the placenta attachment.

39
Q

When does umbilical cord development begin and finish? What is the cord composed of?

A

Umbilical cord development begins in the embryologic period around week 3 with the formation of the connecting stalk. By week 7, the umbilical cord has fully formed, composed of the connecting stalk, vitelline duct, and umbilical vessels surrounding by the amniotic membrane.

40
Q

What vessel carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus?

A

Umbilical vein

41
Q

What is the first functional organ to develop?

A

The heart

42
Q

Where does the heart begin to develop? What stimulates this? What gradual forms within the heart?

A

The heart begins to develop near the head of the embryo in a region known as the cardiogenic area within the mesoderm. Following chemical signals called factors from the underlying endoderm, the cardiogenic area begins to form two strands called the cardiogenic cords. As the cardiogenic cords develop, a lumen rapidly develops within them. They are now referred to as endocardial tubes. The two tubes migrate together and fuse to form a single primitive heart tube.

43
Q

What five distinct regions does the primitive heart tube quickly form and which adult structures do they give rise to?

A

Sinus venosus = smooth part of right atrium and coronary sinus
Primitive atrium = left and right atria
Primitive ventricle = left ventricle
Bulbus cordis = ventricular outflow tracts and right ventricle
Truncus arteriosus = proximal aorta and pulmonary artery

44
Q

What is heart looping?

A

As the primitive heart tube elongates, it begins to fold within the pericardium, eventually forming an S shape, which places the chambers and major vessels into an alignment similar to the adult heart.

45
Q

What are the three steps of heart looping?

A
  1. Here we see elongation of the primitive heart tube. Once elongated, the heart tube will begin to rotate with the confined space of the primitive pericardium
  2. Here we can see further rotation of the heart. The dilatations are beginning to move into their respective positions that we find in an adult heart.
  3. Here we can see the final stages of the heart looping. The atria have moved posteriorly and the ventricles will eventually lie more anteriorly.
46
Q

What is septation of the heart and where does it occur first?

A

Septation of the heart into right and left channels occurs first, when endocardial cushions developing in the atrioventricular region expand to divide the heart.

47
Q

What is involved in atrial septation? What does this allow for?

A

The septation of the primitive atrium involves the formation of two septa and three ‘holes’.

Firstly, the septum primum forms and extends down towards the fused endocardial cushions to split the atrium into two. The ostium primum is a hole present before the septum primum completes fusion with endocardial cushions. Before the ostrium primum is closed a second hole, the ostium secundum, appears within the septum primum.

Following this a second septum, the septum secundum, grows with a hole known as the foramen ovale present. The presence of both the ostium secundum and foramen ovale allows a right to left shunt to be present in the developing heart.

48
Q

What is involved ventricular septation?

A

The interventricular septum of the ventricles has two components; one muscular and one membranous.

The muscular portion forms much of the septum and grows up from the floor of the ventricles towards the fused endocardial cushions. The membranous portion of the interventricular septum grows downwards and fuses with the muscular portion.

49
Q

Which one of these is NOT a defect of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Tricuspid atresia

Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four congenital abnormalities. The four defects include a ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary valve stenosis, a misplaced aorta and a thickened right ventricular wall (right ventricular hypertrophy).

50
Q

What is required of vascular shunt in foetal circulation?

A

In the foetal circulation, vascular shunts are required to bypass the liver and non-functioning lungs.

51
Q

What is venous arteriosus?

A

The oxygenated blood entering the feotus also needs to bypass the primitive liver, this ensures that enough oxygen reaches the developing brain. This is achieved by passage through the ductus venosus.

52
Q

What is the foramen ovale responsible for?

A

The foramen ovale between the two atria is responsible for shunting blood from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs.

53
Q

What is the function of the ductus arteriosus?

A

Any blood that does not pass through the foramen ovale enters the pulmonary trunk, which is linked to the distal arch of aorta by the ductus arteriosus, again bypassing the lungs.

54
Q

The ligamentum arteriosum is an embryological remnant of which structure?

A

Ductus arteriosus

55
Q

How does blood from the placenta bypass the liver in normal foetal circulation?

A

Oxygenated blood from the placenta is carried via the umbilical veins. This blood bypasses the liver sinusoids via the ductus venosus. Upon reaching the heart, oxygenated blood can be shunted from right to left via the foramen ovale. The ductus arteriosus also passes blood from pulmonary to systemic circuits.

56
Q

What are the pharyngeal arches and when are they first seen? What are they derived from?

A

The pharyngeal arches are structures seen in the development of vertebrates and are recognisable precursors for numerous structures.

In the human embryo, the arches are first seen during the fourth week of development. They appear as a series of out pouchings of mesoderm on both sides of the developing pharynx. The pharyngeal arches are derived from all three germ layers. Neural crest cells enter these arches where they contribute to features of the skull and facial skeleton such as bone and cartilage.

57
Q

What are the pharyngeal pouches and how many are there?

A

The pouches separate the arches on the internal (endodermal) surface. The pharyngeal pouches separate the pharyngeal arches on the inner (endodermal) surface. There are five pairs of pouches, with only four giving rise to adult structures.

58
Q

What are the pharyngeal clefts, how many are there and what do they give rise to?

A

The clefts separate the arches on the external (ectodermal) surface. There are initially four pharyngeal clefts. However, only the 1st cleft gives rise to a permanent structure in the adult, the external auditory meatus. The 2nd, 3rd and 4th clefts only form temporary cervical sinuses, which are then obliterated by the rapidly proliferating 2nd pharyngeal arch.

59
Q

What does each pharyngeal arch develop its own of?

A

Each arch develops its own artery, cranial nerve that controls a distinct muscle group, and skeletal tissue.

60
Q

What structures are derived from pharyngeal arch 1?

A
CN V
Anterior belly of digastric
Mandible
Muscles of mastification
Maxilla
61
Q

What structures are derived from pharyngeal arch 2?

A

CN VII
Muscles of facial expression
Posterior belly of digastric

62
Q

What structures are derived from pharyngeal arch 3?

A

CN IX

Stylopharyngeus

63
Q

What structures are derived from pharyngeal arch 4?

A

CN X
Muscles of pharynx (except stylopharyngeus)
Laryngeal cartilage

64
Q

Which pharyngeal arches contribute to development of the tongue? What appears during its development?

A

The tongue has contributions from all pharyngeal arches. In the first stage of development, lingual and medial swellings appear.
Two lateral lingual swellings are derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch.

Three medial swellings occur. The tuberculum impar, derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch. The cupola, derived from the 2nd, 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches. The epiglottal swelling, derived from the 4th pharyngeal arch.
During the 4th week, the lateral lingual swellings overgrow the tuberculum impar and merge together. Their line of fusion is marked by the median sulcus of the tongue.

Within the cupola, the 3rd pharyngeal arch component overgrows the 2nd arch forming a V-shaped groove known as the terminal sulcus. At the centre of this groove is the foramen cecum, a pit which represents the place of origin of the thyroid gland.

65
Q

Which arch does the epiglottis derive from?

A

Arch 4

66
Q

Which arch does the posterior 1/3 of the tongue derive from?

A

Arch 3

67
Q

Which arch does the anterior 2/3 of the tongue derive from?

A

Arch 1