Anatomy MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

What fontanel of the cranium closes on the second year of life?

A

Posterior (occipital) fontanel

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2
Q

Name parts of the ethmoid bone.

A

Perpendicular lamina: Ethmoid labyrinth: Cribriform lamina: Orbital lamina

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3
Q

Name the conchae being processes of the ethmoid bone.

A

Supreme concha: Superior concha: Medial concha

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4
Q

Name the processes of the maxilla.

A

Palatine process: Zygomatic process: Frontal process: Alveolar process

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5
Q

What anatomical formations are located on the nasal surface of the maxilla?

A

Conchal crest: Lacrimal sulcus: Maxillary hiatus

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6
Q

Name the processes of the palatine bone.

A

Orbital process: Sphenoid process: Pyramidal process

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7
Q

What anatomical formations are located on the ramus of the mandible?

A

Coronoid process: Condylar process: Mylohyoid line

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8
Q

Name anatomical formations of the anterior cranial fossa.

A

Cribriform lamina: Foramen cecum

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9
Q

Denote openings in the medial cranial fossa.

A

Spinous foramen: Superior orbital fissure: Oval foramen

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10
Q

Name openings in the posterior cranial fossa.

A

Jugular foramen: Hypoglossal canal: Foramen magnum

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11
Q

Which bones form the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Palatine bone: Sphenoid bone: Maxilla

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12
Q

Foramen rotundum opens to?

A

Middle cranial fossa

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13
Q

In what cavity of the cranium does the pterygoid canal open?

A

Pterygopalatine fossa

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14
Q

Which opening connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the orbit?

A

Inferior orbital fissure

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15
Q

Which opening connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasal cavity?

A

Sphenopalatine foramen

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16
Q

What bones form the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

Maxilla: Palatine bone: Zygomatic bone

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17
Q

Which bones form the medial wall of the orbit?

A

Ethmoid bone: Lacrimal bone: Maxilla: Frontal bone

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18
Q

Name openings in the walls of the orbit.

A

Posterior ethmoidal foramen: Optic canal: Nasolacrimal canal: Anterior ethmoidal foramen

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19
Q

What bones form the osseous (bony) nasal septum?

A

Vomer: Ethmoid bone

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20
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the Stapedius muscle?

A

Facial nerve (VII)

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21
Q

Which of the following structures open into the medial nasal meatus?

A

Semilunar hiatus: Anterior cells of ethmoid bone: Middle cells of ethmoid bone

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22
Q

What bones form the hard (osseous) palate?

A

Palatine bone: Maxilla

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23
Q

What bones form the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?

A

Inferior concha: Ethmoid bone: Sphenoid bone: Maxilla

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24
Q

A patient who has difficulty in speaking, swallowing, and protruding the tongue has a lesion of which nerve?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

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25
Q

Which of the following belongs to synarthrosis?

A

Sutures: Gomphosis

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26
Q

Denote fibrous junctions.

A

Sutures: Gomphosis: Membranes: Fontanelles

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27
Q

Denote cartilaginous junctions.

A

Junction between the manubrium and body of sternum: Junction of bodies of vertebrae: Junction between the body of sternum and xiphoid process

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28
Q

What anatomical structures does a synovial joint have?

A

Joint cavity: Articular lip: Articular cartilage: Synovial fluid

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29
Q

What joints (in shape) relate to uniaxial joints?

A

Pivot joint: Hinge joint

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30
Q

What joints (in shape) relate to biaxial joints?

A

Condyloid joint: Sellar joint

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31
Q

What is the shape of the temporomandibular joint?

A

Ellipsoid

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32
Q

What ligaments join the arches of vertebrae?

A

Ligamenta flava

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33
Q

What is the shape of the median atlanto-axial joint?

A

Pivot

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34
Q

The following bones are connected through membranes between which?

A

Tibia and fibula: Ulnar and radial

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35
Q

What movements are possible in the median atlanto-axial joint?

A

Rotation

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36
Q

What type of junctions do articulations of the 2-7 ribs with the sternum belong to?

A

Discontinuous

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37
Q

The knee joint belongs to which type?

A

Complex joints

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38
Q

What joints of the upper limb are uniaxial?

A

Proximal radio-ulnar joint: Interphalangeal joints of hand: Distal radio-ulnar joint

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39
Q

Which of the following ligaments attach to the anterior wall of the vertebral canal?

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

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40
Q

Denote joints with an intra-articular disc.

A

Sternoclavicular joint: Radiocarpal joint

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41
Q

Denote anatomical formations that restrict abduction of the upper limb in the shoulder joint.

A

Coraco-acromial ligament

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42
Q

Denote muscles antagonistic to the orbicularis oris.

A

Depressor anguli oris: Greater zygomaticus: Risorius: Levator labii superioris

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43
Q

Denote muscles forming transverse folds on the forehead (the expression of surprise).

A

Occipitofrontalis

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44
Q

Name muscles that simultaneously move the angle of the mouth outwards and upwards.

A

Greater zygomaticus: Levator anguli oris

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45
Q

Denote muscles protracting the mandible.

A

Medial pterygoid: Lateral pterygoid

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46
Q

On what bones does the masseter originate?

A

Zygomatic process of maxilla: Zygomatic arch

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47
Q

Denote muscles abducting the upper extremity above the horizontal plane.

A

Serratus anterior: Deltoid

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48
Q

Denote anatomical formations where the lateral pterygoid muscle attaches.

A

Articular disc of temporomandibular joint: Neck of mandible

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49
Q

The muscles of the upper limb include:

A

Subscapularis: Supraspinatus: Pectoralis major: Brahialis

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50
Q

What is the function of the supraspinatus?

A

Abducts arm: Pulls the head of the humerus medially towards the glenoid cavity

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51
Q

These muscles are attached to the medial two thirds of the clavicle.

A

Sternocleidomastoid: Pectoralis major: Subclavius

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52
Q

On what bones does the biceps brachii originate?

A

Supraglenoid tubercle of scapula: Coracoid process of scapula

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53
Q

Which one of the following structures allows CSF to pass from the subarachnoid space to the dural sinus?

A

Arachnoid villi

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54
Q

The following muscle attaches to the medial border of the scapula.

A

Levator scapulae: Serratus anterior: Rhomboideus major

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55
Q

Which of the following structures help to define the pelvic brim?

A

The arcuate line: The pectineal line

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56
Q

Denote anatomical structures passing through the adductor canal.

A

Femoral artery: Femoral vein

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57
Q

Denote canals inferior (below) the inguinal ligament.

A

Femoral canal: Adductor canal

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58
Q

The back of the medial epicondyle is related to the?

A

Ulnar nerve

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59
Q

The following muscles flex the leg.

A

Gracilis: Semitendinosus: Semimembranosus: Biceps femoris

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60
Q

Denote muscles of the anterior group of the leg.

A

Tibialis anterior: Extensor digitorum longus: Peroneus tertius

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61
Q

Denote muscles forming the deep layer of the posterior group of the leg.

A

Popliteus: Flexor digitorum longus: Tibialis posterior

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62
Q

Denote muscles pronating the foot.

A

Peroneus longus: Peroneus brevis

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63
Q

Denote muscles extending the foot in the talocrural joint.

A

Extensor digitorum longus: Extensor hallucis longus: Tibialis anterior

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64
Q

Denote muscles participating in the flexion (plantar flexion) of the foot.

A

Flexor digitorum longus: Flexor hallucis longus: Tibialis posterior: Triceps surae

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65
Q

Indicate layers of an eyeball.

A

Fibrous layer: Retina: Vascular layer

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66
Q

Name parts of an analyzer.

A

Peripheral part: Nervous centres in the brain cortex: Ascending conducting tract

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67
Q

Indicate anatomical structures of vascular layer of an eyeball.

A

Ciliary body: Ciliary muscles

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68
Q

Indicate the site of localization of the ciliary zonule.

A

Attached to ciliary body

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69
Q

What anatomical structures pass through the common tendinous ring in the orbit?

A

Ophthalmic artery: Optic nerve

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70
Q

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

A

Tunica media

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71
Q

What structure produces aqueous humor filling anterior and posterior chambers of an eyeball?

A

Epithelium: Covering ciliary body and its processes

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72
Q

Where does the aqueous humor flow from the anterior chamber of an eyeball?

A

In scleral venous sinus

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73
Q

Indicate parts of the brain the conducting tract of the visual analyzer is passing through.

A

Lateral geniculate body: Occipital lobe of brain: Internal capsule

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74
Q

Indicate lateral and posterior walls of tympanic cavity.

A

Mastoid wall: Labyrinthine wall

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75
Q

Indicate anatomical formations on the labyrinthine wall of tympanic cavity.

A

Promontory: Prominence of facial canal: Prominence of lateral semicircular canal

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76
Q

What anatomical structures are related to the transmitting system of the organ of hearing?

A

Auditory ossicles: Tympanic membrane: Membrane of oval window: Perilymph in scala vestibule

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77
Q

Denote the statements which correctly describe the semicircular ducts.

A

Are oriented roughly 90 degrees to each other: Work in pairs to detect head movements: Each duct has an ampulla: Located within the bony semicircular canals

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78
Q

Indicate orientation of the anterior semicircular duct.

A

Perpendicular to longitudinal axis of pyramid

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79
Q

Indicate possible paths of outflow of perilymph from perilymphatic space of labyrinth.

A

Into subarachnoid space on inferior surface of pyramid of temporal bone

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80
Q

Indicate structures of the central part of rhinencephalon.

A

Subcallosal area: Diagonal band: Parahippocampal gyrus: Uncus

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81
Q

What makes up the femoral triangle?

A

Medial border of the adductor longus muscle: Inguinal ligament: Medial border of the sartorius muscle

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82
Q

Indicate papillae of tongue.

A

Foliate papillae: Filiform papillae: Fungiform papillae: Circumvallate papillae

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83
Q

Indicate vessels and nerves of the organ of vision.

A

Central artery of retina: Branches of ophthalmic nerve: Oculomotor nerve

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84
Q

Indicate vessels of vestibulocochlear organ.

A

Branch of internal carotid artery: Branch of external carotid artery: Veins running into retromandibular vein

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85
Q

Indicate vessels and nerves of external and middle ear.

A

Veins running into external jugular vein: Veins running into retromandibular vein: Branch of vagus nerve: Tympanic nerve

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86
Q

Indicate vessels and nerves of an auditory tube.

A

Anterior tympanic artery: Branch of ascending pharyngeal artery: Veins running into pharyngeal venous plexus: Branch of glossopharyngeal nerve

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87
Q

Indicate sites of passage of the oculomotor nerve.

A

Lateral wall of cavernous sinus: Superior orbital fissure

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88
Q

Indicate muscles innervated by the inferior branch of oculomotor nerve.

A

Inferior rectus: Medial rectus: Inferior oblique

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89
Q

Indicate muscles innervated by trochlear nerve.

A

Superior oblique

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90
Q

Indicate muscles innervated by abducent nerve.

A

Lateral rectus

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91
Q

Indicate branches of trigeminal nerve innervating the mucous membrane of nasal cavity.

A

Nasociliary nerve

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92
Q

Indicate a nerve, its sensory fibres directed to ciliary ganglion.

A

Nasociliary nerve

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93
Q

Indicate branches of ophthalmic nerve.

A

Lacrimal nerve: Frontal nerve: Nasociliary nerve

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94
Q

Indicate branches of mandibular nerve.

A

Buccal nerve: Auriculotemporal nerve: Lingual nerve: Inferior alveolar nerve

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95
Q

The greater petrosal nerve leaves the facial canal through?

A

Hiatus of canal of greater petrosal nerve

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96
Q

Indicate nerves forming the nerve of pterygoid canal.

A

Greater petrosal nerve: Deep petrosal nerve

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97
Q

Indicate nerves branching from pterygopalatine ganglion.

A

Greater and lesser palatine nerves: Lesser palatine nerves: Posterior superior lateral and medial nasal branches: Pharyngeal branches

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98
Q

Indicate branches of facial nerve in facial canal.

A

Greater petrosal nerve: Tympanic chord: Nerve to stapedius: Posterior auricular nerve

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99
Q

Indicate branches of glossopharyngeal nerve.

A

Pharyngeal branches: Tonsillar branches: Tympanic nerve

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100
Q

Indicate nerves forming pharyngeal plexus.

A

Vagus nerve: Glossopharyngeal nerve: Sympathetic trunk: Facial nerve

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101
Q

Indicate organs innervated by the posterior trunk of vagus nerve.

A

Liver: Small intestine: Stomach: Pancreas

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102
Q

Indicate organs innervated by the anterior trunk of vagus nerve.

A

Liver: Stomach: Pancreas

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103
Q

Indicate sites of passage of the vagus nerve.

A

Posterolateral sulcus of myelencephalon: Posterior to root of lung: On pretracheal sheet of cervical fascia

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104
Q

Indicate anatomical structures innervated by auricular branch of vagus nerve.

A

Skin of external surface of auricle: Skin of posterior wall of external acoustic meatus

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105
Q

Indicate branches of accessory nerve.

A

External branch: Internal branch

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106
Q

Indicate muscles innervated by accessory nerve.

A

Sternocleidomastoid: Trapezius

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107
Q

Indicate the level of projection of the upper border of the spinal cord.

A

Lower margin of foramen magnum

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108
Q

The following blood vessels empty into the right atrium.

A

Inferior vena cava: Superior vena cava: Coronary sinus

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109
Q

What anatomical structures form a spinal nerve?

A

Anterior root of spinal cord: Posterior root of spinal cord

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110
Q

A reflex arch includes.

A

Afferent neuron: Interneurons: Effector: Motor neuron: Receptors

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111
Q

Indicate nuclei of the posterior horn of the spinal cord.

A

Thoracic nucleus: Nucleus proprius

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112
Q

Following are the pairs describing skull foramina and the nerves related. Choose the correct pair.

A

Internal acoustic meatus: Nerves intermedius, Foramen jugulare: Cranial nerve IX, X, XI

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113
Q

Denote the nerves which innervate the triceps brachii.

A

Radial

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114
Q

Indicate part of the brain the cerebral peduncles belong to.

A

Midbrain

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115
Q

What parts of the brain are related to cerebrum?

A

Insula: Corpus callosum: Rhinencephalon: Basal nuclei

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116
Q

What anatomical structures belong to telencephalon?

A

Basal nuclei: Internal capsule: Fornix

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117
Q

Denote the statements which correctly describe the axillary artery.

A

It gives origin to the thoracoacromion artery: It provides blood supply to the humerus

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118
Q

Between what structures of the brain is the sulcus of the corpus callosum located?

A

Cingulate gyrus: Corpus callosum

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119
Q

Indicate gyri on the inferior surface of cerebral hemispheres.

A

Straight gyrus: Orbital gyrus

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120
Q

Near what sulcus is the supramarginal gyrus located?

A

Lateral sulcus

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121
Q

Indicate gyri of the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.

A

Opercular part: Triangular part: Precentral gyrus: Orbital part

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122
Q

Indicate anatomical structures supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves.

A

Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles

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123
Q

In which gyrus is the cortical motor center located?

A

Precentral gyrus: Paracentral part

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124
Q

Indicate the site of localization of the cortical center of general sensitivity.

A

Postcentral gyrus: Superior parietal lobule

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125
Q

Between what sulci is the precuneus located?

A

Parieto-occipital sulcus: Cingulate sulcus

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126
Q

The great cardiac vein lies in?

A

Anterior

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127
Q

Indicate anatomical structures supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves

A

Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles

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128
Q

In which gyrus is the cortical motor center located?

A

Precentral gyrus

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129
Q

Indicate the site of localization of the cortical center of general sensitivity

A

Postcentral gyrus

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130
Q

The great cardiac vein lies in

A

Anterior interventricular groove: Coronary groove

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131
Q

What gyri are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?

A

Transverse temporal gyrus

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132
Q

The following events occur at the sternal angle of Louis

A

Trachea bifurcates into main bronchi: Superior border of fibrous pericardium: Border between superior and inferior mediastina

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133
Q

What anatomical structures border the internal capsule?

A

Head of caudate nucleus: Thalamus: Lentiform nucleus

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134
Q

Indicate basal nuclei of the brain

A

Corpus striatum: Amygdaloid body: Claustrum

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135
Q

Indicate the site of localization of the amygdaloid body

A

Temporal lobe

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136
Q

The descending thoracic aorta

A

Has 11 pairs of posterior intercostal arteries: Is located posterior to the esophagus at the level of the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

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137
Q

What walls of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle are formed by the corpus callosum?

A

Superior wall: Anterior wall

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138
Q

The right vagus nerve

A

Lies at the lateral (right) border of the trachea in the superior mediastinum: Has a recurrent laryngeal branch, which passes posterior to the derivative of the embryonic right 6th aortic arch: Innervates the stomach

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139
Q

What anatomical structures form walls of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

Fimbria of hippocampus: Hippocampus

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140
Q

What anatomical structures belong to diencephalon?

A

Mamillary body: Optic chiasm: Lamina terminalis

141
Q

What anatomical structures belong to hypothalamus?

A

Tuber cinereum: Supraoptic nucleus: Lamina terminalis

142
Q

What anatomical structures belong to metathalamus?

A

Medial geniculate body: Lateral geniculate body

143
Q

What structures form walls of the 3rd ventricle?

A

Hypothalamus: Column of fornix: Thalamus

144
Q

Indicate hypothalamic nuclei

A

Paraventricular nucleus: Suprachiasmatic nucleus: Supraoptic nucleus

145
Q

Indicate limbic structures

A

Anterior perforated substance: Hippocampus: Olfactory bulb: Olfactory tract

146
Q

Indicate structures of the midbrain

A

Black substance: Peduncles of brain: Red nucleus

147
Q

Which statements are true about the medial lemniscus?

A

Is formed by the crossings of the internal arcuate fibers: Also known as Reil’s band: Axons decussate in the brainstem: Carries sensory information from the gracile and cuneate nuclei to the thalamus

148
Q

Indicate subcortical acoustic centers

A

Medial geniculate body: Inferior colliculi of midbrain

149
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, relating to the isthmus of rhombencephalon

A

Superior medullary velum: Trigone of lemniscus: Superior cerebellar peduncles

150
Q

What structures divide the pons into tegmentum and basis?

A

Trapezoid body

151
Q

Indicate the site of localization of the lateral lemniscus

A

Trigone of lemniscus

152
Q

Indicate cranial nerves, having nuclei in the pons

A

VII CN: VI CN: V CN

153
Q

What parts of the brain are connected by middle cerebellar peduncles?

A

Cerebellum: Pons

154
Q

The relation of the intercostal neurovascular bundle in superior to inferior order is

A

Vein: artery: nerve

155
Q

What parts of the brain are connected by inferior cerebellar peduncles?

A

Pons: Myelencephalon: Cerebellum

156
Q

Indicate the site of localization of nucleus of accessory nerve

A

Myelencephalon: Superior segments of spinal cord

157
Q

Indicate the site of localization of motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve

158
Q

Indicate cranial nerves, for which the nucleus of solitary tract is a common one

A

9th nerve: 10th nerve: 7th nerve

159
Q

Choose the statements which describe the lateral cord of the brachial plexus correctly

A

It gives rise to the musculocutaneous nerve

160
Q

Indicate cranial nerves, for which the nucleus ambiguus is a common one

A

10th nerve: 9th nerve

161
Q

The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true

A

Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa: Is a branch of facial nerve: Contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers

162
Q

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is described correctly by all the following statements, EXCEPT

A

It gives off the median nerve

163
Q

Which statement is/are correct about dorsal tegmental decussation?

A

It also called Meynert decussation

164
Q

Fibres of what conducting tract form the ventral decussation of the midbrain tegmentum?

A

Rubrospinal tract

165
Q

What conducting tracts pass through the genu of internal capsule?

A

Corticonuclear

166
Q

Indicate conducting tracts in the posterior funiculi of the spinal cord

A

Cuneate fasciculus

167
Q

Indicate conducting tracts in the lateral funiculi of the spinal cord

A

Rubrospinal tract

168
Q

Denote the borders of spatium antescalenum

A

Sternothyroideus muscles: Sternohyoideus muscle: Anterior scalenus muscle

169
Q

Indicate conducting tracts in the internal capsule

A

Projectional fibres

170
Q

Contraction of the tensor tympani and the stapedius prevents damage to the ear-drum and inner ear. These muscles are controlled by the following nerves

A

Trigeminal and facial nerves

171
Q

What parts of the brain and spinal cord the posterior spinocerebellar tract passes through?

A

Lateral funiculus of spinal cord: Inferior cerebellar peduncle

172
Q

Indicate nuclei of the brain, processes of which form the medial lemniscus

A

Cuneate nucleus: Gracile nucleus

173
Q

What parts of the brain the corticonuclear tract passes through?

A

Genu of internal capsule: Precentral gyrus

174
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, residing in epidural space of the vertebral canal

A

Fatty tissue: Venous plexus

175
Q

Indicate structures of brain, secreting liquor

A

Choroid plexus of lateral ventricles: Choroid plexus of 3rd ventricle: Choroid tela of 4th ventricle

176
Q

Indicate openings, connecting a cavity of 4th ventricle with subarachnoid space

A

Lateral apertures: Median aperture

177
Q

From what cavity of the brain liquor flows into subarachnoid space?

A

From 4th ventricle

178
Q

Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because

A

It is deep seated

179
Q

Indicate features of the dura mater of the brain

A

Fused with bones of skull in some places: Presence of venous sinuses: Presence of processes: Presence of cerebral falx

180
Q

What sinus does the inferior sagittal sinus flow into?

A

Straight sinus

181
Q

What sinuses and veins flow into the straight sinus?

A

Superior sagittal sinus: Inferior sagittal sinus: Great cerebral vein

182
Q

Indicate sinuses merging in the region of internal occipital eminence and forming confluence of sinuses

A

Transverse sinus: Superior sagittal sinus: Straight sinus: Occipital sinus

183
Q

Which cranial nerves exit brain on the medial surface of peduncle of the brain?

A

3rd pair of nerves

184
Q

What cranial nerves exit brain on the dorsal surface of the brainstem?

A

4th pair of nerves

185
Q

What cranial nerves exit brainstem between pons and myelencephalon?

A

6th pair of nerves

186
Q

What cranial nerves exit brainstem between pyramid and olive?

A

12th pair of nerves

187
Q

What cranial nerves exit brainstem behind an olive?

A

9th pair of nerves: 10th pair of nerves: 11th pair of nerves

188
Q

Indicate anatomical structures relating to peripheral nervous system

A

Cranial nerves: Spinal nerves: Splanchnic nerves: Sensory ganglia of spinal nerves

189
Q

Nerve supply to pleura is derived from

A

Intercostal nerve: Vagus nerve: Phrenic nerve

190
Q

Which vessel does not originate from the arch of the aorta?

A

Right subclavian artery: Right common carotid artery

191
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves

A

Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles

192
Q

Indicate spinal nerves, having white communicating branches

A

Thoracic nerves: 1st and 2nd lumbar nerves

193
Q

Indicate cutaneous branches of cervical plexus

A

Great auricular nerve: Transverse cervical nerve: Lesser occipital nerve: Supraclavicular nerve

194
Q

Indicate muscles, innervated by cervical plexus

A

Scalene muscles: Longus colli and capitis: Rectus capitis anterior: Levator scapulae: Trapezius

195
Q

Indicate sites of passage of greater occipital nerve

A

Between atlas and axis: Through trapezius

196
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by transverse cervical nerve

A

Skin of anterior cervical region: Skin of lateral cervical region

197
Q

Which statement is/are correct about the medial cutaneous nerve of forearm?

A

Innervates skin on medial side of forearm: Arise from the medial cord of brachial plexus

198
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by phrenic nerve

A

Liver: Pericardium: Pleura: Peritoneum

199
Q

Indicate sources of supply of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles

A

Accessory nerve: Branches of cervical plexus

200
Q

Indicate a source of supply of the skin of anterior and lateral cervical regions

A

Transverse cervical nerve

201
Q

Indicate sites of passage of phrenic nerve

A

In superior mediastinum: On front surface of anterior scalene muscle: Between subclavian artery and vein: Anterior to root of lung

202
Q

Indicate nerves, being the short branches of brachial plexus

A

Long thoracic nerve: Axillary nerve: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves: Subscapular nerve

203
Q

Indicate muscles, innervated by the axillary nerve

A

Deltoid muscle

204
Q

Indicate muscles, innervated by the long thoracic nerve

A

Anterior serratus

205
Q

What nerves provide sensory supply in elbow joint?

A

Ulnar nerve: Radial nerve: Median nerve

206
Q

Indicate nerves, originating from the medial fascicle of the brachial plexus

A

Ulnar nerve: Medial pectoral nerve: Medial cutaneous nerve of arm

207
Q

Indicate muscles, innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve

A

Coracobrachialis: Biceps brachii

208
Q

Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by the ulnar nerve

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris: Medial part of flexor digitorum profundus: Elbow joint

209
Q

The spinal cord is suspended in the dura mater by the

A

Denticulate ligament

210
Q

The principal site of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid into the venous system is through the

A

Arachnoid villa

211
Q

The dorsal root ganglia are located in the

A

Intervertebral foramina

212
Q

The bundle of nerve rootlets in the subarachnoid space caudal to the termination of the spinal cord is known as the

A

Cauda equina

213
Q

Which of these statements concerning the filum terminale of the spinal cord are correct?

A

It is a fibrous strand extending from the inferior end of the conus medullaris: It is one of the modifications of pia mater

214
Q

All the following statements concerning the anterior spinal artery are correct, EXCEPT

A

It arises from branches of the internal carotid

215
Q

Which of the following structures are located in the epidural space?

A

Spinal nerve roots: Loose connective tissue: The anterior vertebral venous plexus: The posterior vertebral venous plexus

216
Q

Which of these statements concerning the posterior cruciate ligament are correct?

A

It connects the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia to the medial condyle of the femur: It is an intracapsular ligament

217
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the pia mater is correct?

A

It continues inferior to the conus medullaris as the filum terminale

218
Q

The lumbar cistern contains the

A

Cauda equina

219
Q

The supraclavicular nerves

A

Innervate the skin of the region of sternocleidomastoid muscle

220
Q

If an incision had to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, which layer of tissue would be cut first?

221
Q

To free the small intestine from the posterior abdominal wall, which of the following would have to be cut?

222
Q

Which of the following are part of the cystic duct?

A

Neck: Fundus: Body

223
Q

Urine that leaves the distal convoluted tubule passes through the following structures. In which sequence?

A

Collecting duct: Calyces: Pelvis: Ureter

224
Q

Blood is drained directly from the kidneys by the

A

Renal veins

225
Q

Which organ has segmental structure?

A

Kidney: Lung: Liver

226
Q

The male urethra is encircled by which structure?

A

Prostate gland

227
Q

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A

Uterine tubes

228
Q

A pair of slender tubes from each ovary to the side of the fundus of the uterus, through which the ova pass called

A

Salpinx: Fallopian tube: Oviduct: Uterine tubes

229
Q

Which sequence better represents the course taken by sperm from the site of origin to the exterior?

A

Seminiferous tubules: Efferent ductules: Duct of epididymis: Ductus deferens: Ejaculatory duct: Urethra

230
Q

The right colic flexure occurs between the

A

Ascending colon and transverse colon

231
Q

Which of the following is not considered part of the digestive system?

232
Q

Which of the following is not a spermatic duct?

A

Spermatic cord: Bile duct

233
Q

Which are the parts of the uterus?

A

Fundus: Cervix: Body

234
Q

Which statement about the small intestine is/are true?

A

Terminates at the ileocecal junction: Is mostly intraperitoneal: Begins at the pylorus: Includes the jejunum

235
Q

Which is/are true of the colon?

A

Right flexure below the liver: Has taeniae coli: Haustra are saclike outpocketings of the colon wall

236
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the inferior thoracic aperture are correct?

A

It is closed by the diaphragm: Structures passing through the inferior thoracic aperture between the thorax and abdomen include the inferior vena cava and esophagus: It is bounded by costal cartilages of ribs 7 through 10 anteriorly: It is bounded by the xiphosternal junction anteriorly

237
Q

Which of the following structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen?

A

The superior gluteal artery: The sciatic nerve: The pudendal nerve

238
Q

The sternal angle is found at which of these locations?

A

Manubriosternal joint

239
Q

Which of these items is true regarding external anatomy of the lung?

A

Visceral pleura covers all lung surfaces

240
Q

The “Eustachian” tubes

A

Connect the middle ear with the nasopharynx

241
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the trachea?

A

It contains cartilage

242
Q

Which statement is not true regarding the ductus deferens?

A

It loops over the ureter before entering the ureter: Part of it is located within the prostate gland

243
Q

Which organ has a hilum?

A

Lung: Kidney

244
Q

Which are located within the kidney?

A

Pyramid: Collecting tubule: Minor calyx

245
Q

Which would not contribute to the components of the semen?

A

Urinary bladder

246
Q

Which statement concerning the pleura is CORRECT?

A

Posteriorly, the parietal pleura extends from the level of the spine of vertebra C7 to vertebra T12

247
Q

Which statement about the duodenum is/are true?

A

Begins at the pylorus: Consists of 4 parts

248
Q

Where is it located?

A

Within the prostate gland

249
Q

Which structures are located within the kidney?

A

Pyramid: Collecting tubule: Minor calyx

250
Q

Which statements about the duodenum are true?

A

Begins at the pylorus: Consists of 4 parts

251
Q

Which of the following are unpaired cartilages?

A

Epiglottis: Cricoid cartilage: Thyroid cartilage

252
Q

Which structure is part of the inner ear?

A

Semicircular canal: Cochlea: Vestibule: Organ of Corti

253
Q

Which of the following is specifically associated with the cochlea?

A

Organ of Corti

254
Q

Which structures are located in the fibrous tunic of the eye?

A

Sclera and cornea

255
Q

What regulates the amount of light entering the eye?

256
Q

In which lobe of the cerebrum is vision detected?

257
Q

What is the auditory ossicle nearest the tympanic membrane?

258
Q

Where does the rubrospinal tract originate?

A

Red nucleus: Midbrain

259
Q

Focusing on near objects is the function of the?

260
Q

What does the cochlear duct contain?

261
Q

What is the blind spot also known as?

A

Optic disc

262
Q

Through which surfaces do light rays pass?

A

Cornea: Lens: Vitreous body: Aqueous humor

263
Q

In the auditory pathway, where does the nervous impulse end?

A

Temporal lobe

264
Q

What does the middle or vascular tunic of the eyeball include?

265
Q

Which gland produces fluid that cleans and lubricates the eyeball?

A

Lacrimal gland

266
Q

Which artery is (are) the first divisions of the celiac trunk?

A

Common hepatic artery: Left gastric artery

267
Q

Which of the following is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?

A

Vertebral artery

268
Q

Which of the following is not part of the alimentary canal?

A

Liver: Spleen

269
Q

Which artery is not a branch of the axillary artery?

A

Profunda brachii

270
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has origin in which cranial nerves?

A

Occulomotor: Facial: Glossopharyngeal: Vagus

271
Q

What structures are contained within the submandibular triangle?

A

Lingual nerve: Facial artery: Submandibular gland: Hypoglossal nerve

272
Q

Where does the motor division of the trigeminal nerve leave the skull?

A

Foramen ovale

273
Q

Which branches of the trigeminal nerve are NOT included?

A

Lesser petrosal

274
Q

How is the portal vein mostly formed?

A

By the splenic and superior mesenteric veins

275
Q

The cystic duct joins which duct to form the common bile duct?

276
Q

Which arteries provide vascularity to the stomach?

A

Gastroduodenal artery: Left gastric artery: Common hepatic artery: Right gastric artery

277
Q

Which arteries are derived from the celiac trunk?

A

Gastroduodenal: Left gastroepiploic: Right gastric: Superior pancreaticoduodenal

278
Q

What is correct about the first part of the duodenum?

A

It is surrounded by the hepatoduodenal ligament

279
Q

Which structures cross the second portion of the duodenum?

A

Transverse colon

280
Q

Which artery crosses the anterior aspect of the third part of the duodenum?

A

Superior mesenteric

281
Q

What is correct about the greater duodenal papilla?

A

It is continued below by the longitudinal fold of the duodenum

282
Q

Behind which artery is the lower left portion of the head of the pancreas inserted?

A

Superior mesenteric

283
Q

Where do the superior mesenteric and splenic veins unite to form the portal vein?

A

Behind the neck of the pancreas

284
Q

Where does the tail of the pancreas enter?

A

Lienorenal ligament

285
Q

What represents the obliterated remains of the umbilical vein?

A

Ligamentum teres hepatis

286
Q

What does the hepatoduodenal ligament transmit?

A

Portal vein

287
Q

From which arteries does the cystic artery usually arise?

A

Right hepatic

288
Q

Where do the hepatic veins drain into?

A

Inferior vena cava

289
Q

Where does the portal vein ascend to the liver?

A

In the free margin of the lesser omentum

290
Q

Which structures are supplied by branches of the superior mesenteric artery?

A

Ascending colon: Duodenojejunal junction: Jejunoileal junction

291
Q

What is correct about the middle colic artery?

A

It is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery

292
Q

Where are epiploic appendages located?

293
Q

What is correct about the vermiform appendix?

A

It has a small mesentery

294
Q

Where is the transverse mesocolon attached posteriorly?

A

Second portion of the duodenum

295
Q

Where does the psoas major muscle insert?

A

Lesser trochanter

296
Q

Where does the right suprarenal vein drain into?

A

Inferior vena cava

297
Q

Which structure is located in the renal column?

A

Interlobar arteries

298
Q

Which structures are important in the selective reabsorption of water?

A

Straight and convoluted tubules

299
Q

What is correct about the pelvic splanchnic nerves?

A

Provide parasympathetic fibers to the bladder: Arise from the anterior rami of the sacral spinal nerves S2-S4: Provide parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut

300
Q

What is correct about the gallbladder?

A

Its epithelium concentrates the contents of the gallbladder

301
Q

What is correct about the falciform ligament?

A

It extends from the umbilicus to the liver

302
Q

What does the anterior surface of the liver lie against?

A

All the following structures, EXCEPT Spleen

303
Q

Which structures are situated between the celiac trunk and the superior mesenteric artery?

A

Duodenum and pancreas

304
Q

How is blood drained directly from the kidneys?

A

By the renal veins

305
Q

Which organ has a segmental structure?

A

Kidney: Lung: Liver

306
Q

By which structure is the male urethra encircled?

A

Prostate gland

307
Q

What is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes called?

308
Q

Which nerve provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

309
Q

What is correct about the clavicle?

A

All are correct, EXCEPT It is an example of the short bones

310
Q

What is the intersection of the coronal and sagittal suture called?

311
Q

What is the surgical neck of the humerus related to?

A

Axillary nerve

312
Q

What is Erb’s point?

313
Q

What is the deformity called in Erb’s paralysis?

A

Policeman’s tip position

314
Q

The pancreatica magna artery is a branch of which arteries?

315
Q

What does paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle cause?

A

Winging of the scapula

316
Q

Which muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’?

A

Masseter: Temporalis: Lateral Pterygoids: Medial Pterygoids

317
Q

What does a lesion of the axillary nerve cause?

A

Flat shoulder

318
Q

What does the superior vena cava return blood from?

A

All of these structures, EXCEPT Lungs

319
Q

What correctly describes the brachiocephalic veins?

A

All the following statements correctly describe the brachiocephalic veins, EXCEPT They contain valves to prevent backflow of blood

320
Q

What is the ‘Key’ for articulatio tarsi transversa (shopora joint)?

A

Ligamentum bifurcatum

321
Q

What does the sympathetic trunk extend from?

A

The base of the skull to the coccyx

322
Q

Which nerve sends branches to the muscles of the arm?

A

Musculocutaneous

323
Q

Which nerves arise from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary: Radial

324
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has origin in all the following cranial nerves except?

A

Trigeminal

325
Q

Which statements concerning the facial nerve or its named branches are true except?

A

Innervate muscle of the tongue

326
Q

Denote the branch of subclavian artery?

A

Transversa artery of a neck: Vertebral: Internal thoracic: Thyro-cervical trunk

327
Q

Where does the greater splanchnic nerve usually synapse?

A

Celiac ganglion

328
Q

Which of the following nerves arise from medial cords of the brachial plexus?

329
Q

All of the following are branches of the pudendal nerve except?

A

Inferior gluteal N

330
Q

What is the nerve supply to the extensor digitorum brevis?

A

Deep peroneal N

331
Q

Which nerve innervates the tensor fascia lata muscle?

A

Superior gluteal N

332
Q

What will herniation of the intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae compress?

A

Sixth cervical nerve root

333
Q

Which of these is (are) a component of the cardiac conduction system?

A

Atrioventricular node: Sinoatrial node: Conduction myofibers: Atrioventricular bundle

334
Q

Which cranial nerves send gustatory input to the brainstem?

335
Q

Which tract has strong facilitating effects on motoneurons innervating antigravity muscles?

A

Medial vestibulospinal

336
Q

What forms the afferent limb of the corneal reflex?

A

Ophthalmic nerve

337
Q

Which ganglia gives rise to the carotid plexus?

A

Superior cervical

338
Q

Where do sensory nerve fibers carrying sensation from all the teeth enter the CNS?

339
Q

Which nerve has fibers that extend into three different cranial nerve nuclei in the pons?

340
Q

Which cranial nerve DOES NOT provide any sensory or motor innervation to the tongue?

341
Q

Where is the IX cranial nerve’s site of emergence?

A

Postolivary sulcus

342
Q

Which cells in the inferior salivatory nucleus send their axons via?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

343
Q

What is seen in a protrusion of a viscus or bowel medial to the inferior epigastric artery?

A

Direct inguinal hernia

344
Q

Which muscles are innervated by the Facial nerve?

A

Zygomaticus major: Buccinator: Platysma: Orbicularis oculi

345
Q

Which statements concerning the spleen are correct?

A

The spleen lies in the upper left abdominal cavity: The spleen is the body’s largest lymphoid organ: The spleen resembles a large lymph node except that it contains blood instead of lymph: The spleen filters the blood: The spleen removes damaged blood cells and bacteria

346
Q

What principle is correct regarding arteries?

A

The arteries are arranged in accordance with the skeleton, which supplies the framework of the organism

347
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?

348
Q

The inferior epigastric artery is a branch of?

A

External iliac artery

349
Q

What nerve is a mixed branch of the cervical plexus?

A

Phrenic nerve