Anatomy MCQ Flashcards
1
Q
What fontanel of the cranium closes on the second year of life?
A
Posterior (occipital) fontanel
2
Q
Name parts of the ethmoid bone.
A
Perpendicular lamina: Ethmoid labyrinth: Cribriform lamina: Orbital lamina
3
Q
Name the conchae being processes of the ethmoid bone.
A
Supreme concha: Superior concha: Medial concha
4
Q
Name the processes of the maxilla.
A
Palatine process: Zygomatic process: Frontal process: Alveolar process
5
Q
What anatomical formations are located on the nasal surface of the maxilla?
A
Conchal crest: Lacrimal sulcus: Maxillary hiatus
6
Q
Name the processes of the palatine bone.
A
Orbital process: Sphenoid process: Pyramidal process
7
Q
What anatomical formations are located on the ramus of the mandible?
A
Coronoid process: Condylar process: Mylohyoid line
8
Q
Name anatomical formations of the anterior cranial fossa.
A
Cribriform lamina: Foramen cecum
9
Q
Denote openings in the medial cranial fossa.
A
Spinous foramen: Superior orbital fissure: Oval foramen
10
Q
Name openings in the posterior cranial fossa.
A
Jugular foramen: Hypoglossal canal: Foramen magnum
11
Q
Which bones form the pterygopalatine fossa?
A
Palatine bone: Sphenoid bone: Maxilla
12
Q
Foramen rotundum opens to?
A
Middle cranial fossa
13
Q
In what cavity of the cranium does the pterygoid canal open?
A
Pterygopalatine fossa
14
Q
Which opening connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the orbit?
A
Inferior orbital fissure
15
Q
Which opening connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasal cavity?
A
Sphenopalatine foramen
16
Q
What bones form the inferior wall of the orbit?
A
Maxilla: Palatine bone: Zygomatic bone
17
Q
Which bones form the medial wall of the orbit?
A
Ethmoid bone: Lacrimal bone: Maxilla: Frontal bone
18
Q
Name openings in the walls of the orbit.
A
Posterior ethmoidal foramen: Optic canal: Nasolacrimal canal: Anterior ethmoidal foramen
19
Q
What bones form the osseous (bony) nasal septum?
A
Vomer: Ethmoid bone
20
Q
Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the Stapedius muscle?
A
Facial nerve (VII)
21
Q
Which of the following structures open into the medial nasal meatus?
A
Semilunar hiatus: Anterior cells of ethmoid bone: Middle cells of ethmoid bone
22
Q
What bones form the hard (osseous) palate?
A
Palatine bone: Maxilla
23
Q
What bones form the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?
A
Inferior concha: Ethmoid bone: Sphenoid bone: Maxilla
24
Q
A patient who has difficulty in speaking, swallowing, and protruding the tongue has a lesion of which nerve?
A
Hypoglossal nerve
25
Which of the following belongs to synarthrosis?
Sutures: Gomphosis
26
Denote fibrous junctions.
Sutures: Gomphosis: Membranes: Fontanelles
27
Denote cartilaginous junctions.
Junction between the manubrium and body of sternum: Junction of bodies of vertebrae: Junction between the body of sternum and xiphoid process
28
What anatomical structures does a synovial joint have?
Joint cavity: Articular lip: Articular cartilage: Synovial fluid
29
What joints (in shape) relate to uniaxial joints?
Pivot joint: Hinge joint
30
What joints (in shape) relate to biaxial joints?
Condyloid joint: Sellar joint
31
What is the shape of the temporomandibular joint?
Ellipsoid
32
What ligaments join the arches of vertebrae?
Ligamenta flava
33
What is the shape of the median atlanto-axial joint?
Pivot
34
The following bones are connected through membranes between which?
Tibia and fibula: Ulnar and radial
35
What movements are possible in the median atlanto-axial joint?
Rotation
36
What type of junctions do articulations of the 2-7 ribs with the sternum belong to?
Discontinuous
37
The knee joint belongs to which type?
Complex joints
38
What joints of the upper limb are uniaxial?
Proximal radio-ulnar joint: Interphalangeal joints of hand: Distal radio-ulnar joint
39
Which of the following ligaments attach to the anterior wall of the vertebral canal?
Posterior longitudinal ligament
40
Denote joints with an intra-articular disc.
Sternoclavicular joint: Radiocarpal joint
41
Denote anatomical formations that restrict abduction of the upper limb in the shoulder joint.
Coraco-acromial ligament
42
Denote muscles antagonistic to the orbicularis oris.
Depressor anguli oris: Greater zygomaticus: Risorius: Levator labii superioris
43
Denote muscles forming transverse folds on the forehead (the expression of surprise).
Occipitofrontalis
44
Name muscles that simultaneously move the angle of the mouth outwards and upwards.
Greater zygomaticus: Levator anguli oris
45
Denote muscles protracting the mandible.
Medial pterygoid: Lateral pterygoid
46
On what bones does the masseter originate?
Zygomatic process of maxilla: Zygomatic arch
47
Denote muscles abducting the upper extremity above the horizontal plane.
Serratus anterior: Deltoid
48
Denote anatomical formations where the lateral pterygoid muscle attaches.
Articular disc of temporomandibular joint: Neck of mandible
49
The muscles of the upper limb include:
Subscapularis: Supraspinatus: Pectoralis major: Brahialis
50
What is the function of the supraspinatus?
Abducts arm: Pulls the head of the humerus medially towards the glenoid cavity
51
These muscles are attached to the medial two thirds of the clavicle.
Sternocleidomastoid: Pectoralis major: Subclavius
52
On what bones does the biceps brachii originate?
Supraglenoid tubercle of scapula: Coracoid process of scapula
53
Which one of the following structures allows CSF to pass from the subarachnoid space to the dural sinus?
Arachnoid villi
54
The following muscle attaches to the medial border of the scapula.
Levator scapulae: Serratus anterior: Rhomboideus major
55
Which of the following structures help to define the pelvic brim?
The arcuate line: The pectineal line
56
Denote anatomical structures passing through the adductor canal.
Femoral artery: Femoral vein
57
Denote canals inferior (below) the inguinal ligament.
Femoral canal: Adductor canal
58
The back of the medial epicondyle is related to the?
Ulnar nerve
59
The following muscles flex the leg.
Gracilis: Semitendinosus: Semimembranosus: Biceps femoris
60
Denote muscles of the anterior group of the leg.
Tibialis anterior: Extensor digitorum longus: Peroneus tertius
61
Denote muscles forming the deep layer of the posterior group of the leg.
Popliteus: Flexor digitorum longus: Tibialis posterior
62
Denote muscles pronating the foot.
Peroneus longus: Peroneus brevis
63
Denote muscles extending the foot in the talocrural joint.
Extensor digitorum longus: Extensor hallucis longus: Tibialis anterior
64
Denote muscles participating in the flexion (plantar flexion) of the foot.
Flexor digitorum longus: Flexor hallucis longus: Tibialis posterior: Triceps surae
65
Indicate layers of an eyeball.
Fibrous layer: Retina: Vascular layer
66
Name parts of an analyzer.
Peripheral part: Nervous centres in the brain cortex: Ascending conducting tract
67
Indicate anatomical structures of vascular layer of an eyeball.
Ciliary body: Ciliary muscles
68
Indicate the site of localization of the ciliary zonule.
Attached to ciliary body
69
What anatomical structures pass through the common tendinous ring in the orbit?
Ophthalmic artery: Optic nerve
70
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
Tunica media
71
What structure produces aqueous humor filling anterior and posterior chambers of an eyeball?
Epithelium: Covering ciliary body and its processes
72
Where does the aqueous humor flow from the anterior chamber of an eyeball?
In scleral venous sinus
73
Indicate parts of the brain the conducting tract of the visual analyzer is passing through.
Lateral geniculate body: Occipital lobe of brain: Internal capsule
74
Indicate lateral and posterior walls of tympanic cavity.
Mastoid wall: Labyrinthine wall
75
Indicate anatomical formations on the labyrinthine wall of tympanic cavity.
Promontory: Prominence of facial canal: Prominence of lateral semicircular canal
76
What anatomical structures are related to the transmitting system of the organ of hearing?
Auditory ossicles: Tympanic membrane: Membrane of oval window: Perilymph in scala vestibule
77
Denote the statements which correctly describe the semicircular ducts.
Are oriented roughly 90 degrees to each other: Work in pairs to detect head movements: Each duct has an ampulla: Located within the bony semicircular canals
78
Indicate orientation of the anterior semicircular duct.
Perpendicular to longitudinal axis of pyramid
79
Indicate possible paths of outflow of perilymph from perilymphatic space of labyrinth.
Into subarachnoid space on inferior surface of pyramid of temporal bone
80
Indicate structures of the central part of rhinencephalon.
Subcallosal area: Diagonal band: Parahippocampal gyrus: Uncus
81
What makes up the femoral triangle?
Medial border of the adductor longus muscle: Inguinal ligament: Medial border of the sartorius muscle
82
Indicate papillae of tongue.
Foliate papillae: Filiform papillae: Fungiform papillae: Circumvallate papillae
83
Indicate vessels and nerves of the organ of vision.
Central artery of retina: Branches of ophthalmic nerve: Oculomotor nerve
84
Indicate vessels of vestibulocochlear organ.
Branch of internal carotid artery: Branch of external carotid artery: Veins running into retromandibular vein
85
Indicate vessels and nerves of external and middle ear.
Veins running into external jugular vein: Veins running into retromandibular vein: Branch of vagus nerve: Tympanic nerve
86
Indicate vessels and nerves of an auditory tube.
Anterior tympanic artery: Branch of ascending pharyngeal artery: Veins running into pharyngeal venous plexus: Branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
87
Indicate sites of passage of the oculomotor nerve.
Lateral wall of cavernous sinus: Superior orbital fissure
88
Indicate muscles innervated by the inferior branch of oculomotor nerve.
Inferior rectus: Medial rectus: Inferior oblique
89
Indicate muscles innervated by trochlear nerve.
Superior oblique
90
Indicate muscles innervated by abducent nerve.
Lateral rectus
91
Indicate branches of trigeminal nerve innervating the mucous membrane of nasal cavity.
Nasociliary nerve
92
Indicate a nerve, its sensory fibres directed to ciliary ganglion.
Nasociliary nerve
93
Indicate branches of ophthalmic nerve.
Lacrimal nerve: Frontal nerve: Nasociliary nerve
94
Indicate branches of mandibular nerve.
Buccal nerve: Auriculotemporal nerve: Lingual nerve: Inferior alveolar nerve
95
The greater petrosal nerve leaves the facial canal through?
Hiatus of canal of greater petrosal nerve
96
Indicate nerves forming the nerve of pterygoid canal.
Greater petrosal nerve: Deep petrosal nerve
97
Indicate nerves branching from pterygopalatine ganglion.
Greater and lesser palatine nerves: Lesser palatine nerves: Posterior superior lateral and medial nasal branches: Pharyngeal branches
98
Indicate branches of facial nerve in facial canal.
Greater petrosal nerve: Tympanic chord: Nerve to stapedius: Posterior auricular nerve
99
Indicate branches of glossopharyngeal nerve.
Pharyngeal branches: Tonsillar branches: Tympanic nerve
100
Indicate nerves forming pharyngeal plexus.
Vagus nerve: Glossopharyngeal nerve: Sympathetic trunk: Facial nerve
101
Indicate organs innervated by the posterior trunk of vagus nerve.
Liver: Small intestine: Stomach: Pancreas
102
Indicate organs innervated by the anterior trunk of vagus nerve.
Liver: Stomach: Pancreas
103
Indicate sites of passage of the vagus nerve.
Posterolateral sulcus of myelencephalon: Posterior to root of lung: On pretracheal sheet of cervical fascia
104
Indicate anatomical structures innervated by auricular branch of vagus nerve.
Skin of external surface of auricle: Skin of posterior wall of external acoustic meatus
105
Indicate branches of accessory nerve.
External branch: Internal branch
106
Indicate muscles innervated by accessory nerve.
Sternocleidomastoid: Trapezius
107
Indicate the level of projection of the upper border of the spinal cord.
Lower margin of foramen magnum
108
The following blood vessels empty into the right atrium.
Inferior vena cava: Superior vena cava: Coronary sinus
109
What anatomical structures form a spinal nerve?
Anterior root of spinal cord: Posterior root of spinal cord
110
A reflex arch includes.
Afferent neuron: Interneurons: Effector: Motor neuron: Receptors
111
Indicate nuclei of the posterior horn of the spinal cord.
Thoracic nucleus: Nucleus proprius
112
Following are the pairs describing skull foramina and the nerves related. Choose the correct pair.
Internal acoustic meatus: Nerves intermedius, Foramen jugulare: Cranial nerve IX, X, XI
113
Denote the nerves which innervate the triceps brachii.
Radial
114
Indicate part of the brain the cerebral peduncles belong to.
Midbrain
115
What parts of the brain are related to cerebrum?
Insula: Corpus callosum: Rhinencephalon: Basal nuclei
116
What anatomical structures belong to telencephalon?
Basal nuclei: Internal capsule: Fornix
117
Denote the statements which correctly describe the axillary artery.
It gives origin to the thoracoacromion artery: It provides blood supply to the humerus
118
Between what structures of the brain is the sulcus of the corpus callosum located?
Cingulate gyrus: Corpus callosum
119
Indicate gyri on the inferior surface of cerebral hemispheres.
Straight gyrus: Orbital gyrus
120
Near what sulcus is the supramarginal gyrus located?
Lateral sulcus
121
Indicate gyri of the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.
Opercular part: Triangular part: Precentral gyrus: Orbital part
122
Indicate anatomical structures supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves.
Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles
123
In which gyrus is the cortical motor center located?
Precentral gyrus: Paracentral part
124
Indicate the site of localization of the cortical center of general sensitivity.
Postcentral gyrus: Superior parietal lobule
125
Between what sulci is the precuneus located?
Parieto-occipital sulcus: Cingulate sulcus
126
The great cardiac vein lies in?
Anterior
127
Indicate anatomical structures supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves
Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles
128
In which gyrus is the cortical motor center located?
Precentral gyrus
129
Indicate the site of localization of the cortical center of general sensitivity
Postcentral gyrus
130
The great cardiac vein lies in
Anterior interventricular groove: Coronary groove
131
What gyri are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?
Transverse temporal gyrus
132
The following events occur at the sternal angle of Louis
Trachea bifurcates into main bronchi: Superior border of fibrous pericardium: Border between superior and inferior mediastina
133
What anatomical structures border the internal capsule?
Head of caudate nucleus: Thalamus: Lentiform nucleus
134
Indicate basal nuclei of the brain
Corpus striatum: Amygdaloid body: Claustrum
135
Indicate the site of localization of the amygdaloid body
Temporal lobe
136
The descending thoracic aorta
Has 11 pairs of posterior intercostal arteries: Is located posterior to the esophagus at the level of the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
137
What walls of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle are formed by the corpus callosum?
Superior wall: Anterior wall
138
The right vagus nerve
Lies at the lateral (right) border of the trachea in the superior mediastinum: Has a recurrent laryngeal branch, which passes posterior to the derivative of the embryonic right 6th aortic arch: Innervates the stomach
139
What anatomical structures form walls of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?
Fimbria of hippocampus: Hippocampus
140
What anatomical structures belong to diencephalon?
Mamillary body: Optic chiasm: Lamina terminalis
141
What anatomical structures belong to hypothalamus?
Tuber cinereum: Supraoptic nucleus: Lamina terminalis
142
What anatomical structures belong to metathalamus?
Medial geniculate body: Lateral geniculate body
143
What structures form walls of the 3rd ventricle?
Hypothalamus: Column of fornix: Thalamus
144
Indicate hypothalamic nuclei
Paraventricular nucleus: Suprachiasmatic nucleus: Supraoptic nucleus
145
Indicate limbic structures
Anterior perforated substance: Hippocampus: Olfactory bulb: Olfactory tract
146
Indicate structures of the midbrain
Black substance: Peduncles of brain: Red nucleus
147
Which statements are true about the medial lemniscus?
Is formed by the crossings of the internal arcuate fibers: Also known as Reil’s band: Axons decussate in the brainstem: Carries sensory information from the gracile and cuneate nuclei to the thalamus
148
Indicate subcortical acoustic centers
Medial geniculate body: Inferior colliculi of midbrain
149
Indicate anatomical structures, relating to the isthmus of rhombencephalon
Superior medullary velum: Trigone of lemniscus: Superior cerebellar peduncles
150
What structures divide the pons into tegmentum and basis?
Trapezoid body
151
Indicate the site of localization of the lateral lemniscus
Trigone of lemniscus
152
Indicate cranial nerves, having nuclei in the pons
VII CN: VI CN: V CN
153
What parts of the brain are connected by middle cerebellar peduncles?
Cerebellum: Pons
154
The relation of the intercostal neurovascular bundle in superior to inferior order is
Vein: artery: nerve
155
What parts of the brain are connected by inferior cerebellar peduncles?
Pons: Myelencephalon: Cerebellum
156
Indicate the site of localization of nucleus of accessory nerve
Myelencephalon: Superior segments of spinal cord
157
Indicate the site of localization of motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve
Pons
158
Indicate cranial nerves, for which the nucleus of solitary tract is a common one
9th nerve: 10th nerve: 7th nerve
159
Choose the statements which describe the lateral cord of the brachial plexus correctly
It gives rise to the musculocutaneous nerve
160
Indicate cranial nerves, for which the nucleus ambiguus is a common one
10th nerve: 9th nerve
161
The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true
Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa: Is a branch of facial nerve: Contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
162
The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is described correctly by all the following statements, EXCEPT
It gives off the median nerve
163
Which statement is/are correct about dorsal tegmental decussation?
It also called Meynert decussation
164
Fibres of what conducting tract form the ventral decussation of the midbrain tegmentum?
Rubrospinal tract
165
What conducting tracts pass through the genu of internal capsule?
Corticonuclear
166
Indicate conducting tracts in the posterior funiculi of the spinal cord
Cuneate fasciculus
167
Indicate conducting tracts in the lateral funiculi of the spinal cord
Rubrospinal tract
168
Denote the borders of spatium antescalenum
Sternothyroideus muscles: Sternohyoideus muscle: Anterior scalenus muscle
169
Indicate conducting tracts in the internal capsule
Projectional fibres
170
Contraction of the tensor tympani and the stapedius prevents damage to the ear-drum and inner ear. These muscles are controlled by the following nerves
Trigeminal and facial nerves
171
What parts of the brain and spinal cord the posterior spinocerebellar tract passes through?
Lateral funiculus of spinal cord: Inferior cerebellar peduncle
172
Indicate nuclei of the brain, processes of which form the medial lemniscus
Cuneate nucleus: Gracile nucleus
173
What parts of the brain the corticonuclear tract passes through?
Genu of internal capsule: Precentral gyrus
174
Indicate anatomical structures, residing in epidural space of the vertebral canal
Fatty tissue: Venous plexus
175
Indicate structures of brain, secreting liquor
Choroid plexus of lateral ventricles: Choroid plexus of 3rd ventricle: Choroid tela of 4th ventricle
176
Indicate openings, connecting a cavity of 4th ventricle with subarachnoid space
Lateral apertures: Median aperture
177
From what cavity of the brain liquor flows into subarachnoid space?
From 4th ventricle
178
Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because
It is deep seated
179
Indicate features of the dura mater of the brain
Fused with bones of skull in some places: Presence of venous sinuses: Presence of processes: Presence of cerebral falx
180
What sinus does the inferior sagittal sinus flow into?
Straight sinus
181
What sinuses and veins flow into the straight sinus?
Superior sagittal sinus: Inferior sagittal sinus: Great cerebral vein
182
Indicate sinuses merging in the region of internal occipital eminence and forming confluence of sinuses
Transverse sinus: Superior sagittal sinus: Straight sinus: Occipital sinus
183
Which cranial nerves exit brain on the medial surface of peduncle of the brain?
3rd pair of nerves
184
What cranial nerves exit brain on the dorsal surface of the brainstem?
4th pair of nerves
185
What cranial nerves exit brainstem between pons and myelencephalon?
6th pair of nerves
186
What cranial nerves exit brainstem between pyramid and olive?
12th pair of nerves
187
What cranial nerves exit brainstem behind an olive?
9th pair of nerves: 10th pair of nerves: 11th pair of nerves
188
Indicate anatomical structures relating to peripheral nervous system
Cranial nerves: Spinal nerves: Splanchnic nerves: Sensory ganglia of spinal nerves
189
Nerve supply to pleura is derived from
Intercostal nerve: Vagus nerve: Phrenic nerve
190
Which vessel does not originate from the arch of the aorta?
Right subclavian artery: Right common carotid artery
191
Indicate anatomical structures, supplied by posterior branches of spinal nerves
Deep muscles of back: Skin of dorsal surface of trunk: Suboccipital muscles
192
Indicate spinal nerves, having white communicating branches
Thoracic nerves: 1st and 2nd lumbar nerves
193
Indicate cutaneous branches of cervical plexus
Great auricular nerve: Transverse cervical nerve: Lesser occipital nerve: Supraclavicular nerve
194
Indicate muscles, innervated by cervical plexus
Scalene muscles: Longus colli and capitis: Rectus capitis anterior: Levator scapulae: Trapezius
195
Indicate sites of passage of greater occipital nerve
Between atlas and axis: Through trapezius
196
Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by transverse cervical nerve
Skin of anterior cervical region: Skin of lateral cervical region
197
Which statement is/are correct about the medial cutaneous nerve of forearm?
Innervates skin on medial side of forearm: Arise from the medial cord of brachial plexus
198
Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by phrenic nerve
Liver: Pericardium: Pleura: Peritoneum
199
Indicate sources of supply of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
Accessory nerve: Branches of cervical plexus
200
Indicate a source of supply of the skin of anterior and lateral cervical regions
Transverse cervical nerve
201
Indicate sites of passage of phrenic nerve
In superior mediastinum: On front surface of anterior scalene muscle: Between subclavian artery and vein: Anterior to root of lung
202
Indicate nerves, being the short branches of brachial plexus
Long thoracic nerve: Axillary nerve: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves: Subscapular nerve
203
Indicate muscles, innervated by the axillary nerve
Deltoid muscle
204
Indicate muscles, innervated by the long thoracic nerve
Anterior serratus
205
What nerves provide sensory supply in elbow joint?
Ulnar nerve: Radial nerve: Median nerve
206
Indicate nerves, originating from the medial fascicle of the brachial plexus
Ulnar nerve: Medial pectoral nerve: Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
207
Indicate muscles, innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve
Coracobrachialis: Biceps brachii
208
Indicate anatomical structures, innervated by the ulnar nerve
Flexor carpi ulnaris: Medial part of flexor digitorum profundus: Elbow joint
209
The spinal cord is suspended in the dura mater by the
Denticulate ligament
210
The principal site of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid into the venous system is through the
Arachnoid villa
211
The dorsal root ganglia are located in the
Intervertebral foramina
212
The bundle of nerve rootlets in the subarachnoid space caudal to the termination of the spinal cord is known as the
Cauda equina
213
Which of these statements concerning the filum terminale of the spinal cord are correct?
It is a fibrous strand extending from the inferior end of the conus medullaris: It is one of the modifications of pia mater
214
All the following statements concerning the anterior spinal artery are correct, EXCEPT
It arises from branches of the internal carotid
215
Which of the following structures are located in the epidural space?
Spinal nerve roots: Loose connective tissue: The anterior vertebral venous plexus: The posterior vertebral venous plexus
216
Which of these statements concerning the posterior cruciate ligament are correct?
It connects the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia to the medial condyle of the femur: It is an intracapsular ligament
217
Which of the following statements concerning the pia mater is correct?
It continues inferior to the conus medullaris as the filum terminale
218
The lumbar cistern contains the
Cauda equina
219
The supraclavicular nerves
Innervate the skin of the region of sternocleidomastoid muscle
220
If an incision had to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, which layer of tissue would be cut first?
Serosa
221
To free the small intestine from the posterior abdominal wall, which of the following would have to be cut?
Mesentery
222
Which of the following are part of the cystic duct?
Neck: Fundus: Body
223
Urine that leaves the distal convoluted tubule passes through the following structures. In which sequence?
Collecting duct: Calyces: Pelvis: Ureter
224
Blood is drained directly from the kidneys by the
Renal veins
225
Which organ has segmental structure?
Kidney: Lung: Liver
226
The male urethra is encircled by which structure?
Prostate gland
227
Fertilization normally occurs in the
Uterine tubes
228
A pair of slender tubes from each ovary to the side of the fundus of the uterus, through which the ova pass called
Salpinx: Fallopian tube: Oviduct: Uterine tubes
229
Which sequence better represents the course taken by sperm from the site of origin to the exterior?
Seminiferous tubules: Efferent ductules: Duct of epididymis: Ductus deferens: Ejaculatory duct: Urethra
230
The right colic flexure occurs between the
Ascending colon and transverse colon
231
Which of the following is not considered part of the digestive system?
Spleen
232
Which of the following is not a spermatic duct?
Spermatic cord: Bile duct
233
Which are the parts of the uterus?
Fundus: Cervix: Body
234
Which statement about the small intestine is/are true?
Terminates at the ileocecal junction: Is mostly intraperitoneal: Begins at the pylorus: Includes the jejunum
235
Which is/are true of the colon?
Right flexure below the liver: Has taeniae coli: Haustra are saclike outpocketings of the colon wall
236
Which of the following statements concerning the inferior thoracic aperture are correct?
It is closed by the diaphragm: Structures passing through the inferior thoracic aperture between the thorax and abdomen include the inferior vena cava and esophagus: It is bounded by costal cartilages of ribs 7 through 10 anteriorly: It is bounded by the xiphosternal junction anteriorly
237
Which of the following structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen?
The superior gluteal artery: The sciatic nerve: The pudendal nerve
238
The sternal angle is found at which of these locations?
Manubriosternal joint
239
Which of these items is true regarding external anatomy of the lung?
Visceral pleura covers all lung surfaces
240
The “Eustachian” tubes
Connect the middle ear with the nasopharynx
241
Which of the following statements is true about the trachea?
It contains cartilage
242
Which statement is not true regarding the ductus deferens?
It loops over the ureter before entering the ureter: Part of it is located within the prostate gland
243
Which organ has a hilum?
Lung: Kidney
244
Which are located within the kidney?
Pyramid: Collecting tubule: Minor calyx
245
Which would not contribute to the components of the semen?
Urinary bladder
246
Which statement concerning the pleura is CORRECT?
Posteriorly, the parietal pleura extends from the level of the spine of vertebra C7 to vertebra T12
247
Which statement about the duodenum is/are true?
Begins at the pylorus: Consists of 4 parts
248
Where is it located?
Within the prostate gland
249
Which structures are located within the kidney?
Pyramid: Collecting tubule: Minor calyx
250
Which statements about the duodenum are true?
Begins at the pylorus: Consists of 4 parts
251
Which of the following are unpaired cartilages?
Epiglottis: Cricoid cartilage: Thyroid cartilage
252
Which structure is part of the inner ear?
Semicircular canal: Cochlea: Vestibule: Organ of Corti
253
Which of the following is specifically associated with the cochlea?
Organ of Corti
254
Which structures are located in the fibrous tunic of the eye?
Sclera and cornea
255
What regulates the amount of light entering the eye?
Iris
256
In which lobe of the cerebrum is vision detected?
Occipital
257
What is the auditory ossicle nearest the tympanic membrane?
Malleus
258
Where does the rubrospinal tract originate?
Red nucleus: Midbrain
259
Focusing on near objects is the function of the?
Lens
260
What does the cochlear duct contain?
Endolymph
261
What is the blind spot also known as?
Optic disc
262
Through which surfaces do light rays pass?
Cornea: Lens: Vitreous body: Aqueous humor
263
In the auditory pathway, where does the nervous impulse end?
Temporal lobe
264
What does the middle or vascular tunic of the eyeball include?
Choroid
265
Which gland produces fluid that cleans and lubricates the eyeball?
Lacrimal gland
266
Which artery is (are) the first divisions of the celiac trunk?
Common hepatic artery: Left gastric artery
267
Which of the following is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?
Vertebral artery
268
Which of the following is not part of the alimentary canal?
Liver: Spleen
269
Which artery is not a branch of the axillary artery?
Profunda brachii
270
The parasympathetic nervous system has origin in which cranial nerves?
Occulomotor: Facial: Glossopharyngeal: Vagus
271
What structures are contained within the submandibular triangle?
Lingual nerve: Facial artery: Submandibular gland: Hypoglossal nerve
272
Where does the motor division of the trigeminal nerve leave the skull?
Foramen ovale
273
Which branches of the trigeminal nerve are NOT included?
Lesser petrosal
274
How is the portal vein mostly formed?
By the splenic and superior mesenteric veins
275
The cystic duct joins which duct to form the common bile duct?
Hepatic
276
Which arteries provide vascularity to the stomach?
Gastroduodenal artery: Left gastric artery: Common hepatic artery: Right gastric artery
277
Which arteries are derived from the celiac trunk?
Gastroduodenal: Left gastroepiploic: Right gastric: Superior pancreaticoduodenal
278
What is correct about the first part of the duodenum?
It is surrounded by the hepatoduodenal ligament
279
Which structures cross the second portion of the duodenum?
Transverse colon
280
Which artery crosses the anterior aspect of the third part of the duodenum?
Superior mesenteric
281
What is correct about the greater duodenal papilla?
It is continued below by the longitudinal fold of the duodenum
282
Behind which artery is the lower left portion of the head of the pancreas inserted?
Superior mesenteric
283
Where do the superior mesenteric and splenic veins unite to form the portal vein?
Behind the neck of the pancreas
284
Where does the tail of the pancreas enter?
Lienorenal ligament
285
What represents the obliterated remains of the umbilical vein?
Ligamentum teres hepatis
286
What does the hepatoduodenal ligament transmit?
Portal vein
287
From which arteries does the cystic artery usually arise?
Right hepatic
288
Where do the hepatic veins drain into?
Inferior vena cava
289
Where does the portal vein ascend to the liver?
In the free margin of the lesser omentum
290
Which structures are supplied by branches of the superior mesenteric artery?
Ascending colon: Duodenojejunal junction: Jejunoileal junction
291
What is correct about the middle colic artery?
It is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery
292
Where are epiploic appendages located?
Sigmoid
293
What is correct about the vermiform appendix?
It has a small mesentery
294
Where is the transverse mesocolon attached posteriorly?
Second portion of the duodenum
295
Where does the psoas major muscle insert?
Lesser trochanter
296
Where does the right suprarenal vein drain into?
Inferior vena cava
297
Which structure is located in the renal column?
Interlobar arteries
298
Which structures are important in the selective reabsorption of water?
Straight and convoluted tubules
299
What is correct about the pelvic splanchnic nerves?
Provide parasympathetic fibers to the bladder: Arise from the anterior rami of the sacral spinal nerves S2-S4: Provide parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut
300
What is correct about the gallbladder?
Its epithelium concentrates the contents of the gallbladder
301
What is correct about the falciform ligament?
It extends from the umbilicus to the liver
302
What does the anterior surface of the liver lie against?
All the following structures, EXCEPT Spleen
303
Which structures are situated between the celiac trunk and the superior mesenteric artery?
Duodenum and pancreas
304
How is blood drained directly from the kidneys?
By the renal veins
305
Which organ has a segmental structure?
Kidney: Lung: Liver
306
By which structure is the male urethra encircled?
Prostate gland
307
What is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes called?
Fundus
308
Which nerve provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle?
Thoracodorsal nerve
309
What is correct about the clavicle?
All are correct, EXCEPT It is an example of the short bones
310
What is the intersection of the coronal and sagittal suture called?
Bregma
311
What is the surgical neck of the humerus related to?
Axillary nerve
312
What is Erb’s point?
C5, C6
313
What is the deformity called in Erb’s paralysis?
Policeman’s tip position
314
The pancreatica magna artery is a branch of which arteries?
Splenic
315
What does paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle cause?
Winging of the scapula
316
Which muscles are grouped together as 'muscles of mastication'?
Masseter: Temporalis: Lateral Pterygoids: Medial Pterygoids
317
What does a lesion of the axillary nerve cause?
Flat shoulder
318
What does the superior vena cava return blood from?
All of these structures, EXCEPT Lungs
319
What correctly describes the brachiocephalic veins?
All the following statements correctly describe the brachiocephalic veins, EXCEPT They contain valves to prevent backflow of blood
320
What is the 'Key' for articulatio tarsi transversa (shopora joint)?
Ligamentum bifurcatum
321
What does the sympathetic trunk extend from?
The base of the skull to the coccyx
322
Which nerve sends branches to the muscles of the arm?
Musculocutaneous
323
Which nerves arise from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
Axillary: Radial
324
The parasympathetic nervous system has origin in all the following cranial nerves except?
Trigeminal
325
Which statements concerning the facial nerve or its named branches are true except?
Innervate muscle of the tongue
326
Denote the branch of subclavian artery?
Transversa artery of a neck: Vertebral: Internal thoracic: Thyro-cervical trunk
327
Where does the greater splanchnic nerve usually synapse?
Celiac ganglion
328
Which of the following nerves arise from medial cords of the brachial plexus?
Ulnar
329
All of the following are branches of the pudendal nerve except?
Inferior gluteal N
330
What is the nerve supply to the extensor digitorum brevis?
Deep peroneal N
331
Which nerve innervates the tensor fascia lata muscle?
Superior gluteal N
332
What will herniation of the intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae compress?
Sixth cervical nerve root
333
Which of these is (are) a component of the cardiac conduction system?
Atrioventricular node: Sinoatrial node: Conduction myofibers: Atrioventricular bundle
334
Which cranial nerves send gustatory input to the brainstem?
VII
335
Which tract has strong facilitating effects on motoneurons innervating antigravity muscles?
Medial vestibulospinal
336
What forms the afferent limb of the corneal reflex?
Ophthalmic nerve
337
Which ganglia gives rise to the carotid plexus?
Superior cervical
338
Where do sensory nerve fibers carrying sensation from all the teeth enter the CNS?
Pons
339
Which nerve has fibers that extend into three different cranial nerve nuclei in the pons?
Facial
340
Which cranial nerve DOES NOT provide any sensory or motor innervation to the tongue?
VIII
341
Where is the IX cranial nerve's site of emergence?
Postolivary sulcus
342
Which cells in the inferior salivatory nucleus send their axons via?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
343
What is seen in a protrusion of a viscus or bowel medial to the inferior epigastric artery?
Direct inguinal hernia
344
Which muscles are innervated by the Facial nerve?
Zygomaticus major: Buccinator: Platysma: Orbicularis oculi
345
Which statements concerning the spleen are correct?
The spleen lies in the upper left abdominal cavity: The spleen is the body’s largest lymphoid organ: The spleen resembles a large lymph node except that it contains blood instead of lymph: The spleen filters the blood: The spleen removes damaged blood cells and bacteria
346
What principle is correct regarding arteries?
The arteries are arranged in accordance with the skeleton, which supplies the framework of the organism
347
Which cranial nerve innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?
VII
348
The inferior epigastric artery is a branch of?
External iliac artery
349
What nerve is a mixed branch of the cervical plexus?
Phrenic nerve
