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Anatomy Lab. pract. 2 > Anatomy labs for lab pract. 2 > Flashcards

Anatomy labs for lab pract. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Description and location of Stratum corneum

A

Most superficial layer, its composed of many layers of keratinized, dead epithelial cells; appear scaly and flattened; resists water loss, abrasion, and absorption.

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2
Q

Description and location of Stratum lucidum

A

Between stratum corneum and stratum granulosum on soles and palms of thick skin. Cells appear clear; nuclei organelles, and plasma membranes no longer visible.

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3
Q

Description and location of Stratum granulosum

A

Beneath the stratum corneum (or stratum lucid of thick skin). Three to five layers of flattened granular cells; contain shrunken fibers of keratin and shriveled nuclei.

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4
Q

Description and location of Stratum spinosum

A

Beneath the stratum granulosum. Many layers of cells w/ centrally located, large, oval nuclei; develop fibers of keratin; cells becoming flattened in superficial portion.

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5
Q

Description and location of Stratum basale

A

Deepest layer. A single row of cuboidal or columnar cells; layer also includes the melanocytes; frequent cell division; some cells become parts of more superficial layers.

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6
Q

Apocrine sweat gland

A

Most abundant in the axillary and genital regions. The sweat ducts open into the hair follicles and become active at puberty. Their secretions increase during stress and pain and have little influence on thermoregulation.

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7
Q

Arrector pili muscle

A

They are attached to the hair follicle and can pull the hair to a more upright position, causing goosebumps when experiencing cold temperatures or fear.

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8
Q

Sebaceous Gland

A

Secretes an oily sebum into the hair follicles, which keeps the hair and epidermal surface pliable and somewhat waterproof.

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9
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer layer of skin which consists of stratified squamous epithelium.

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10
Q

Dermis

A

Inner layer of skin, consists of a superficial papillary region of areolar connective tissue and a thicker and deeper reticular region of dense irregular connective tissue.

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11
Q

Hypodermis

A

Beneath the Dermis, subcutaneous layer; superficial fascia composed of adipose and areolar connective tissues. The hypodermic is not considered a true layer of the skin.

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12
Q

Hair Papilla

A

Located at the base of the hair, it contains a network of capillaries that supply the nutrients for cell divisions for hair growth within the hair bulb.

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13
Q

Sweat Glands (sudoriferous glands)

A

Distributed over most regions of the body and consist of two types of glands.

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14
Q

Eccrine Sweat Glands

A

Widespread glands that are most numerous on the palms, soles of feet and the forehead. Their ducts open to the surface at a sweat pore. The secretions increase during hot days, physical exercise, and stress; they serve as an excretory function and can help prevent our body temperature from overheating.

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15
Q

Apocrine Sweat Glands

A

Most abundant in the axillary (arm pit) and genital regions. The sweat ducts open into the hair follicles and become active at puberty. The secretions increase during stress and pain and have little influence on thermoregulation.

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16
Q

Skeletal Muscle

A

Long, threadlike cells; striated; many nuclei near plasma membrane.
Voluntary movements of skeletal parts; facial expressions or contracting the muscles in your thigh.
Muscles usually attached to bones

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17
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

Shorter spindle-shaped cells; single central nucleus.
Involuntary movements of internal organs
Walls of hollow internal organs

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18
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Branched cells; striated; single nucleus (usually)
Heart contractions to pump blood; involuntary
Heart walls

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19
Q

Nervous Tissue

A

Neurons w/ long cellular processes; neuroglia smaller and variable
Sensory reception and conduction of action potentials; neuroglia supportive
Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

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20
Q

Skeletal Muscle Characteristics

A 
Unbranched and relatively parallel cells
Striations are present and obvious
Nucleus is multinucleate
Intercalated discs (junction where cells fit together) is absent
Voluntary control
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21
Q

Smooth Muscle Characteristics

A 
Spindle-shaped cells
Striations are absent
Nucleus is uninucleated
Intercalated discs are absent
Involuntary control
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22
Q

Cardiac Muscle Characteristics

A 
Branched and connected cells in complex networks
Striations are present but faint
Nucleus is usually uninucleated
Intercalated discs are present
Involuntary control
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23
Q

Name the three types of muscle tissues

A

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

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24
Q

Which muscle tissue is under conscious control?

A

Skeletal

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25
Q

Which of the following organs lacks smooth muscle?

A

heart

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26
Q

Which muscle tissue lacks striations?

A

Smooth

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27
Q

What conducts action potentials?

A

Neurons

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28
Q

Muscles of facial expression are?

A

Skeletal muscles

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29
Q

Which muscle tissue is multinucleated?

A

Skeletal muscles

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30
Q

Intercalated discs represent the junction where heart muscle cells fit together? True or false?

A

True

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31
Q

Both cardiac and skeletal muscle cells are voluntary? True or False

A

False, skeletal muscles are voluntary and cardiac are involuntary.

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32
Q

What are neurons?

A

Also called nerve cells, contain a cell body w/ the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm, and cellular processes that extend from the cell body. They are considered excitable cells b/c they can generate signals called action potentials along the neuron to another neuron or a muscle or gland.

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33
Q

What are neuroglia

A

(glial cells) are more abundant than neurons; they cannot conduct nerve impulses, but they have important supportive and protective functions for neurons.

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34
Q

Extracellular matrix

A

Varies in quantity depending on the specific tissue type and is like a filler material between the cells. The cells produce and secrete two components of the extracellular matrix known as the ground substance and fibers.

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35
Q

Ground Substance

A

Located in the ECM, it varies from a liquid to semisolid to solid, and has functions in support and as a medium for substances to move between cells and blood vessels.

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36
Q

Fibers

A

Located in the ECM, consist of fibrous proteins including collagen, reticular, and elastic fibers.

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37
Q

Collagen

A

Fibers that are thick threads, the most abundant fiber and are white in unstained tissues.

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38
Q

Reticular

A

Fibers are fine threads of highly branched collagen w/ glycoprotein.

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39
Q

Elastic Fibers

A

form complex networks of a highly branched protein called elastin, which is springlike and appears yellowish in unstained tissues.

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40
Q

What do fibers do?

A

Provide the binding properties w/in the tissue and between organs. You could compare connective tissue to making gelatin; the gelatin of various densities represents the ground substance, added fruit represents cells, and added strands represent the fibers.

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41
Q

Areolar Connective

A

Description: Cells in abundant fluid gel matrix; loose arrangement of collagen and elastic fibers
Function: Loosely binds organs, holds tissue fluids

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42
Q

Adipose

A

Description: Cells in sparse fluid-gel matrix; closely packed cells
Functions: Protects; insulates; stores fat

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43
Q

Reticular Connective

A

Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; reticular fibers
Function: Supportive framework of organs

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44
Q

Dense regular connective

A

Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; parallel, wavy collagen fibers
Function: Tightly binds body parts

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45
Q

Dense Irregular Connective

A

Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; random collagen fibers
Function: Sustains tissue tension; durable

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46
Q

Elastic Connective

A

Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; collagen fibers densely packed; branched elastic fibers
Function: Provides elastic quality

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47
Q

Hyaline Cartilage

A

Description: Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; fine network of collagen fibers; appears glassy
Function: Supports; protects; provides framework

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48
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

Description: Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; abundant collagen fibers
Function: Supports;protects; absorbs shock

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49
Q

Elastic Cartilage

A

Description:Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; weblike elastic fibers
Function: Supports; protects; provides flexible framework

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50
Q

Bone

A

Description: Cells in solid matrix; many collagen fibers
Function: Supports; protects; provides framework

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51
Q

Blood

A

Description: Cells in platelets in fluid matrix called plasma
Function: Transports nutrients, wastes, and gases; defends against disease; clotting

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52
Q

Location of Areolar Connective (loose connective)?

A

Around body organs; binds skin to deeper organs

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53
Q

Location of Adipose (loose connective)?

A

Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer); around the kidneys and heart; yellow bone marrow; breasts

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54
Q

Location of Reticular Connective (loose connective)?

A

Spleen; thymus; lymph nodes; red bone marrow

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55
Q

Location of Dense Regular Connective (dense)?

A

Tendons; ligaments

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56
Q

Location of Dense Irregular Connective (dense)?

A

Dermis; heart valves; periosteum on bone

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57
Q

Location of Elastic Connective (dense)?

A

Larger artery walls; vocal cords; some ligaments between vertebrae

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58
Q

Location of Hyaline Cartilage?

A

Nasal septum; larynx; costal cartilage; ends of lone bones; fetal skeleton

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59
Q

Location of Fibrocartilage?

A

Between vertebrae; between pubic bones; pads (meniscus) in knee

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60
Q

Location of Elastic Cartilage?

A

Outer ear; epiglottis

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61
Q

Location of compact bone?

A

Bone shafts; beneath periosteum

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62
Q

Location of blood (liquid connective)?

A

lumens of blood vessels; heart chambers

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63
Q

Location of lymph (liquid connective)?

A

Lumens of lymphatic vessels

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64
Q

Simple Squamous Epithelium

A

Description: single thin layer; flattened cells
Function: diffusion; osmosis; secretion
Location: Air sacs (alveoli) of lungs walls of capillaries; linings of blood vessels and ventral body cavity

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65
Q

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

A

Description: Single layer; cube-shaped cells
Functions: Secretion; absorption
Location: Surface of ovaries; linings of kidney tubules; linings of ducts of certain glands

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66
Q

Simple Columnar Epithelium

A

Description: Single layer; elongated narrow cells; some ciliated
Functions: Protection; secretion; absorption
Location: Linings of uterus, stomach, gallbladder, and intestines.

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67
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Description: Single layer; elongated cells; some cells do not reach free surface; often ciliated
Functions: Protection; secretions; movement of mucus and substances
Locations: linings of respiratory passages

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68
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium

A

Description: Many layers; top cells flattened; keratinized surface cells of epidermis
Functions: Protection; resists abrasion
Locations: Epidermis of skin; linings of oral cavity, esophagus, vagina, and anal canal

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69
Q

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

Description: 2-3 layers; cube-shaped cells
Functions: Protection; secretion
Location: Linings of larger ducts of mammary glands, sweat glands, salivary glands, and pancreas

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70
Q

Stratified columnar epithelium

A

Description: Superficial layer of elongated cells; basal layers of cube-shaped cells
Functions: Protection; secretion
Location: Part of the male urethra; parts of the pharynx

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71
Q

Transitional epithelium

A

Description: Many layers; cube-shaped and elongated cells; thinner layers when stretched
Functions: Distensibility; protection
Location: Linings of urinary bladder and ureters and part of urethra

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72
Q

What is Histology?

A

The study of tissues

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73
Q

What are the four major types of tissues?

A
  1. ) Epithelial-covers the body’s external and internal surfaces and most glands.
  2. ) Connective-binds and supports parts
  3. ) Muscle-make movement possible
  4. ) Nervous-conduct impulses from one part of the body to another and help control and coordinate body activities.
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74
Q

What is bone composed of?

A
  1. ) bone tissue
  2. ) cartilage
  3. ) blood
  4. ) nervous tissue
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75
Q

What is the total human skeletal number?

A

207

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76
Q

During embryonic and fetal development much of the supportive tissue is cartilage? T or F?

A

True

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77
Q

Location of articular cartilage?

A

1.) Movable joints

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78
Q

Location of costal cartilage?

A

1.) Connects the ribs to the sternum

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79
Q

Location of hyaline cartilage?

A
  1. ) Composes the articular cartilage

2. ) Composes the costal cartilage

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80
Q

Location of fibrocartilage?

A

1.) Between vertebrae

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81
Q

Osteon

A
  1. ) cylinder-shaped units of compact bone structure

2. ) contain central canal (includes blood vessels & nerves in living bone

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82
Q

Location of osteocytes (cells)?

A
  1. ) concentric circles w/in lacunae (small space)
  2. ) Pass through canaliculi (allows for transport of nutrients/waste between cells and central canal
  3. ) Extracellular waste occupies most of the area of an osteon
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83
Q

Where are osteocytes located at in spongy bone?

A

1.) w/in a lattice of bony plates called trabeculae

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84
Q

A function of canaliculi?

A

1.) allows for diffusion of substances b/tween cells and marrow that is positioned b/tween the trabeculae

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85
Q

Long (bone)

A
  1. ) femur
  2. ) humerus
  3. ) phalanges
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86
Q

Short (bone)

A
  1. ) carpals

2. ) tarsals

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87
Q

Flat (bone)

A
  1. ) ribs
  2. ) scapula
  3. ) most cranial bones
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88
Q

Irregular (bone)

A
  1. ) vertebra

2. ) some facial bones as sphenoid

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89
Q

Sesamoid (round bone)

A

1.) patella

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90
Q

Osteon

A

1.) cylinder-shaped unit

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91
Q

Central canal (Haversian canal; osteonic canal)

A

1.) contains blood vessels and nerves

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92
Q

Lamella

A

1.) concentric ring of matrix around central canal

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93
Q

Lacuna

A

1.) small chamber for an osteocyte

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94
Q

Bone extracellular matrix

A

1.) collagen and calcium phosphate

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95
Q

Canaliculus

A

1.) minute tube containing cellular process

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96
Q

Epiphysis

A
  1. ) proximal-nearest torso

2. ) distal-farthest from torso

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97
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

1.) growth zone of hyaline cartilage

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98
Q

Articular cartilage

A

1.) on ends of epiphyses

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99
Q

Diaphysis

A

1.) shaft between epiphyses

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100
Q

Periosteum

A
  1. ) membrane around bone of dense irregular connective tissue.
  2. ) Not around articular cartilage
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101
Q

Compact (dense) bone

A

1.) forms diaphysis and epiphyseal surfaces

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102
Q

Spongy (cancellous) bone

A

1.) w/in epiphyses trabeculae (structural lattice of plates in spongy bone

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103
Q

Medullary (marrow) cavity

A

1.) hollow chamber

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104
Q

Endosteum

A

1.) thin membrane lining medullary cavity of reticular connective tissue

105
Q

Yellow bone marrow

A

1.) occupies medullary cavity and stores adipose tissue

106
Q

Red bone marrow

A

1) occupies spongy bone in some epiphyses and flat bones and produces blood cells

107
Q

A bone that has a wide surface is classified as?

A

1.) Flat

108
Q

A bone of the wrist are examples of?

A

1.) Short bones

109
Q

The bone of the thigh is an example of a?

A

1.) Long bone

110
Q

Vertebrae are examples of?

A

1.) Irregular bone

111
Q

The patella is an example of a large?

A

1.) Semasoid (round) bone

112
Q

The bones of the skull that form a protective covering for the brain are examples of?

A

1.) Flat bones

113
Q

Distinguish between the epiphysis and the diaphysis of a long bone.

A
  1. ) epiphysis-ends

2. ) diaphysis-shaft

114
Q

Describe where cartilage is found on the surface of a long bone.

A

1.) Ends or edges

115
Q

Describe where the periosteum is found on the surface of a long bone.

A

1.) On the outside of the bone.

116
Q

Distinguish the locations and tissues between the periosteum and the endosteum.

A
  1. ) Periosteum-located in medullary cavity

2. ) Endosteum-outside of medullary cavity

117
Q

What structural differences did you note between compact bone and spongy bone?

A
  1. ) Spongy-spaces

2. ) Compact-solid

118
Q

How are these structural differences related to the locations and functions of these two types of bone?

A

?

119
Q

From your observations, how does the marrow in the medullary cavity compare w/ the marrow in the spaces of the spongy bone?

A

?

120
Q

The vertebral column does not include a?

A

1.) Rib

121
Q

The_______bone is part of the pectoral girdle.

A

1.) Scapula

122
Q

A_________is a very large projection on a bone.

A

1.)Trochanter

123
Q

A_________is a shallow basin depression.

A

1.) Fossa

124
Q

Bones that might form in the skull, but are not considered in the total number, are?

A

1.) Sesamoid bones

125
Q

The_________is a bone in the upper limb.

A

1.) Ulna

126
Q

A_________is a depression type of bone feature (bone marking)?

A

1.) Sulcus

127
Q

(Axial Skeleton) Skull

A
  1. ) Cranium
  2. ) Face
  3. ) Middle ear bone
  4. ) Hyoid bone-supports tongue
128
Q

(Axial Skeleton) Vertebral Column

A
  1. ) Vertebra
  2. ) Sacrum
  3. ) Coccyx
129
Q

(Axial Skeleton) Thoracic Cage

A
  1. ) Rib

2. ) Sternum

130
Q

(Appendicular Skeleton) Pectoral Girdle

A
  1. ) Scapula

2. ) Clavicle

131
Q

(Appendicular Skeleton) Upper Limbs

A
  1. ) Humerus
  2. ) Radius
  3. ) Ulna
  4. ) Carpal
  5. ) Metacarpal
  6. ) Phalanx
132
Q

(Appendicular Skeleton) Pelvic Girdle

A

1.) Hip bone (coxal bone, pelvic bone; innominate bone.

133
Q

(Appendicular Skeleton) Lower Limbs

A
  1. ) Femur
  2. ) Tibia
  3. ) Fibula
  4. ) Patella
  5. ) Tarsal
  6. ) Metatarsal
  7. ) Phalanx
134
Q

Projections: Sites for tendon and ligament attachment.

A
  1. ) Crest-ridgelike
  2. ) Epicondyle-superior to condyle
  3. ) Line (linea)-slightly raised ridge
  4. ) Process-prominent
  5. ) Protuberance-outgrowth
  6. ) Ramus-extensions
  7. ) Spine-thornlike
  8. ) Trochanter-large
  9. ) Tubercle-small knoblike
  10. ) Tuberosity-rough elevation
135
Q

Articulations: where bone connect at a joint or articulate w/ each other.

A
  1. ) Condyle-rounded process
  2. ) Facet-nearly flat
  3. ) Head-expanded end
136
Q

Depressions; recessed areas in bones.

A
  1. ) Alveolus-socket
  2. ) Fossa-shallow basin
  3. ) Fovea-tiny pit
  4. ) Notch-indentation on edge
  5. ) Sulcus-narrow groove
137
Q

Openings: open spaces in bones.

A
  1. ) Canal-tubular passage
  2. ) Fissure-slit
  3. ) Foramen-hole
  4. ) Meatus-tubelike opening
  5. ) Sinus-cavity
138
Q

Rounded process?

A

1.) Condyle

139
Q

Small, nearly flat articular surface?

A

1.) Facet

140
Q

Deep depression or shallow basin?

A

1.) Fossa

141
Q

Opening or hole?

A

1.) Foramen

142
Q

Projection extension?

A

1.) Ramus

143
Q

Ridgelike projection?

A

1.) Crest

144
Q

Slightly raised ridge?

A

1.) Line

145
Q

Tubelike opening?

A

1.) Meatus

146
Q

Tiny pit or depression?

A

1.) Fovea

147
Q

Small, knoblike projection?

A

1.) Tubercle

148
Q

Thornlike projection?

A

1.) Spine

149
Q

Rounded enlargement at end of bone?

A

1.) Head

150
Q

Air-filled cavity w/in bone?

A

`1.) Sinus

151
Q

Relatively large process?

A

1.) Trochanter

152
Q

The extra bones that sometimes develop between the flat bones of the skull are called?

A

1.) Sutral

153
Q

Small bones occurring in some tendons are called?

A

1.) Sesamoid

154
Q

The cranium and facial bones compose the?

A

1.) SKull

155
Q

The_____bone supports the tongue?

A

1.) Hyoid

156
Q

The______at the inferior end of the sacrum is composed of several fused vertebrae?

A

1.) Coccyx

157
Q

Most ribs are attached anteriorly to the?

A

1.) Sternum

158
Q

The thoracic cage is composed of_____pair of ribs?

A

1.) 12

159
Q

The scapulae and clavicles together form the_________?

A

1.) Pectoral girdle

160
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton; clavicle, femur, scapula, sternum?

A

1.) Sternum

161
Q

The wrist is composed of eight bones called?

A

1.) Carpals

162
Q

The hip bones (coxal bones) are attached posteriorly to the?

A

1.) Sacrum

163
Q

The _______bone covers the anterior surface of the knee?

A

1.) Patella

164
Q

The bones that articulate w/ the distal ends of the tibia and fibula are called_____?

A

1.) Tarsals

165
Q

All fingers and toes bones are called?

A

1.) Phalanges

166
Q

The most superior bone of the vertebral column is the?

A

1.) Atlas

167
Q

The vertebral column possesses?

A

1.) 4 curvatures

168
Q

Human have_______pairs of true ribs?

A

1.) 7

169
Q

The_________ribs do not have costal cartilage attachments to the sternum.

A

1.) Floating

170
Q

Humans possess_________cervical vertebrae.

A

1.) 7

171
Q

The superior end of the sacrum articulates w/ the?

A

1.) Coccyx

172
Q

The anterior (sternal) end of a rib articulates w/ a thoracic vertebra. T or F?

A

1.)False

173
Q

All cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae possess a vertebral foramen. T or F?

A

1.) False

174
Q

A feature of the second cervical vertebra is the dens. T or F?

A

1.) True

175
Q

The vertical column encloses and protects the?

A

1.) Spinal cord

176
Q

The vertebral column extends from the skull to the?

A

1.) Pelvis

177
Q

The seventh cervical vertebra is called ________and has an obvious spinous process surface feature that can be palpated.

A

1.) Vertebra prominens

178
Q

The_____________of the vertebrae support the weight of the head and trunk?

A

1.) Body

179
Q

The__________separate adjacent vertebrae, and they soften the forces created by walking.

A

1.) Intervertebral Discs

180
Q

The intervertebral foramina provide passageways for________?

A

1.) Spinal nerves

181
Q

Transverse foramina of_______________vertebrae serve as passageways for blood vessels leading to the brain.

A

1.) Cervical

182
Q

The first vertebra also is called the?

A

1.) Atlas

183
Q

When the head is moved from side to side, the first vertebra pivots around the___________of the second vertebra.

A

1.) Dens (odontoid process)

184
Q

The____________vertebra have the largest and strongest bodies.

A

1.) Lumbar

185
Q

The number of vertebrae that fuse in the adult to form the sacrum is?

A

1.) 5

186
Q

The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process form a bone called the?

A

1.) Sternum

187
Q

The last two pairs of ribs that have no cartilaginous attachments to the sternum are sometimes called_____ribs.

A

1.) Floating

188
Q

There are______pairs of true ribs.

A

1.) 7

189
Q

Costal cartilages are composed of ______tissue.

A

1.) Hyaline

190
Q

The manubrium articulates w/ the _______on its superior border.

A

1.) Clavicles

191
Q

List three general functions of the thoracic cage.

A
  1. ) Protects heart, lungs, some abdominal organs
  2. ) Supports bones of shoulder girdle and arm
  3. ) Helps you breathe
192
Q

The sternal angle indicates the location of the_________pair of ribs.

A

1.) True

193
Q

The clavicle and the scapula form the?

A

1.) Pectoral girdle

194
Q

Anatomically, arm represents?

A

1.) Shoulder to elbow

195
Q

Which of the following is not part of the scapula?

A

1.) Manubrium

196
Q

Which carpal is included in the proximal row?

A

1.) Lunate

197
Q

Which of the following is the most proximal part of the upper limb?

A

1,.) Head of humerus

198
Q

Which of the following is the most distal feature of the humerus?

A

1.) Capitulum

199
Q

The capitate is one of the eight carpals in a wrist. T or F?

A

1,.) True

200
Q

The clavicle articulates with the sternum and the humerus. T or F?

A

1.) False?

201
Q

The pectoral girdle is an incomplete ring b/c it is open in the back between the?

A

1.) Scapulae

202
Q

The medial end of a clavicle articulates w/ the_________of the sternum.

A
  1. Manubrium
203
Q

The lateral end of a clavicle articulates w/ the___________process of the scapula.

A

1.) Acromion

204
Q

The_________________________is a bone that serves as a brace between the sternum and the scapula.

A

1.) Clavicle

205
Q

The_______________________divides the scapula into unequal portions.

A

1.) Spine

206
Q

The lateral tip of the shoulder is the______________of the scapula.

A

1.) Acromian

207
Q

Near the lateral end of the scapula, the_________________process of the scapula curves anteriorly and inferiorly from the clavicle.

A

1.) Coracoid process

208
Q

The glenoid cavity of the scapula articulates w/ the_________of the humerus.

A

1.) Head

209
Q

The pelvic girdle consists of two_________?

A

1.) Coxae or coxal bone

210
Q

The head of the femur articulates w/ the________of the hip bone.

A

1.) Acetobulum

211
Q

The_______is the largest portion of the hip bone.

A

1.) ilium

212
Q

The distance between the________represents the shortest diameter of the pelvic outlet.

A

1.) Ischial spines

213
Q

The pubic bones come together anteriorly to form a cartilaginous joint called the_________?

A

1.) Symphysis pubis

214
Q

The_______is the superior martin of the ilium that causes the prominence of the hip.

A

1.) iliac crest

215
Q

When a person sits, the______of the ischium supports the weight of the body.

A

1.) Tuberosity

216
Q

The angle formed by the pubic bones below the pubic symphysis is called the________.

A

1.) Pubic arch

217
Q

The________is the largest foramen in the skeleton.

A

1.) Obturator foraman

218
Q

The ilium joins the sacrum at the_______ joint.

A

1.) Sacroiliac

219
Q

The two hip bones articulate anteriorly at the?

A

1.) Pubic symphysis

220
Q

Anatomically, leg refers to?

A

1.) Knee to ankle

221
Q

The_________is the largest portion of the hip bone?

A

1.) Ilium

222
Q

The_________is the lateral bone in the leg.

A

1.) Fibula

223
Q

Which of the following bones is not a tarsal bone?

A

1.) Metatarsal

224
Q

The ilium, ischium, and pubis are separate bones in a young child. T or F

A

1.) True

225
Q

Ischial spines, ischial tuberosities, and iliac crests are closer tougher in a pelvis of a female than in a pelvis of a male. T or F

A

False

226
Q

Each digit of a foot has three phalanges. T or F

A

False

227
Q

Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)

A

Ilium:
Iliac crest, anterior superior iliac spine, anterior inferior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine, greater sciatic notch-portion in ischium, iliac fossa

228
Q

Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)

A

Ischium:

ischial tuberosity-supports weight of body when seated, ischial spine, ischial ramus, lesser sciatic notch

229
Q

Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)

A

Pubis:
Pubic symphysis-cartilaginous joint between pubic bones, pubic tubercle, superior pubic rams, inferior pubic rams, pubic arch-between pubic bones of pelvis

Acetabulum-formed by portions of ilium, ischium, and pubis

Obturator foramen-formed by portions of ischium and pubis

230
Q

Femur

A

Proximal features:

head, fovea capitis, neck, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter

231
Q

Femur (shaft)

A

Gluteal tuberosity, linea aspera

232
Q

Femur (distal features)

A

Lateral epicondyle, medial epicondyle, lateral condyle, medial condyle

233
Q

Tibia

A

Medial condyle, lateral condyle, tibial tuberosity, anterior border (crest; margin), medial malleolus

234
Q

Fibula

A

Head, lateral malleolus

235
Q

Tarsal bones

A

Talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, lateral cuneiform, intermediate (middle) cuneiform, medial cuneiform

236
Q

Phalanges

A

Proximal phalanx, middle phalanx-absent in first digit (thumb), distal phalanx

237
Q

Fewer bones equal?

A

Fewer sutures, more protection

238
Q

What is an orbit?

A

Eye socket

239
Q

Pest of 6 (fix this card)

A

Pest=parietal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporals

of=occipital, frontal

240
Q

Sphenoid bone (sella turcica)

A

House’s the pituitary gland (sella turcica)

241
Q

Ethmoid bone

A

Perpendicular plate divides nasal septum into two parts in a sagital plane. Cribriform-olfactory nerves. Crista galli looks like a rooster’s comb.

242
Q

Ethmoid bone (nasal conchae)

A

Scroll-like structures that will create a turbulence of air flow. This slows down the air and gives you time to humidify the air before you send it to your lungs.

243
Q

Inferior conchae

A

Not part of ethmoid bone, it is its own separate bone.

244
Q

What are fontanels?

A

(means little fountain) spaces b/tween unfused cranial bones in infancy. Typically last 2 years and function in that they have a little bit of give when they are going through the birthing canal.

245
Q

Facial bones (look at lab)

A

Virgil can not make my pet zebra laugh

Vomer, conchae, nasal, maxilla, palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal

246
Q

Maxillae

A

For easy sinus memorization

Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, maxillary

247
Q

7 bones of the orbit.

A

Every student fancies learning zillions more parts

Ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, palatine

248
Q

Nasal cavity

A

Lateral, inferior nasal concha wall

249
Q

Auditory bones pneumonic

A

MIS something: M=malleus, I=incus, and S=stapes

250
Q

How is the hyoid bone unique?

A

Does not form a joint w/ any other bone.

251
Q

The vertebral column

A

C1-C7-cervical, T1-T12 Thoracic, L1-L5 Lumbar, 4 fused coccyx

252
Q

What do you see from the lateral vertebrae view?

A

The intervertebral foramen, spinal cord fits in vertebral foramen. Spinal nerves exits through this foramen

253
Q

Greatest range of motion in vertebrae?

A

the cervical region.

254
Q

Least range of motion in vertebrae?

A

the lumbar region

255
Q

Thoracic movement is

A

has less movement compared to cervical but more than lumbar

256
Q

What are intervertebral disc composed of?

A

Nucleus pulpous (contains most water) and annulus fibrosus

257
Q

Atlas and occipital condyles allows us to shake our head?

A

yes

258
Q

Pneumonic for skin layers

A

Come lets get sunburned:

Cornem, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Anatomy Lab. pract. 2 (1 decks)

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