Anatomy labs for lab pract. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Description and location of Stratum corneum

A

Most superficial layer, its composed of many layers of keratinized, dead epithelial cells; appear scaly and flattened; resists water loss, abrasion, and absorption.

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2
Q

Description and location of Stratum lucidum

A

Between stratum corneum and stratum granulosum on soles and palms of thick skin. Cells appear clear; nuclei organelles, and plasma membranes no longer visible.

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3
Q

Description and location of Stratum granulosum

A

Beneath the stratum corneum (or stratum lucid of thick skin). Three to five layers of flattened granular cells; contain shrunken fibers of keratin and shriveled nuclei.

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4
Q

Description and location of Stratum spinosum

A

Beneath the stratum granulosum. Many layers of cells w/ centrally located, large, oval nuclei; develop fibers of keratin; cells becoming flattened in superficial portion.

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5
Q

Description and location of Stratum basale

A

Deepest layer. A single row of cuboidal or columnar cells; layer also includes the melanocytes; frequent cell division; some cells become parts of more superficial layers.

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6
Q

Apocrine sweat gland

A

Most abundant in the axillary and genital regions. The sweat ducts open into the hair follicles and become active at puberty. Their secretions increase during stress and pain and have little influence on thermoregulation.

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7
Q

Arrector pili muscle

A

They are attached to the hair follicle and can pull the hair to a more upright position, causing goosebumps when experiencing cold temperatures or fear.

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8
Q

Sebaceous Gland

A

Secretes an oily sebum into the hair follicles, which keeps the hair and epidermal surface pliable and somewhat waterproof.

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9
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer layer of skin which consists of stratified squamous epithelium.

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10
Q

Dermis

A

Inner layer of skin, consists of a superficial papillary region of areolar connective tissue and a thicker and deeper reticular region of dense irregular connective tissue.

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11
Q

Hypodermis

A

Beneath the Dermis, subcutaneous layer; superficial fascia composed of adipose and areolar connective tissues. The hypodermic is not considered a true layer of the skin.

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12
Q

Hair Papilla

A

Located at the base of the hair, it contains a network of capillaries that supply the nutrients for cell divisions for hair growth within the hair bulb.

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13
Q

Sweat Glands (sudoriferous glands)

A

Distributed over most regions of the body and consist of two types of glands.

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14
Q

Eccrine Sweat Glands

A

Widespread glands that are most numerous on the palms, soles of feet and the forehead. Their ducts open to the surface at a sweat pore. The secretions increase during hot days, physical exercise, and stress; they serve as an excretory function and can help prevent our body temperature from overheating.

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15
Q

Apocrine Sweat Glands

A

Most abundant in the axillary (arm pit) and genital regions. The sweat ducts open into the hair follicles and become active at puberty. The secretions increase during stress and pain and have little influence on thermoregulation.

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16
Q

Skeletal Muscle

A

Long, threadlike cells; striated; many nuclei near plasma membrane.
Voluntary movements of skeletal parts; facial expressions or contracting the muscles in your thigh.
Muscles usually attached to bones

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17
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

Shorter spindle-shaped cells; single central nucleus.
Involuntary movements of internal organs
Walls of hollow internal organs

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18
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Branched cells; striated; single nucleus (usually)
Heart contractions to pump blood; involuntary
Heart walls

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19
Q

Nervous Tissue

A

Neurons w/ long cellular processes; neuroglia smaller and variable
Sensory reception and conduction of action potentials; neuroglia supportive
Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

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20
Q

Skeletal Muscle Characteristics

A
Unbranched and relatively parallel cells
Striations are present and obvious
Nucleus is multinucleate
Intercalated discs (junction where cells fit together) is absent
Voluntary control
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21
Q

Smooth Muscle Characteristics

A
Spindle-shaped cells
Striations are absent
Nucleus is uninucleated
Intercalated discs are absent
Involuntary control
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22
Q

Cardiac Muscle Characteristics

A
Branched and connected cells in complex networks
Striations are present but faint
Nucleus is usually uninucleated
Intercalated discs are present
Involuntary control
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23
Q

Name the three types of muscle tissues

A

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

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24
Q

Which muscle tissue is under conscious control?

A

Skeletal

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25
Which of the following organs lacks smooth muscle?
heart
26
Which muscle tissue lacks striations?
Smooth
27
What conducts action potentials?
Neurons
28
Muscles of facial expression are?
Skeletal muscles
29
Which muscle tissue is multinucleated?
Skeletal muscles
30
Intercalated discs represent the junction where heart muscle cells fit together? True or false?
True
31
Both cardiac and skeletal muscle cells are voluntary? True or False
False, skeletal muscles are voluntary and cardiac are involuntary.
32
What are neurons?
Also called nerve cells, contain a cell body w/ the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm, and cellular processes that extend from the cell body. They are considered excitable cells b/c they can generate signals called action potentials along the neuron to another neuron or a muscle or gland.
33
What are neuroglia
(glial cells) are more abundant than neurons; they cannot conduct nerve impulses, but they have important supportive and protective functions for neurons.
34
Extracellular matrix
Varies in quantity depending on the specific tissue type and is like a filler material between the cells. The cells produce and secrete two components of the extracellular matrix known as the ground substance and fibers.
35
Ground Substance
Located in the ECM, it varies from a liquid to semisolid to solid, and has functions in support and as a medium for substances to move between cells and blood vessels.
36
Fibers
Located in the ECM, consist of fibrous proteins including collagen, reticular, and elastic fibers.
37
Collagen
Fibers that are thick threads, the most abundant fiber and are white in unstained tissues.
38
Reticular
Fibers are fine threads of highly branched collagen w/ glycoprotein.
39
Elastic Fibers
form complex networks of a highly branched protein called elastin, which is springlike and appears yellowish in unstained tissues.
40
What do fibers do?
Provide the binding properties w/in the tissue and between organs. You could compare connective tissue to making gelatin; the gelatin of various densities represents the ground substance, added fruit represents cells, and added strands represent the fibers.
41
Areolar Connective
Description: Cells in abundant fluid gel matrix; loose arrangement of collagen and elastic fibers Function: Loosely binds organs, holds tissue fluids
42
Adipose
Description: Cells in sparse fluid-gel matrix; closely packed cells Functions: Protects; insulates; stores fat
43
Reticular Connective
Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; reticular fibers Function: Supportive framework of organs
44
Dense regular connective
Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; parallel, wavy collagen fibers Function: Tightly binds body parts
45
Dense Irregular Connective
Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; random collagen fibers Function: Sustains tissue tension; durable
46
Elastic Connective
Description: Cells in fluid-gel matrix; collagen fibers densely packed; branched elastic fibers Function: Provides elastic quality
47
Hyaline Cartilage
Description: Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; fine network of collagen fibers; appears glassy Function: Supports; protects; provides framework
48
Fibrocartilage
Description: Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; abundant collagen fibers Function: Supports;protects; absorbs shock
49
Elastic Cartilage
Description:Cells in firm solid-gel matrix; weblike elastic fibers Function: Supports; protects; provides flexible framework
50
Bone
Description: Cells in solid matrix; many collagen fibers Function: Supports; protects; provides framework
51
Blood
Description: Cells in platelets in fluid matrix called plasma Function: Transports nutrients, wastes, and gases; defends against disease; clotting
52
Location of Areolar Connective (loose connective)?
Around body organs; binds skin to deeper organs
53
Location of Adipose (loose connective)?
Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer); around the kidneys and heart; yellow bone marrow; breasts
54
Location of Reticular Connective (loose connective)?
Spleen; thymus; lymph nodes; red bone marrow
55
Location of Dense Regular Connective (dense)?
Tendons; ligaments
56
Location of Dense Irregular Connective (dense)?
Dermis; heart valves; periosteum on bone
57
Location of Elastic Connective (dense)?
Larger artery walls; vocal cords; some ligaments between vertebrae
58
Location of Hyaline Cartilage?
Nasal septum; larynx; costal cartilage; ends of lone bones; fetal skeleton
59
Location of Fibrocartilage?
Between vertebrae; between pubic bones; pads (meniscus) in knee
60
Location of Elastic Cartilage?
Outer ear; epiglottis
61
Location of compact bone?
Bone shafts; beneath periosteum
62
Location of blood (liquid connective)?
lumens of blood vessels; heart chambers
63
Location of lymph (liquid connective)?
Lumens of lymphatic vessels
64
Simple Squamous Epithelium
Description: single thin layer; flattened cells Function: diffusion; osmosis; secretion Location: Air sacs (alveoli) of lungs walls of capillaries; linings of blood vessels and ventral body cavity
65
Simple Cuboidal Epithelium
Description: Single layer; cube-shaped cells Functions: Secretion; absorption Location: Surface of ovaries; linings of kidney tubules; linings of ducts of certain glands
66
Simple Columnar Epithelium
Description: Single layer; elongated narrow cells; some ciliated Functions: Protection; secretion; absorption Location: Linings of uterus, stomach, gallbladder, and intestines.
67
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Description: Single layer; elongated cells; some cells do not reach free surface; often ciliated Functions: Protection; secretions; movement of mucus and substances Locations: linings of respiratory passages
68
Stratified squamous epithelium
Description: Many layers; top cells flattened; keratinized surface cells of epidermis Functions: Protection; resists abrasion Locations: Epidermis of skin; linings of oral cavity, esophagus, vagina, and anal canal
69
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Description: 2-3 layers; cube-shaped cells Functions: Protection; secretion Location: Linings of larger ducts of mammary glands, sweat glands, salivary glands, and pancreas
70
Stratified columnar epithelium
Description: Superficial layer of elongated cells; basal layers of cube-shaped cells Functions: Protection; secretion Location: Part of the male urethra; parts of the pharynx
71
Transitional epithelium
Description: Many layers; cube-shaped and elongated cells; thinner layers when stretched Functions: Distensibility; protection Location: Linings of urinary bladder and ureters and part of urethra
72
What is Histology?
The study of tissues
73
What are the four major types of tissues?
1. ) Epithelial-covers the body's external and internal surfaces and most glands. 2. ) Connective-binds and supports parts 3. ) Muscle-make movement possible 4. ) Nervous-conduct impulses from one part of the body to another and help control and coordinate body activities.
74
What is bone composed of?
1. ) bone tissue 2. ) cartilage 3. ) blood 4. ) nervous tissue
75
What is the total human skeletal number?
207
76
During embryonic and fetal development much of the supportive tissue is cartilage? T or F?
True
77
Location of articular cartilage?
1.) Movable joints
78
Location of costal cartilage?
1.) Connects the ribs to the sternum
79
Location of hyaline cartilage?
1. ) Composes the articular cartilage | 2. ) Composes the costal cartilage
80
Location of fibrocartilage?
1.) Between vertebrae
81
Osteon
1. ) cylinder-shaped units of compact bone structure | 2. ) contain central canal (includes blood vessels & nerves in living bone
82
Location of osteocytes (cells)?
1. ) concentric circles w/in lacunae (small space) 2. ) Pass through canaliculi (allows for transport of nutrients/waste between cells and central canal 3. ) Extracellular waste occupies most of the area of an osteon
83
Where are osteocytes located at in spongy bone?
1.) w/in a lattice of bony plates called trabeculae
84
A function of canaliculi?
1.) allows for diffusion of substances b/tween cells and marrow that is positioned b/tween the trabeculae
85
Long (bone)
1. ) femur 2. ) humerus 3. ) phalanges
86
Short (bone)
1. ) carpals | 2. ) tarsals
87
Flat (bone)
1. ) ribs 2. ) scapula 3. ) most cranial bones
88
Irregular (bone)
1. ) vertebra | 2. ) some facial bones as sphenoid
89
Sesamoid (round bone)
1.) patella
90
Osteon
1.) cylinder-shaped unit
91
Central canal (Haversian canal; osteonic canal)
1.) contains blood vessels and nerves
92
Lamella
1.) concentric ring of matrix around central canal
93
Lacuna
1.) small chamber for an osteocyte
94
Bone extracellular matrix
1.) collagen and calcium phosphate
95
Canaliculus
1.) minute tube containing cellular process
96
Epiphysis
1. ) proximal-nearest torso | 2. ) distal-farthest from torso
97
Epiphyseal plate
1.) growth zone of hyaline cartilage
98
Articular cartilage
1.) on ends of epiphyses
99
Diaphysis
1.) shaft between epiphyses
100
Periosteum
1. ) membrane around bone of dense irregular connective tissue. 2. ) Not around articular cartilage
101
Compact (dense) bone
1.) forms diaphysis and epiphyseal surfaces
102
Spongy (cancellous) bone
1.) w/in epiphyses trabeculae (structural lattice of plates in spongy bone
103
Medullary (marrow) cavity
1.) hollow chamber
104
Endosteum
1.) thin membrane lining medullary cavity of reticular connective tissue
105
Yellow bone marrow
1.) occupies medullary cavity and stores adipose tissue
106
Red bone marrow
1) occupies spongy bone in some epiphyses and flat bones and produces blood cells
107
A bone that has a wide surface is classified as?
1.) Flat
108
A bone of the wrist are examples of?
1.) Short bones
109
The bone of the thigh is an example of a?
1.) Long bone
110
Vertebrae are examples of?
1.) Irregular bone
111
The patella is an example of a large?
1.) Semasoid (round) bone
112
The bones of the skull that form a protective covering for the brain are examples of?
1.) Flat bones
113
Distinguish between the epiphysis and the diaphysis of a long bone.
1. ) epiphysis-ends | 2. ) diaphysis-shaft
114
Describe where cartilage is found on the surface of a long bone.
1.) Ends or edges
115
Describe where the periosteum is found on the surface of a long bone.
1.) On the outside of the bone.
116
Distinguish the locations and tissues between the periosteum and the endosteum.
1. ) Periosteum-located in medullary cavity | 2. ) Endosteum-outside of medullary cavity
117
What structural differences did you note between compact bone and spongy bone?
1. ) Spongy-spaces | 2. ) Compact-solid
118
How are these structural differences related to the locations and functions of these two types of bone?
?
119
From your observations, how does the marrow in the medullary cavity compare w/ the marrow in the spaces of the spongy bone?
?
120
The vertebral column does not include a?
1.) Rib
121
The_______bone is part of the pectoral girdle.
1.) Scapula
122
A_________is a very large projection on a bone.
1.)Trochanter
123
A_________is a shallow basin depression.
1.) Fossa
124
Bones that might form in the skull, but are not considered in the total number, are?
1.) Sesamoid bones
125
The_________is a bone in the upper limb.
1.) Ulna
126
A_________is a depression type of bone feature (bone marking)?
1.) Sulcus
127
(Axial Skeleton) Skull
1. ) Cranium 2. ) Face 3. ) Middle ear bone 4. ) Hyoid bone-supports tongue
128
(Axial Skeleton) Vertebral Column
1. ) Vertebra 2. ) Sacrum 3. ) Coccyx
129
(Axial Skeleton) Thoracic Cage
1. ) Rib | 2. ) Sternum
130
(Appendicular Skeleton) Pectoral Girdle
1. ) Scapula | 2. ) Clavicle
131
(Appendicular Skeleton) Upper Limbs
1. ) Humerus 2. ) Radius 3. ) Ulna 4. ) Carpal 5. ) Metacarpal 6. ) Phalanx
132
(Appendicular Skeleton) Pelvic Girdle
1.) Hip bone (coxal bone, pelvic bone; innominate bone.
133
(Appendicular Skeleton) Lower Limbs
1. ) Femur 2. ) Tibia 3. ) Fibula 4. ) Patella 5. ) Tarsal 6. ) Metatarsal 7. ) Phalanx
134
Projections: Sites for tendon and ligament attachment.
1. ) Crest-ridgelike 2. ) Epicondyle-superior to condyle 3. ) Line (linea)-slightly raised ridge 4. ) Process-prominent 5. ) Protuberance-outgrowth 6. ) Ramus-extensions 7. ) Spine-thornlike 8. ) Trochanter-large 9. ) Tubercle-small knoblike 10. ) Tuberosity-rough elevation
135
Articulations: where bone connect at a joint or articulate w/ each other.
1. ) Condyle-rounded process 2. ) Facet-nearly flat 3. ) Head-expanded end
136
Depressions; recessed areas in bones.
1. ) Alveolus-socket 2. ) Fossa-shallow basin 3. ) Fovea-tiny pit 4. ) Notch-indentation on edge 5. ) Sulcus-narrow groove
137
Openings: open spaces in bones.
1. ) Canal-tubular passage 2. ) Fissure-slit 3. ) Foramen-hole 4. ) Meatus-tubelike opening 5. ) Sinus-cavity
138
Rounded process?
1.) Condyle
139
Small, nearly flat articular surface?
1.) Facet
140
Deep depression or shallow basin?
1.) Fossa
141
Opening or hole?
1.) Foramen
142
Projection extension?
1.) Ramus
143
Ridgelike projection?
1.) Crest
144
Slightly raised ridge?
1.) Line
145
Tubelike opening?
1.) Meatus
146
Tiny pit or depression?
1.) Fovea
147
Small, knoblike projection?
1.) Tubercle
148
Thornlike projection?
1.) Spine
149
Rounded enlargement at end of bone?
1.) Head
150
Air-filled cavity w/in bone?
`1.) Sinus
151
Relatively large process?
1.) Trochanter
152
The extra bones that sometimes develop between the flat bones of the skull are called?
1.) Sutral
153
Small bones occurring in some tendons are called?
1.) Sesamoid
154
The cranium and facial bones compose the?
1.) SKull
155
The_____bone supports the tongue?
1.) Hyoid
156
The______at the inferior end of the sacrum is composed of several fused vertebrae?
1.) Coccyx
157
Most ribs are attached anteriorly to the?
1.) Sternum
158
The thoracic cage is composed of_____pair of ribs?
1.) 12
159
The scapulae and clavicles together form the_________?
1.) Pectoral girdle
160
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton; clavicle, femur, scapula, sternum?
1.) Sternum
161
The wrist is composed of eight bones called?
1.) Carpals
162
The hip bones (coxal bones) are attached posteriorly to the?
1.) Sacrum
163
The _______bone covers the anterior surface of the knee?
1.) Patella
164
The bones that articulate w/ the distal ends of the tibia and fibula are called_____?
1.) Tarsals
165
All fingers and toes bones are called?
1.) Phalanges
166
The most superior bone of the vertebral column is the?
1.) Atlas
167
The vertebral column possesses?
1.) 4 curvatures
168
Human have_______pairs of true ribs?
1.) 7
169
The_________ribs do not have costal cartilage attachments to the sternum.
1.) Floating
170
Humans possess_________cervical vertebrae.
1.) 7
171
The superior end of the sacrum articulates w/ the?
1.) Coccyx
172
The anterior (sternal) end of a rib articulates w/ a thoracic vertebra. T or F?
1.)False
173
All cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae possess a vertebral foramen. T or F?
1.) False
174
A feature of the second cervical vertebra is the dens. T or F?
1.) True
175
The vertical column encloses and protects the?
1.) Spinal cord
176
The vertebral column extends from the skull to the?
1.) Pelvis
177
The seventh cervical vertebra is called ________and has an obvious spinous process surface feature that can be palpated.
1.) Vertebra prominens
178
The_____________of the vertebrae support the weight of the head and trunk?
1.) Body
179
The__________separate adjacent vertebrae, and they soften the forces created by walking.
1.) Intervertebral Discs
180
The intervertebral foramina provide passageways for________?
1.) Spinal nerves
181
Transverse foramina of_______________vertebrae serve as passageways for blood vessels leading to the brain.
1.) Cervical
182
The first vertebra also is called the?
1.) Atlas
183
When the head is moved from side to side, the first vertebra pivots around the___________of the second vertebra.
1.) Dens (odontoid process)
184
The____________vertebra have the largest and strongest bodies.
1.) Lumbar
185
The number of vertebrae that fuse in the adult to form the sacrum is?
1.) 5
186
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process form a bone called the?
1.) Sternum
187
The last two pairs of ribs that have no cartilaginous attachments to the sternum are sometimes called_____ribs.
1.) Floating
188
There are______pairs of true ribs.
1.) 7
189
Costal cartilages are composed of ______tissue.
1.) Hyaline
190
The manubrium articulates w/ the _______on its superior border.
1.) Clavicles
191
List three general functions of the thoracic cage.
1. ) Protects heart, lungs, some abdominal organs 2. ) Supports bones of shoulder girdle and arm 3. ) Helps you breathe
192
The sternal angle indicates the location of the_________pair of ribs.
1.) True
193
The clavicle and the scapula form the?
1.) Pectoral girdle
194
Anatomically, arm represents?
1.) Shoulder to elbow
195
Which of the following is not part of the scapula?
1.) Manubrium
196
Which carpal is included in the proximal row?
1.) Lunate
197
Which of the following is the most proximal part of the upper limb?
1,.) Head of humerus
198
Which of the following is the most distal feature of the humerus?
1.) Capitulum
199
The capitate is one of the eight carpals in a wrist. T or F?
1,.) True
200
The clavicle articulates with the sternum and the humerus. T or F?
1.) False?
201
The pectoral girdle is an incomplete ring b/c it is open in the back between the?
1.) Scapulae
202
The medial end of a clavicle articulates w/ the_________of the sternum.
1. Manubrium
203
The lateral end of a clavicle articulates w/ the___________process of the scapula.
1.) Acromion
204
The_________________________is a bone that serves as a brace between the sternum and the scapula.
1.) Clavicle
205
The_______________________divides the scapula into unequal portions.
1.) Spine
206
The lateral tip of the shoulder is the______________of the scapula.
1.) Acromian
207
Near the lateral end of the scapula, the_________________process of the scapula curves anteriorly and inferiorly from the clavicle.
1.) Coracoid process
208
The glenoid cavity of the scapula articulates w/ the_________of the humerus.
1.) Head
209
The pelvic girdle consists of two_________?
1.) Coxae or coxal bone
210
The head of the femur articulates w/ the________of the hip bone.
1.) Acetobulum
211
The_______is the largest portion of the hip bone.
1.) ilium
212
The distance between the________represents the shortest diameter of the pelvic outlet.
1.) Ischial spines
213
The pubic bones come together anteriorly to form a cartilaginous joint called the_________?
1.) Symphysis pubis
214
The_______is the superior martin of the ilium that causes the prominence of the hip.
1.) iliac crest
215
When a person sits, the______of the ischium supports the weight of the body.
1.) Tuberosity
216
The angle formed by the pubic bones below the pubic symphysis is called the________.
1.) Pubic arch
217
The________is the largest foramen in the skeleton.
1.) Obturator foraman
218
The ilium joins the sacrum at the_______ joint.
1.) Sacroiliac
219
The two hip bones articulate anteriorly at the?
1.) Pubic symphysis
220
Anatomically, leg refers to?
1.) Knee to ankle
221
The_________is the largest portion of the hip bone?
1.) Ilium
222
The_________is the lateral bone in the leg.
1.) Fibula
223
Which of the following bones is not a tarsal bone?
1.) Metatarsal
224
The ilium, ischium, and pubis are separate bones in a young child. T or F
1.) True
225
Ischial spines, ischial tuberosities, and iliac crests are closer tougher in a pelvis of a female than in a pelvis of a male. T or F
False
226
Each digit of a foot has three phalanges. T or F
False
227
Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)
Ilium: Iliac crest, anterior superior iliac spine, anterior inferior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine, greater sciatic notch-portion in ischium, iliac fossa
228
Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)
Ischium: | ischial tuberosity-supports weight of body when seated, ischial spine, ischial ramus, lesser sciatic notch
229
Hip Bone (coxal bone; pelvic bone; innominate bone)
Pubis: Pubic symphysis-cartilaginous joint between pubic bones, pubic tubercle, superior pubic rams, inferior pubic rams, pubic arch-between pubic bones of pelvis Acetabulum-formed by portions of ilium, ischium, and pubis Obturator foramen-formed by portions of ischium and pubis
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Femur
Proximal features: | head, fovea capitis, neck, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter
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Femur (shaft)
Gluteal tuberosity, linea aspera
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Femur (distal features)
Lateral epicondyle, medial epicondyle, lateral condyle, medial condyle
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Tibia
Medial condyle, lateral condyle, tibial tuberosity, anterior border (crest; margin), medial malleolus
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Fibula
Head, lateral malleolus
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Tarsal bones
Talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, lateral cuneiform, intermediate (middle) cuneiform, medial cuneiform
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Phalanges
Proximal phalanx, middle phalanx-absent in first digit (thumb), distal phalanx
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Fewer bones equal?
Fewer sutures, more protection
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What is an orbit?
Eye socket
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Pest of 6 (fix this card)
Pest=parietal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporals | of=occipital, frontal
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Sphenoid bone (sella turcica)
House's the pituitary gland (sella turcica)
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Ethmoid bone
Perpendicular plate divides nasal septum into two parts in a sagital plane. Cribriform-olfactory nerves. Crista galli looks like a rooster's comb.
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Ethmoid bone (nasal conchae)
Scroll-like structures that will create a turbulence of air flow. This slows down the air and gives you time to humidify the air before you send it to your lungs.
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Inferior conchae
Not part of ethmoid bone, it is its own separate bone.
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What are fontanels?
(means little fountain) spaces b/tween unfused cranial bones in infancy. Typically last 2 years and function in that they have a little bit of give when they are going through the birthing canal.
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Facial bones (look at lab)
Virgil can not make my pet zebra laugh | Vomer, conchae, nasal, maxilla, palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal
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Maxillae
For easy sinus memorization Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, maxillary
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7 bones of the orbit.
Every student fancies learning zillions more parts | Ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, palatine
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Nasal cavity
Lateral, inferior nasal concha wall
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Auditory bones pneumonic
MIS something: M=malleus, I=incus, and S=stapes
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How is the hyoid bone unique?
Does not form a joint w/ any other bone.
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The vertebral column
C1-C7-cervical, T1-T12 Thoracic, L1-L5 Lumbar, 4 fused coccyx
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What do you see from the lateral vertebrae view?
The intervertebral foramen, spinal cord fits in vertebral foramen. Spinal nerves exits through this foramen
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Greatest range of motion in vertebrae?
the cervical region.
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Least range of motion in vertebrae?
the lumbar region
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Thoracic movement is
has less movement compared to cervical but more than lumbar
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What are intervertebral disc composed of?
Nucleus pulpous (contains most water) and annulus fibrosus
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Atlas and occipital condyles allows us to shake our head?
yes
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Pneumonic for skin layers
Come lets get sunburned: | Cornem, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale