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Phase 1 Anatomy > Anatomy - IMMS > Flashcards

Anatomy - IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

Torso/Trunk

A

main central part of the body including:
- thorax
- abdomen
- pelvis

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2
Q

The torso does not include…

A
  • neck
  • head
  • upper/lower limbs
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3
Q

Thorax

A

-upper part of torso from bottom of neck to diaphragm
- houses lungs and heart, surrounded by ribs
- chest: refers to front of thorax

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4
Q

Abdomen

A
  • central part of torso between diaphragm and top of pelvic bones
  • contains most of the organs of digestion including: stomach, intestine + liver
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5
Q

Pelvis

A
  • lowest part of torso between abdomen and start of lower limbs
  • contains last part of digestive tract, bladder + reproductive organs
  • term used to describe both entirety of pelvic region including organs, blood vessels and bone
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6
Q

Back

A

entire posterior surface of the torso

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7
Q

Arm

A
  • upper part of the upper limb (from torso to elbow)
  • this is where the bicep muscle is present
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8
Q

Forearm

A

middle part of the upper limb (from elbow to the wrist)

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9
Q

Thigh

A

upper part of the lower limb (pelvis to knee)

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10
Q

Leg

A

middle part of lower limb (knee to ankle)

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11
Q

Superior

A

above

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12
Q

Inferior

A

below

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13
Q

Anterior/Ventral

A

front (or in front of)

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14
Q

Posterior/Dorsal

A

back (behind)

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15
Q

Medial

A

closer to the centre line

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16
Q

Lateral

A

further away from the centre line

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17
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the origin

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18
Q

Distal

A

further away from the origin

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19
Q

Ipsilateral

A

the same side of the body

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20
Q

Contralateral

A

opposite side of body

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21
Q

Deep

A

further away from the surface

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22
Q

Superficial

A

closer to surface

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23
Q

Supine

A

lying down, flat on back, facing up

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24
Q

Prone

A

lying down, on front, facing face down

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25
Q

Cranial

A

towards the head

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26
Q

Caudal

A

towards the ‘tail’

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27
Q

Rostral

A

towards the face

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28
Q

Coronal

A

‘face on’ - cuts a structure into anterior and posterior part

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29
Q

Sagittal

A

‘side on’ - cuts a structure into a left and a right

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30
Q

Parasagittal

A

cut in the sagittal plane but parallel to the midline

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31
Q

Axial (transverse)

A

‘end on’ - cuts a structure into a superior and inferior part

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32
Q

Axial (skeleton)

A

central, or core parts: skull, vertebral column, ribs + sternum

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33
Q

Apendicular (skeleton)

A

bones of limbs, including shoulder blades, collarbones and pelvic girdle

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34
Q

Scapulae

A

shoulder blades

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35
Q

Clavicles

A

collarbones

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36
Q

What is the skeleton made up of?

A

bone and cartilage

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37
Q

Joint

A

where two bones meet and ‘articulate’ with each other

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38
Q

Histological

A

cellular and structural composition of tissues

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39
Q

How many histological types of joints are there?

A

3

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40
Q

What are the three histological types of joints?

A
  • synovial joints
  • fibrous joints
  • cartilaginous joints
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41
Q

Synovial joints

A
  • most common
  • narrow synovial cavity separates articular surfaces of the bone
  • cavity contains lubricating synovial fluid (which is enclosed in a joint capsule)
  • allow a great deal of movement
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42
Q

Joint capsule

A

two layers:
- outer fibrous capsule
- inner synovial membrane

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43
Q

What are the articular surfaces covered with in synovial joints?

A

‘hyaline’ cartilage

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44
Q

Examples of synovial joints

A
  • shoulder
  • knee
  • wrist joints
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45
Q

Fibrous joints

A
  • connect two bones together via strong fibrous tissue
  • no cavity and no fluid
  • little movement at fibrous joints
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46
Q

Example of fibrous joints

A

joints between the individual bones of the skull ‘sutures’

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47
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A
  • like fibrous joints but articular surfaces are separated by cartilage instead of fibrous tissue
  • two subtypes
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48
Q

What are the two subtypes of cartilaginous joints?

A
  • primary cartilaginous
  • secondary cartilaginous
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49
Q

Primary cartilaginous

A

joints connected to each other by hyaline cartilage (allows some felxibility)

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50
Q

Example of primary cartilaginous

A

where ribs meet the sternum

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51
Q

Secondary cartilaginous

A
  • joints connceted by FIBROCARTILAGE
  • a layer of hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of the bone
  • flexible but strong and can support a lot of weight
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52
Q

Example of secondary cartilaginous

A

intervertebral discs

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53
Q

Where are intervertebral discs found?

A

between the vertebrae in the spine

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54
Q

Synovial joints permit?

A

movements in different planes and to different degrees

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55
Q

What does synovial joint movement depend on?

A
  • shape of articular surfaces
  • other factors such as surrounding ligaments and muscles
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56
Q

How many types of synovial joints are there?

A

six

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57
Q

What are the different types of synovial joints?

A
  • ball and socket
  • hinge
  • pivot
  • saddle
  • condyloid
  • plane
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58
Q

Ball and socket

A
  • end of one bone is shaped like a ball and the end of the other is shaped like a bowl (fits inside)
  • joints are mobile and allow significant range of movement in all directions (including rotation)
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59
Q

What determines the level of mobility of ball and socket joints?

A

the fit between the ball and socket
(better fit = more stable joint but less mobile, but less risk of dislocation)

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60
Q

Hinge

A
  • like a hinge on a door
  • allow significant range of movement but only in one plane
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61
Q

Example of hinge joints

A
  • elbow
  • knee
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62
Q

Pivot

A

allows rotational movement only

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63
Q

Example of pivot joint

A

top of spine where C1 at the base of the skull pivots around the peg on C2

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64
Q

Saddle

A
  • shaped like a rider sitting in a saddle
    permits movement in two planes
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65
Q

Example of saddle joint

A

joint at the end of the thumb (metacarpal of thumb articulates with one of the small carpal bones)

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66
Q

Condyloid

A
  • like ball and socket but surfaces are oval shaped
    good range of movement but only in two planes
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67
Q

Example of condyloid joint

A
  • wrist joint
  • metacarpophalangeal joint of the fingers (knuckles)
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68
Q

Plane (joint)

A
  • articular surfaces are almost flat and glide against each other
  • range of movement is usually limited and dictated by neighbouring bones and surrounding ligaments
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69
Q

Example of plane joint

A

joint between small bones of the wrist and acromioclavicular joint at top of the shoulder

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70
Q

What is a Ligament

A

a band of fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone

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71
Q

Purpose of ligaments

A

stabilise joints and limit their movement

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72
Q

Characteristics of ligaments

A

can be stretched to allow greater joint mobility

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73
Q

What is a sprain?

A

when a ligament is overstretched and injured (it is painful and may not return to their original shape)

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74
Q

What could happen to ligaments when joints dislocate?

A

they may be stretched so much they become permanently lax, leading to joint instability and recurrent dislocation

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75
Q

Flexion

A

Bending

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76
Q

What does bending mean?

A

decreasing the angle between two parts

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77
Q

Extension

A

straightening

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78
Q

What does straightening mean?

A

increasing the angle between two parts

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79
Q

Lateral flexion

A

bending sideways (unique to the vertebral column)

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80
Q

Abduction

A

movement away from the midline

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81
Q

Adduction

A

movement towards the midline

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82
Q

Internal rotation

A

rotating (around an axis) towards the midline

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83
Q

What is internal rotation also known as?

A

medial rotation

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84
Q

External rotation

A

rotating (around an axis) away from the midline

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85
Q

What is external rotation also known as?

A

lateral rotation

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86
Q

Pronation

A

internal rotation of the radius (unique to the forearm): so that palm faces posteriorly

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87
Q

Supination

A

external rotation of the radius (unique to the forearm): so that palm faces anteriorly

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88
Q

Opposition

A

flexion rotation of the thumb or little finger so that each one can reach the other

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89
Q

What is the movement opposition unique to?

A

the thumb and little finger

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90
Q

Circumduction

A
  • combination of flexion, extension, abduction and adduction
  • the appendage traces a circular or conical pattern
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91
Q

Dorisflexion

A

foot and toes move superiorly towards the shin (pointing the foot and toes up)

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92
Q

What is dorisflexion unique to?

A

ankle

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93
Q

Plantarflexion

A

foot and toes move inferiorly (pointing them down)

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94
Q

What is plantarflexion unique to?

A

ankle

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95
Q

Eversion

A

lateral flexion so that the sole of the foot faces laterally

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96
Q

What is eversion unique to?

A

ankle

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97
Q

Protraction

A

moving scapula or mandible anteriorly (moving upper limb out in front to open a door)

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98
Q

What is Protraction unique to?

A

scapula and mandible

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99
Q

Retraction

A

moving scapula or mandible posteriorly

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100
Q

What is retraction unique to?

A

scapula and mandible

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101
Q

Example of retraction

A
  • squaring shoulders
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102
Q

Elevation

A

moving scapula and mandible superiorly

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103
Q

What is elevation unique to?

A

scapula and mandible

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104
Q

Example of elevation

A
  • shrugging shoulders
  • closing the mouth
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105
Q

Depression

A

moving scapula or mandible inferiorly

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106
Q

What is depression unique to?

A

scapula and mandible

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107
Q

Example of depression

A
  • returning shoulders after elevation
  • opening mouth
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108
Q

What are the three different types of muscles?

A
  • skeletal
  • smooth
  • cardiac
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109
Q

Skeletal muscle

A
  • provides support for body
  • moves joints and some soft tissues
  • voluntary
  • striated
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110
Q

Example of soft tissues skeletal muscle helps to move

A
  • eyeball
  • tongue
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111
Q

Smooth muscle

A
  • in walls of blood vessels and internal organs (intestine)
  • involuntary
  • controlled by autonomic nervous system
  • not striated
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112
Q

Cardiac muscle

A
  • unique to heart
  • involutary
    contract in response to electrical impulses spontaneously generated by specialised cells within the heart
  • autonomic nervous system influences these specialised cells and can speed up/down heart rate
  • striated
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113
Q

How are skeletal muscles attached to bone or soft tissue?

A

by tendons

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114
Q

Tendons

A
  • many are rounded (like a cord) but some form thin, flat sheets = aponeuroses
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115
Q

Aponeuroses

A

thin flat sheets of tendons

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116
Q

What must happen in order for joints to move?

A

muscles or tendons must cross them

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117
Q

What happens when a muscle contracts?

A
  • one of its attachments moves whilst the other does not
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118
Q

What is the bone/part that moves in contraction called?

A

origin

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119
Q

What is the bone/part that doesn’t move in contraction called?

A

insertion

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120
Q

What does the arrangment of fibres of skeletal muscle allow?

A

exert force or achieve specific movements

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121
Q

How many orientations of skeletal muscle fibres are there?

A
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • circular
  • pennate
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122
Q

Parallel skeletal muscle fibres

A
  • fibres are aligned parallel to each other
  • can shorten significantly and quickly
  • relatively less powerful than pennate muscles
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123
Q

How many sub types of parallel skeletal muscle fibres are there?

A

2

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124
Q

What are the sub types of parallel skeletal muscle fibres?

A
  • fusiform muscle
  • strap muscle
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125
Q

Fusiform muscle

A

long tendon at each end and muscle belly bulges out in the middle

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126
Q

Example of fusiform muscle

A

biceps brachii

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127
Q

Strap muscle

A

belt-shaped and relatively uniform in width at the belly

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128
Q

Example of strap muscle

A
  • sartorius in the thigh
  • rectus abdominas in the abdominal wall
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129
Q

Convergent skeletal muscle fibre

A
  • fan shaped and broad attachement at one end
  • fibres converging onto a much smaller attachment at the other
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130
Q

Example of convergent skeletal muscle fibre

A

pectoralis major on anterior chest wall

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131
Q

Circular skeletal muscle fibre

A
  • fibres are arranged in concentric rings around a structure
  • called sphincters
  • when they contract, they lose the aperture they surround
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132
Q

Example of circular skeletal muscle fibre

A

muscles around eyes and lips

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133
Q

Pennate skeletal muscle fibre

A
  • fibres arranged at an angle to the direction in which the muscle acts
  • cannot shorten as much as parallel muscles but are powerful
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134
Q

How many sub types of pennate skeletal muscle fibre are there?

A
  • unipennate
  • bipennate
  • multipennate
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135
Q

Unipennate

A
  • fibres arranged diagonally in relation to the tendon and insert onto one side of the tendon only
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136
Q

Example of unipennate skeletal muscle fibre

A

extensor digitorum longus in the leg

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137
Q

Bipennate

A
  • fibres arranged in a v-shape and insert into both sides of the tendon (look like a feather)
138
Q

Example of bipennate skeletal muscle fibre

A

rectus femoris in the thigh

139
Q

Multipennate

A
  • look like multiple bipennate muscles side-by-side
  • all attach to one tendon
140
Q

Example of multipennate skeletal muscle fibre

A

deltoid in shoulder

141
Q

What is a motor unit composed of?

A
  • a single motor neurone
  • its axon
  • muscle fibres it supplies
142
Q

What are the three parts that make up the upper limbs?

A
  • arm
  • forearm
  • hand
143
Q

What are the three parts that make up the lower limbs?

A
  • thigh
  • leg
  • foot
144
Q

Similarities between the gross anatomy of the upper and lower limbs

A
  • ball and socket joint
  • one large bone in proximal part (humerus and femur)
  • hinge joint separating proximal and middle parts
  • two bones in the middle part
  • collection of small bones at the start of the distal part (carpal and tarsal bones)
  • five digits
  • one digit significantly larger
  • most of muscle mass is concentrated proximally
145
Q

What are the two bones found in the middle of the upper limbs?

A

radius and ulna

146
Q

What are the two bones found in the middle of the lower limbs?

A

tibia and fibula

147
Q

Why is the upper limb more mobile?

A
  • evolved primarily for dexterity
148
Q

How has the upper limbs evolved differently?

A
  • shoulder joint has a shallow socket and lax ligaments allowing a significant range of motion for positioning the hand
  • fingers are long and perform complex movements
149
Q

What has the lower limbs evolved for?

A

bipedal locomotion and to support weight of the body

150
Q

How has the lower limbs evolved differently?

A
  • hip joint has deeper socket and strong ligaments
  • very stable, but less mobile
  • foot and toes are adapted for weight-bearing rather than dexterity
151
Q

What is the vertebral column?

A

spine or spinal column

152
Q

How big is the vertebral column?

A

spans from base of skull to the coccyx

153
Q

What does the spine support?

A
  • head
  • neck
  • torso
154
Q

What does the spine protect?

A

the spinal cord

155
Q

What does the spine provide attachment for?

A

muscles (therefore also allowing movement)

156
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7 (C1 to C7)

157
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12 (T1 to T12)

158
Q

How many Lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5 (L1 to L5)

159
Q

How many Sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5 (S1 to S5)

160
Q

Where are the sacral vertebrae found?

A

in the pelvis fused into the sacrum

161
Q

How many Coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

4 (Co1 to Co4) - which are fused into the coccyx

162
Q

Where are the Coccygeal vertebrae found?

A

in the pelvis

163
Q

What is the reason for the vertebral column being curved?

A

helps to absorb shock

164
Q

In what direction do the cervical and lumbar segments curve?

A

anteriorly (forming cervical lordosis and lumbar lordosis)

165
Q

In what direction do the thoracic and sacral segments curve?

A

posteriorly (forming a thoracic kyphosis and sacral kyphosis)

166
Q

What do intervertebral discs between the vertebrae do?

A

support the weight of the upper body and absorb shock

167
Q

Features of cervical vertebrae

A
  • bifid (two pronged) spinous process
  • holes in transverse processes
  • oval shaped bodies
168
Q

Features of Thoracic vertebrae

A
  • long, sharp, downward-sloping spinous processes that overlap the vertebrae below
  • additional articular facets
  • heart shaped bodies
169
Q

What are the additional articular facets in thoracic vertebrae for?

A

the attachment of ribs

170
Q

Features of Lumbar vertebrae

A
  • short, blunt spinous processes
  • extra large oval shaped bodies
171
Q

What is the purpose of lumbar vertebrae having extra large oval shaped bodies?

A

to support the weight of the body

172
Q

Features of Sacral vertebrae

A
  • fused into the sacrum
  • triangular shaped bone
  • sits in the posterior midline
  • articulates with left and right hip bones to form a bony pelvis
173
Q

Features of Coccygeal vertebrae

A
  • fused to form coccyx
174
Q

What is coccyx?

A

vestigial remnant which used to be a tail

175
Q

What does the skull protect?

A

the brain

176
Q

What does the vertebral column protect?

A

spinal cord

177
Q

What forms when axons are bundled together?

A

nerves

178
Q

How does the CNS develop in the embryo?

A
  • as a tube - it grows much larger to then become the spinal cord
  • two flextures (bends) develop in the tube so the brain and cord are not orientated along the same axis
179
Q

What parts is the nervous system divided into anatomically?

A
  • CNS
  • PNS
180
Q

What is the PNS?

A

all nervous tissue outside the CNS
- cranial nerves
- spinal nerves
- autonomic nerves

181
Q

What parts is the nervous system divided into functionally?

A
  • somatic nervous system
  • autonomic nervous system
182
Q

What does the somatic nervous system control?

A

voluntary activities under concious control

183
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

involuntary activities, not under concious control

184
Q

What three parts is the brain divided into anatomically?

A
  • cerebrum
  • cerebellum
  • brainstem
185
Q

True or false? The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain

A

true

186
Q

What is the cerebrum comprised of?

A

the left and right hemispheres, which are connected to each other

187
Q

What is the surface of the cerebrum called?

A

cerebral cortex

188
Q

Cerebral cortex

A
  • contains neuron cell bodies, giving it a grey appearance = grey matter
  • folded
  • grooves
189
Q

Grey matter

A

information is processed here

190
Q

What are the folds in the cerebral cortex called?

A

gyri (gyrus)

191
Q

What are the grooves in the cerebral cortex called and found?

A

sulci, found in between the folds gyri

192
Q

What do we find within the cerebral hemispheres?

A
  • masses of axons (pale appearance = white matter)
  • collections of cell bodies called nuclei (look grey)
193
Q

White matter

A

information is transmitted through bundles of fibres

194
Q

How is each cerebral hemisphere divided anatomically?

A

into four lobes:
- frontal
- parietal
- occipital
- temporal lobes

195
Q

Where is the large frontal lobe?

A

anterior

196
Q

Where is the small occipital lobe?

A

posterior

197
Q

Where are the parietal and temporal lobes?

A

in between the frontal and occipital lobes
- parietal on top

198
Q

What does cerebellum mean?

A

‘little brain’

199
Q

Where is the cerebellum?

A

inferior to the posterior part of the cerebrum

200
Q

What is the cerebellum composed of?

A
  • left and right hemispheres (connected to each other)
  • highly folded cortex
  • white matter and nuclei deep to the cortex
201
Q

What is the cerebellum attached to?

A

the brainstem

202
Q

Cerebellum functions

A
  • balance
  • coordination
  • movement
203
Q

True or false? The cerebellum operates by conscious control

A

False - beyond our conscious control

204
Q

How many parts is the brainstem composed of?

A

three

205
Q

What are the parts that make up the brainstem?

A
  • midbrain
  • pons
  • medulla
206
Q

Where is the brainstem?

A

inferior to the cerebrum and anterior to the cerebellum

207
Q

Vital functions of the brainstem

A
  • relays information between the cerebrum, spinal cord and cerebellum
  • gives rise to most of the cranial nerves
  • contains ‘centres’ that regualte breathing and consciousness
208
Q

What is the spinal cord a continuation of?

A

the medulla

209
Q

True or false, the spinal cord is shorter than the vertebral column

A

true

210
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1 - L2

211
Q

What is the shape of the grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

H, in an axial cross-section

212
Q

What is the grey matter surrounded by in the spinal cord?

A

white matter, containing tracts

213
Q

What are tracts?

A
  • bundles of axons that connect different parts of the CNS to each other
  • cannot be seen by the naked eye
214
Q

How many spinal nerves are attached to the spinal cord?

A

31 pairs

215
Q

What does each pair of nerves in the spinal cord correspond to?

A

a spinal cord segment

216
Q

Funciton of spinal nerves

A

carry information between the cord CNS and the periphery (skin, muscles)

217
Q

What are the cavities inside the brain called?

A

ventricles

218
Q

Describe the ventricles

A

continuous with each other and filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

219
Q

What produces CSF

A

specialised cells within the ventricles

220
Q

How does CSF leave the ventricles?

A

through small openings and surrounds the brain and spinal cord

221
Q

Function of CSF

A
  • provides nutrients to the brain
  • protects brain by providing a cushion against trauma
  • prevents delicate nerves and vessels from being compressed between the brain and internal surface of skull
222
Q

How many interconnected ventricles in the brain are there?

A

four

223
Q

What are the three membranes that lie between the brain and spinal cord and bones that protect them?

A
  • dura mater
  • arachnoid mater
  • pia mater
224
Q

Dura mater

A
  • lines the inner surface of skull and vertebral column
  • thick and strong
225
Q

Arachnoid mater

A
  • lies deep to the dura
  • thin and loosley encloses brain and spinal cord
226
Q

Pia mater

A
  • lies deep to the arachnoid
  • adhered to the surface of the brain and spinal cord
  • thin and cannot be seen by the naked eye
227
Q

Function of the meninges

A
  • protects the brain
  • provide a scaffold for blood vessels
228
Q

What are the two pairs of arteries that supply blood to the brain?

A
  • left and right internal carotid arteries
  • left and right vertebral arteries
229
Q

Where do the arteries give rise to branches that form interconnected ring: Circle of Willis?

A

inferior surface of the cerebrum

230
Q

True or False? Circle of Willis is an example of an anastomosis

A

true

231
Q

Anastomosis

A

where branches from otherwise separate arteries unite with each other

232
Q

Advantage of circle of willis

A

theoretically allows for blood supply to be maintained even if one of the vessels supplying it becomes blocked

233
Q

What does the circle of willis give rise to?

A
  • three cerebral arteries
  • cerebellar arteries
  • arteries supplying brainstem and spinal cord
234
Q

What do cerebral arteries supply blood to?

A

cerebral hemispheres

235
Q

What do cerebellar arteries supply blood to?

A

cerebellum

236
Q

What arteries connect to the cerebral arteries?

A

communicating arteries

237
Q

What are the different types of veins in the brain?

A
  • deep
  • superficial
  • large veins enclosed within the dura mater
238
Q

What are the large veins enclosed in the dura mater called?

A

dural venous sinuses

239
Q

True or false? the somatic nervous system has a sensory and motor component

A

true

240
Q

What does the motor component of the somatic nervous system control?

A

voluntary contraction of skeletal muscle

241
Q

What does the sensory component of the somatic nervous system control?

A

sends information about peripheral stimuli from the sensory receptors in the body to the CNS

242
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

involuntary activities

243
Q

True or false? the autonomic nervous systme has a sensory and motor component?

A

true

244
Q

What two parts is the motor component divided into?

A
  • sympathetic
  • parasympathetic
245
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

‘fight or flight’

246
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

‘rest and digest’

247
Q

Visceral efferent nerves

A

the nerves that leave the CNS travelling to the periphery

248
Q

Fight or flight

A
  • sympathetic
  • heart rate increases
  • bronchi dilate
  • peripheral blood vessels constrict
  • divert blood away from surface of skin
  • pupils dilate and hair stands of end
  • swear glands stimulated
249
Q

Rest and digest

A
  • parasympathetic
  • heart rate decreases
  • bronchi constrict
  • glands stimulated (salivar- digestive secretions)
  • gut activity (peristalsis) stimulated
  • pupils constrict
250
Q

peristalsis

A

gut activity

251
Q

Where are the sympathetic neurone cell bodies?

A

thoracic and upper lumbar
(T1-L2/3)

252
Q

Where are the parasympathetic neurone cell bodies?

A

brainstem and sacral spinal cord
(S2-S4)

253
Q

Ganglion

A

collection of cell bodies outside CNS

254
Q

Preganglionic nerve

A

axon of nerve is before ganglion (nerve coming from inside CNS)

255
Q

Postganglioinic nerve

A

axon or nerve is after ganglion (nerve is going away and is outside the CNS)

256
Q

Which nerve travels to the target organs?

A

Postganglionic nerve

257
Q

Is the preganglioinc nerve shorter in the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerve?

A

sympathetic

258
Q

True or false? Sympathetic ganglia lie closer to the CNS that the target organ?

A

true - therefore their preganglionic axons are short and post are long

259
Q

Purpose of the sensory component of the ANS?

A
  • conveys sensory information from viscera to CNS
  • does not reach concious perception
260
Q

What are visceral afferent fibres also known as?

A

sensory autonomic fibres
(convey information from the viscera back to CNS)

261
Q

What is the purpose of the visceral afferent fibres?

A
  • monitor internal environment (homeostasis and reflexes)
  • convey information to CNS about distension, stretch , spsm or ischaemia of viscera
262
Q

Distension

A

swelling

263
Q

Ischaemia

A

lack of blood supply to a part of the body

264
Q

Where do cranial nerves arise from?

A
  • cerebrum
  • brainstem
265
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 (numbered in roman numerals)

266
Q

Why are cranial nerves a part of the peripheral nervous system?

A

because they leave the CNS and travel into the periphery

267
Q

What do the 12 cranial nerves mainly serve?

A

the head and the neck

268
Q

Where do cranial nerves exit the skull by?

A

passing through holes in the base of the skull

269
Q

What are the holes in the base of the skull called?

A

Foramina

270
Q

true or false? some cranial nerves are purely sensory or purely motor

A

true - some also carry both and others carry parasympathetic fibres too

271
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs (attached to the spinal cord)

272
Q

How many cervical spinal nerves are there?

A

8 (C1-C8)

273
Q

How many thoracic spinal nerves are there?

A

12 (T1-T12)

274
Q

How many lumbar spinal nerves are there?

A

5 (L1-L5)

275
Q

How many sacral spinal nerves are there?

A

5 (S1-S5)

276
Q

How many coccygeal spinal nerves are there?

A

1 (Co1)

277
Q

True or false? Spinal nerves are mixed nerves and carry somatic motor, sympathetic and somatic sensory fibres

A

true

278
Q

Where do somatic motor fibres carry?

A

CNS to body

279
Q

Where do sympathetic fibres carry?

A

CNS to body

280
Q

Where do somatic sensory carry?

A

Body to CNS

281
Q

Where do spinal nerves pass through in the spinal cord?

A

through the gaps formed between adjacent vertebrae

282
Q

Intervertebral foramina

A

gaps through the gaps formed between adjacent vertebrae

283
Q

Where do the cell bodies of somatic motor neurons lie?

A

vetral horn of spinal cord (grey matter)

284
Q

Ventral (motor) root of spinal nerve

A
  • formed from the merging of the axons leaving the cord via a series of rootlets
  • stimulate voluntary contraction of skeletal muscle
285
Q

Where do the cell bodies of the periphery sensory neurons lie?

A

in the dorsal root ganglia (DRG)
- visible with the naked eye as ‘swellings’ on the dorsal roots

286
Q

What is unique about the periphery sensory neurons?

A

they have two processes
- one peripherally into the spinal nerve
- one projecting centrally into the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (grey matter)

287
Q

Where does the sensory information travel from?

A

peripheral receptors towards the DRG via the spinal nerve, then from DRG to the dorsal horn via a series of rootlets

288
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

289
Q

What do all 31 spinal nerves contain?

A

sympathetic fibres (stimulate sweat glands and the contractoin of smooth muscle in peeripheral blood vessels and the hair follicles)

290
Q

What are dermatomes?

A

an area of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve

291
Q

What is a myotome?

A

the group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve

292
Q

Thoracic cavity

A
  • continuous with the neck via superior thoracic aperture
  • separated from abdomincal cavity by the diaphragm
293
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

a sheet of skeletal muscle that is vital for breathing (openings in the diaphragm allow structures to pass between the thorax and abdomen)

294
Q

What are the major organs of the thorax?

A

heart and lungs

295
Q

What else is found in the thorax?

A
  • trachea
  • oesophagus
  • arteries and veins
  • nerves (somatic and autonomic)
  • lymphatic vessels
296
Q

What is the thoracic cage?

A

the bony skeleton of the thorax
(semi-rigid and moves with breathing to allow the lungs to expand)

297
Q

What is the function of the thoracic cage?

A
  • protects the thoraci viscera
  • provides an attachment for the muscles of breathing and muscles that move the upper limb
298
Q

What is the sternum?

A

breastbone

299
Q

What is the thoracic cage made from?

A
  • sternum
  • 12 pairs of ribs
  • thoracic vertebrae
300
Q

Where is the sternum?

A

anterior in the midline of the throacic cage

301
Q

What is the sternum comprised of?

A
  • manubrium (superior)
  • body (inferior to the manubrium)
  • xiphoid process (inferior to the body)
302
Q

What is the xiphoid process also known as?

A

xiphisternum

303
Q

Suprasternal (jugular) notch

A

a notch on the superior border of the manubrium

304
Q

True or false? the manubrium articulates with the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint MEDIALLY

A

false - laterally

305
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

the manubrium and body of sternum articuating with each other

306
Q

What is the sternal angle also known as?

A

angle of Louis

307
Q

How many pairs of ribs form the anterior, lateral and posterior walls of the thoracic cage?

A

12 pairs

308
Q

What are the anterior parts of the ribs composed of?

A

costal cartilage (giving the throacic cage some ‘springiness’)

309
Q

At which joints do the ribs articulate with their costal cartilages?

A

costovertebral joints

310
Q

Where do the intercostal muscles lie?

A

in the intercostal spaces between the ribs

311
Q

What do the intercostal muscles do?

A

move the thorax for breathing

312
Q

Where do the thoracic vertebrae articulate with each other?

A

at intervertebral joints AND with the posterior parts of the ribs at costovertebral joints

313
Q

What are the speciaised nerve cells and fibres in the heart responsible for?

A

they spontaneously generate and conduct eletrical activity that stimulates contraction of the myocardium

314
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

heart muscle

315
Q

True or false? these specialised nerve cells in the heart are under somatic control?

A

false - under autonomic control

316
Q

Sympathetic stimulation…..heart rate

A

increases

317
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation…..heart rate

A

decreases

318
Q

What sup-plies the myocardium with blood?

A

coronary arteries

319
Q

What is the cardiopulomonary circulation?

A

the circulation between the heart and lungs

320
Q

How many lobes make up the right lung?

A

three (superior, middle and inferior)

321
Q

How many lobes make up the left lung?

A

two (upper and lower)

322
Q

What separates the lobes of the lungs?

A

Fissures

323
Q

Each lung is served by…

A
  • one pulmonary artery
  • two pulmonary veins
  • one main bronchus
324
Q

What is the bronchial tree

A

it describes the branching system of tubes that conduct air into and out of the lungs

325
Q

What do the walls of the trachea and bronchi contain?

A

smooth muscle and cartilage

326
Q

What is the role of cartilage in the trachea?

A

acts as a scaffold and ensures that the trachea and bronchi remain open

327
Q

true or false? the walls of the bronchioles also contain cartilage and smooth muscle

A

false - only contain smooth muscle (can contract and relax and is under autonomic control)

328
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of the bronchioles

A

narrows
BRONCHOCONSTRICTION

329
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the bronchioles

A

opens
BRONCHODILATION

330
Q

Surface anatomy

A

the study of anatomical structures by looking, feeling and listening

331
Q

Clinical term for feeling

A

palpate

332
Q

Clinical term for listening

A

auscultation (using a stethescope)

333
Q

Which position is the sternal angle?

A

same level as the second ribs

334
Q

Where is the second intercostal space?

A

inferior to the second ribs (a slight depression when palapting inferiorly to the second ribs)

335
Q

What is inferior to the second intercostal space?

A

the third ribs

336
Q

Midsternal line

A

drawn straight down the centre of the sternum

337
Q

Midclavicular line

A

drawn inferiorly from the midpoint of the clavicle

338
Q

Anterior axillary line

A

drawn inferiorly from the anterior axilla (armpit)

339
Q

Midaxillary line

A

drawn inferiorly from the midpoint of the clavicle

340
Q

Posterior axillary line

A

drawn inferiroly from the posterios axilla

341
Q

Scapula line

A

drawn inferiorly through the scapula

342
Q

Midvertebral line

A

drawn straight down along the spinous processes of the vertebrae

Phase 1 Anatomy (8 decks)

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