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Anatomy UOP Exam 1 > Anatomy Exam 1 > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which epidermal cell functions as an antigen presenting cell? 
A. Keratinocyte
B. Langerhans cell
C. Merkel cell
D. Melanocyte
A

B. Langerhans cell

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2
Q 
In skin, the integrity of the epidermis and the basement membrane is dependent on all of the following, EXCEPT
A. tight junctions.
B. laminin 5.
C. desmosomes.
D. hemidesmosomes.
E. collagen VII.
A

A. tight junctions.

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3
Q 
Which protein induces aggregation of tonofilaments to form keratin in the cornified layer of epidermis?
A. Filaggrin
B. Laminin
C. Bullous pemphigoid antigen
D. Elastin
E. Aggrecan
A

A. Filaggrin

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4
Q

A dermatome is defined as the area of skin
A. innervated by motor branches from a single ventral root of a spinal nerve.
B. innervated by the motor branches from the ventral roots of at least two spinal nerves.
C. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal root of a single spinal nerve.
D. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal roots of at least two spinal
nerves.

A

C. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal root of a single spinal nerve.

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5
Q 
Which of the following histological structures/regions is equivalent to the gross anatomical
"superficial fascia"?
A. Epidermis
B. Reticular layer of dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Epimysium
E. Papillary layer of dermis
A

C. Hypodermis

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6
Q 
While moving into a new apartment a student lifting a heavy box of books experiences a sharp pain in his back radiating down his leg. He is diagnosed with a herniated disk at the L4 level which is compressing a spinal nerve where it exits the vertebral column. The point of compression of the nerve is the
A. central canal.
B. foramen magnum.
C. intervertebral foramen. 
D. vertebral foramen.
E. interspinous ligament.
A

C. intervertebral foramen.

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7
Q 
Quasimoto, the "hunchback of Notre Dame," suffered from an abnormal thoracic curvature called kyphosis. In this condition the accentuated convexity of the curvature is
A. anterior.
B. caudal.
C. lateral.
D. medial.
E. posterior.
A

E. posterior.

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8
Q 
Epidural anesthesia is sometimes given in the final stages of labor. Which of the meninges is pierced by the needle in the delivery of the anesthetic?
A. Dura mater only
B. Arachnoid mater only
C. Dura and arachnoid mater
D. Dura, arachnoid and pia mater
E. None of the meninges are pierced.
A

E. None of the meninges are pierced.

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9
Q 
Which of the following is present only in spinal cord segments T1 – L2?
A. Posterior funiculus
B. Dorsal horn
C. Central canal
D. Lateral funiculus
E. Lateral horn
A

E. Lateral horn

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10
Q 
Which junctional complex in an epithelial cell is associated with actin microfilaments?
A. Gap
B. Hemidesmosome
C. Desmosome
D. Adherens
E. Tight
A

D. Adherens

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11
Q

The pia mater of the spinal cord
A. lies immediately deep to the dura mater.
B. is punctured during a spinal tap (lumbar puncture).
C. forms the denticulate ligaments.
D. is a tough membrane composed of dense fibrous connective tissue.
E. secretes cerebrospinal fluid.

A

C. forms the denticulate ligaments.

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12
Q 
Embryonic connective tissue is known as
A. areolar tissue
B. mesenchyme
C.mesoderm
D. mesothelium
E.reticular tissue
A

B. mesenchyme

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13
Q 
The second costal cartilage can be located by palpating the
A. costal margin
B. sternal angle
c. sternal notch
d. sternoclavicular joint
e. xiphoid process
A

B. sternal angle

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14
Q

Inhibition of microtubule assembly in a neuron would interfere MOST with which of the following cellular activities?
A. Synthesis of neurotransmitters
B. A TP production
C. Packaging of neurotransmitters into vesicles
D. Axonal transport of vesicles
E. Release of neurotransmitter at the axon terminal

A

D. Axonal transport of vesicles

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15
Q

All of the following statements about elastic fibers are true EXCEPT, they are
A. found in the tunica media of the aorta.
B. branching structures.
C. composed of elastin and fibrillin.
D. found in tendons.
E. present in the dermis of the skin.

A

D. found in tendons.

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16
Q 
In which of the following regions of the spinal cord would you find the most (largest area) of white matter?
A. Upper cervical
B. Lower cervical
C. Mid-thoracic
D. Lower lumbar
E. Upper sacral
A

A. Upper cervical

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17
Q

The muscles of the anterior abdominal wall participate in all of the following functions
EXCEPT
A. protect the abdominal viscera.
B. move the vertebral column.
C. increase the intra-abdominal pressure.
D. extend the trunk against resistance.
E. aid in respiration and defecation.

A

D. extend the trunk against resistance.

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18
Q

Congenital muscular dystrophy is caused by a defect in the gene for laminin. Based on this
information you
would hypothesize that the loss of muscle function in this disease is due to
A. diminished Ca++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. a disruption in the sliding filament mechanism involving actin and myosin.
C. disruption of the internal cytoskeleton.
D. destabilization of the link to the extracellular matrix.
E. a disruption of the neuromuscular junction.

A

D. destabilization of the link to the extracellular matrix.

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19
Q 
The general name for an alternative pathway of blood flow in or around an organ, around a joint, or past an obstruction is
A. an arteriovenous anastomosis
B.  a portal system
C. a perivascular plexus
D. a venous plexus
E. collateral circulation
A

E. collateral circulation

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20
Q

Each of the following is a is a true statement about lymphatic vessels EXCEPT
A. valves are present in lymphatic vessels.
B. lymph nodes (glands) are interposed along the course of lymphatic vessels and function to “filter” lymph.
C. blind-ended lymphatic capillaries pick up excess tissue fluid which is then known as lymph.
D. the thoracic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel.
E. lymph returns to the blood circulation when lymphatic vessels drain into arteries in the neck.

A

E. lymph returns to the blood circulation when lymphatic vessels drain into arteries in the neck.

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21
Q 
In which layers of the epidermis are you most likely to see mitotically active cells?
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratrum lucidum
E. Stratum spinosum
A

A. Stratum basale

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22
Q 
In both skeletal and cardiac muscle, what TWO structures are intimately associated with the release of intracellular calcium (MARK TWO ANSWERS)
A. Mitochondria
B. T-tubules
C. Gap junctions
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Endomysium
A

B. T-tubules

D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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23
Q 
All of the following are found in the adventia of large arteries, EXCEPT
A. fibroblasts
B. collagen I
C. nervi vasorum
D. vaso vasorum
E. smooth muscle
A

E. smooth muscle

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24
Q 
The triceps muscle is a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle innervated by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ nerve.
A. flexor/median
B. flexor/musculocutaneous
C. abductor/axillary
D. extensor/radial
E. extensor/ulnar
A

D. extensor/radial

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25
Q 
Aggrecan, a molecule found in the matrix of hyaline cartilage, is best described as a
A. type of collagen.
B. glycosaminoglycan.
C. glycoprotein.
D. proteoglycan.
E. proteoglycan aggregate.
A

D. proteoglycan.

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26
Q

Desmosomes function by serving as
A. a means for communication between cells.
B. a means for attachment of adjacent cells.
C. a bridge for continuity of cytoplasm between adjacent cells.
D. a means by which tonofilaments from one cell extend into an adjacent cell.

A

B. a means for attachment of adjacent cells.

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27
Q 
Autonomic nerves innervate all of the following structures EXCEPT
A. heart.
B. adrenal medulla.
C. arector pili muscle.
D. biceps brachii.
E. small intestine.
A

D. biceps brachii.

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28
Q 
Juvenile Paget's disease is characterized by rapidly remodeling woven bone, osteopenia, fractures, and progressive skeletal deformity. The molecular basis is not known, but osteoprotegerin deficiency could explain juvenile Paget's disease because osteoprotegerin
A. is a decoy for RANKL.
B. inhibits calcitonin.
C. inhibits monocyte recruitment.
D. blocks osteopontin.
E. mimics RANKL.
A

A. is a decoy for RANKL.

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29
Q 
A simple epithelium lines all of the following EXCEPT
A. blood vessels.
B. esophagus.
C. small intestine.
D. lymphatic vessels.
E. trachea.
A

B. esophagus.

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30
Q 
All of the following are typically seen in an axon terminal (terminal bouton) EXCEPT
A. microtubules.
B. vesicles containing neurotransmitter.
C. intermediate filaments.
D. mitochondria.
E. rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A

E. rough endoplasmic reticulum.

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31
Q 
Surgical approach to the abdomen sometimes requires a midline incision between the two rectus sheathes, i.e., through the
A. inguinal ligament.
B. arcuate line.
C. linea alba.
D. sternum.
E. iliac crest.
A

C. linea alba.

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32
Q

In the kidney, the proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for the reabsorption of 70% of
the H2O and Na+, as well as all of the glucose and amino acids in the initial ultrafiltrate.
Which of the following intracellular organelles or cell surface specializations would you expect to be especially prominent in these cells?
A. Cilia
B. Microvilli
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Secretory granules
E. Lysosomes

A

B. Microvilli

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33
Q 
Astrocytes are to neuronal cell bodies in the ventral horn of the spinal cord, as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are to neuronal cell bodies in a dorsal root ganglion?
A. Satellite cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Schwann cells
D. Microglia
E. Ependymal cells
A

A. Satellite cells

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34
Q 
In the dermis, blood flow to the papillary plexus and superficial capillary loops from the deeper, subcutaneous blood vessels is regulated by the function of
A. pericytes.
B. arrector pili muscles.
C. arteriovenous shunts .
D. parasympathetic nerves to the skin.
E. sensory cutaneous nerves to the skin.
A

C. arteriovenous shunts .

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35
Q 
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers, which innervate sweat glands in the thoracic region, exit the sympathetic trunk to rejoin a spinal nerve via
A. white communicating rami.
B. gray communicating rami.
C. a sympathetic nerve.
D. a splanchnic nerve.
A

B. gray communicating rami.

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36
Q 
The intermediate layer of back muscles functions primarily in
A. respiration.
B. maintenance of posture.
C. movement of the upper extremity.
D. movement of the lower extremity.
E. movement of the head.
A

A. respiration.

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37
Q 
Which of the following structures are NOT found in a stratified epithelium?
A. Cytokeratins
B. Hemidesmosomes
C. Desmosomes
D. Keratinocytes
E. Tight junctions
A

E. Tight junctions

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38
Q 
Individual cardiac muscle cells are mechanically linked to one another by
A. Z lines.
B. desmosomes.
C. tight junctions.
D. dense bodies.
E. gap junctions.
A

B. desmosomes.

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39
Q 
Which of the following are the primary curvatures of the vertebral column?
A. Cervical and thoracic
B. Lumbar and sacral
C. Cervical and lumbar
D. Thoracic and sacral
A

D. Thoracic and sacral

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40
Q 
Cytokeratin is to an epithelial cell as\_\_\_\_ is to fibroblast.
A. actin
B. tublulin
C. laminin
D. desmin
E.  vimentin
A

E. vimentin

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41
Q 
Which cells found in connective tissue are involved in host defense and the phagocytosis of cell debris, senescent red blood cells and foreign substances?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Lymphocytes
E. Neutrophils
A

B. Macrophages

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42
Q 
The number of vertebrae and number of spinal cord segments are the same in each region
EXCEPT
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
A

A. cervical

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43
Q 
Injury to smooth muscle can be repaired by the regeneration of new muscle fibers. What is the source of new smooth muscle cells?
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Pericytes
C. Satellite cells
D. Myofibrils
E. Perimysium
A

A. Smooth muscle cells

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44
Q

In articular cartilage, chondrocytes are sustained by
A. nutrient blood vessels in the epiphysis.
B. diffusion via canaliculi.
C. diffusion through the extracellular matrix.
D. capillaries in the perichondrium.

A

C. diffusion through the extracellular matrix.

45
Q 
The anterior axillary fold (anterior boundary of the axilla) is formed by
A. pectoralis major
B. Ribs
C.  The Humerus
D. Latissimus Dorsi
E. Serratus Anterior
A

A. pectoralis major

46
Q 
What type of capillary is associated with the blood-brain barrier?
A. Continuous
B. Sinusoidal
C. Fenestrated
D. Lymphatic
A

A. Continuous

47
Q 
Which spinal cord segment is located closest to the origin of the filum terminale?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. S3
E. Co1
A

E. Co1

48
Q 
In a long bone, endosteum is found in which two of the following locations? (MARK TWO ANSWERS)
A. Covering the diaphysis 
B. Covering the articular surfaces 
C. Covering trabeculae
D. Lining Haversian canals 
E. Lining the lacunae
A

C. Covering trabeculae

D. Lining Haversian canals

49
Q

The relationship
which of the following statements?
between the superior and inferior epigastric arteries is best described by
A. The inferior epigastric artery is a branch of the superior epigastric artery.
B. Both arteries can be classified as “end” arteries.
C. The two arteries anastomose with each other.
D. The two arteries form an arterial portal system.
E. Both arteries are branches of the internal thoracic artery.

A

C. The two arteries anastomose with each other.

50
Q 
Which two muscles protract the scapula? (MARK TWO ANSWERS)
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Supraspinatus
C. Rhomboids
D. Serratus anterior
E. Pectoralis minor
A

D. Serratus anterior

E. Pectoralis minor

51
Q

The growth in length of a long bone is due primarily to
A. interstitial growth of the cartilage at the epiphyseal plate.
B. an increase in the size of the epiphysis.
C. formation of interstitial lamellae in the diaphysis.
D. intramembranous bone formation at the epiphyseal plate.

A

A. interstitial growth of the cartilage at the epiphyseal plate.

52
Q 
Shaking one's head from side to side (the "no" motion) is the primary action facilitated by the articulation between which bones?
A. Occipital and atlas
B. Vertebrae C2 and C3
C. Vertebrae C7 and T1
D. Atlas and axis
A

D. Atlas and axis

53
Q

The biomechanical properties of any given connective tissue are due primarily to
A. its degree of vascularization.
B. the proportions of differing cell types (fibroblasts, macrophages, etc.)
C. the specific nature of the extracellular matrix.
D. its embryonic origin.

A

C. the specific nature of the extracellular matrix.

54
Q 
A thoracic surgeon accidentally cuts a splanchnic nerve during a procedure. Which of the
following outcomes might be expected?
A. Decrease in heart rate
B. Bronchial constriction
C. Inability to sweat
D. Pupillary constriction
E. Gastrointestinal disturbances
A

E. Gastrointestinal disturbances

55
Q 
When the forearm is supinated, the radius lies \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the ulna.
A. medial
B. lateral
C. anterior
D. posterior
E. superficial
A

B. lateral

56
Q 
Ceramides are lipid compounds that help to form the cell envelop of the cornified layer of the epidermis. Within the keratinocyte they can be found in
A. keratohyaline granules.
B. desmosomes.
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D. lamellar bodies.
E. lipofuscin granules.
A

D. lamellar bodies.

57
Q 
Which of the following are you least likely to see in the gray matter of the spinal cord?
A. Dendrites
B. Interneurons
C. Cell bodies of multipolar neurons
D. Astrocytes
E. Oligodendrocytes
A

E. Oligodendrocytes

58
Q 
Cell bodies of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons supplying the lungs are located in the 
A. brainstem
B. thoracic spinal column
C. pulmonary plexus
D.  splanchnic nerve
E. vagus nerve
A

C. pulmonary plexus

59
Q

(Bonus) An indirect hernia can be differentiated from a direct hernia by which of the following? Mark two answers
A. They usually occur in young males.
B. They are generally found in older males.
C. The herniated bowel is enclosed within the covering of the spermatic cord.
D. The herniated bowel is forced through a weak spot in the abdominal wall.

A

A. They usually occur in young males.

C. The herniated bowel is enclosed within the covering of the spermatic cord.

60
Q

Cells are divided into functional compartments. Which the following pairings is incorrect?
A. nucleus - transcription of mRNA
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum - protein synthesis
C. mitochondria - oxidative phosphorylation
D. Golgi apparatus - degradation of redundant cellular material
E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum - detoxification of xenobiotics

A

D. Golgi apparatus - degradation of redundant cellular material

61
Q 
All of the following are intermediate filaments, EXCEPT
A. fibrillin.
B. cytokeratin.
C. neurofilament protein.
D. vimentin.
E. desmin.
A

A. fibrillin.

62
Q 
Microtubules
A. provide mechanical strength.
B. provide for intracellular transport.
C. consist of actin monomers.
D. AandB
E. BandC
A

D. A and B

63
Q 
Bulk transport of molecules, bacteria or cell fragments across the plasma membrane is carried out by the process of
A. osmosis.
B. facilitated diffusion.
C. pinocytosis/phagocytosis.
D. active transport.
A

C. pinocytosis/phagocytosis.

64
Q 
Which of the following structures is most important to the function of cardiac muscle?
A. Fasicles
B. Muscle spindles
C. Actin binding dense bodies
D. Intercalated discs
E. Neuromuscular junctions
A

D. Intercalated discs

65
Q 
Skeletal muscle can be distinguished from cardiac muscle because skeletal muscle cells
A. have peripherally-located nuclei.
B. don't have T-tubules.
C. have gap junctions.
D. are generally shorter in length.
E. receive autonomic innervation.
A

A. have peripherally-located nuclei.

66
Q 
Smooth muscle cells
A. modify the volume of hollow organs and passageways.
B. are connected by gap junctions.
C. have centrally-placed nuclei.
D. AandC
E. A, B and C
A

E. A, B and C

67
Q 
All of the following are constituents of the extracellular matrix of elastic cartilage EXCEPT
A. Type I collagen
B. Type II collagen
C. Elastic fibers
D. Chondroitin sulfate
E. Keratan sulfate
A

A. Type I collagen

68
Q 
The oldest lamella of an osteon is A. not calcified.
B. covered by endosteum.
C. the most central lamella.
D. surrounded by periosteum. 
E. the most peripheral lamella.
A

E. the most peripheral lamella.

69
Q 
In which of the following structures/areas would you expect to see fibrocartilage?
A. Pubic symphysis
B. External ear
C. A growing long bone
D. Trachea
E. Facet joints between vertebrae
A

A. Pubic symphysis

70
Q 
Osteoprogenitor cells may be found in all of the following places EXCEPT in 
A. periosteum
B. the tissue covering bony trabeculae
C. haversian canal
D. canaliculi
E.  endosteum
A

D. canaliculi

71
Q

Osteoporosis results from an imbalance between bone formation and resorption, and it could possibly be treated by inhibiting the final transformation of a “resting” osteoclast to a “functional” osteoclast. Such a drug would
A. block the parathyroid hormone receptor.
B. inhibit the binding of M-CSF to circulating monocytes.
C. block formation of RANKL by the osteoblast.
D. increase the secretion of osteoprotegerin.
E. inhibit 􏰂􏰃􏰄3 integrin binding to osteopontin.

A

E. inhibit 􏰂􏰃􏰄3 integrin binding to osteopontin.

72
Q 
Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption by binding to receptors on
A. osteoblasts.
B. macrophages.
C. osteoclasts.
D. osteocytes.
E. osteoprogenitors.
A

C. osteoclasts.

73
Q

Intramembranous ossification begins with
A. formation of a cartilaginous model.
B. formation of a bone blastema.
C. direct osteoid secretion by mesenchymal cells.
D. mesenchymal cell differentiation into osteoblasts.
E. incorporation of Ca++ into osteoid.

A

D. mesenchymal cell differentiation into osteoblasts.

74
Q

All of the following statements about an epiphyseal plate are true EXCEPT
A. It can only be recognized radiographically in growing children.
B. It is present in all endochondral bones.
C. It consists of several zones of cartilage (resting, proliferating, maturation
and hypertrophic).
D. It is replaced by bone.

A

B. It is present in all endochondral bones.

75
Q 
One of the biological rationales for the use of nutritional supplements that contain glucosamine to treat osteoarthritis is that glucosamine is a constituent of
A. Glycosaminoglycan
B. proteoglycans
C. Synovial fluid
D. A and B
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

76
Q 
What type of collogen is present in reticular tissue
A. Type I
B Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type VII
E. Type X
A

B Type III

77
Q

Mast cells play a role in both the innate and specific immune response by
A. phagocytosing bacteria.
B. walling off the damaged area.
C. recruiting neutrophils and macrophages.
D. recruiting B cells.
E. acting as antigen presenting cells.

A

C. recruiting neutrophils and macrophages.

78
Q 
Where would you expect to find dense regular connective tissue?
A. Epimysium
B. Dermis
C. Neurovascular bundle
D. Tendon
E. Omentum
A

D. Tendon

79
Q 
In a simple epithelium, which of the following cellular structures is responsible for
maintaining cell polarity?
A. Tight junctions 
B. Desmosomes 
C. Hemidesmosomes 
D. Gap junctions
A

A. Tight junctions

80
Q

All of the following statements about epithelia and epithelial cells are true, EXCEPT
A. In a simple epithelium, all cells rest on a basement membrane.
B. Goblet cells are epithelial cells.
C. Transitional epithelium is found in the urinary system.
D. Microvilli increase surface area.
E. Mesothelium lines blood vessels.

A

E. Mesothelium lines blood vessels.

81
Q 
The mechanism of secretion involving the release of material from storage granules fusing with the apical plasma membrane is termed
A. exocrine.
B. merocrine.
C. apocrine.
D. holocrine.
E. exoteric.
A

B. merocrine.

82
Q 
In growth of a neuron, there is an essential synthesis of axoplasm to accommodate for increasing axonal length. Where is this material synthesized?
A. Within the cell body
B. At the terminal bouton
C. Within Schwann cells
D. Within the axon itself
A

A. Within the cell body

83
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the peripheral neurons carrying the sensation of deep pressure?
A. In the hypodermis associated with Paccinian corpuscles
B. In the papillary dermis associated with Meissner’s corpuscles
C. In a dorsal root ganglion
D. In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
E. In the thalamus

A

C. In a dorsal root ganglion

84
Q 
Which central nervous system structure is analogous to a peripheral nerve?
A. Nucleus
B. Interneuron
C. Tract
D. Ramus
E. Ganglion
A

C. Tract

85
Q 
In relapsing/remitting multiple sclerosis some repair of damaged CNS myelin occurs during remissions.  Which cell is responsible for the repair?
A. astrocyte
B. oligodendrocyte
C. microglial cells
D. ependymal cell
E. schwann cell
A

B. oligodendrocyte

86
Q

In the limited passage of proteins across the “blood-brain barrier” is a consequence of
A. A specialized basement membrane between capillaries and neural tissue
B. A layer of ependymal cells surrounding capillaries
C. a meshwork of astrocyte foot processes around the capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters limiting blood flow into capillaries
E. tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells.

A

E. tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells.

87
Q 
Which type of blood vessel functions as the primary regulator of blood pressure?
A. Elastic Artery
B. Arteriole
C. Muscular Artery
D. Capillary
E. Venule
A

B. Arteriole

88
Q 
Sinusoidal capillaries are found in the
A. spleen.
B. liver.
C. central nervous system.
D. A and B.
E. BandC.
A

D. A and B.

89
Q

Systemic arteries and veins differ in that
A. veins have more elastic tissue.
B. arteries have a relatively thinner tunica media.
C. elastic membranes are less pronounced in arteries.
D. arteries have larger endothelial pores.
E. valves are often present in veins.

A

E. valves are often present in veins.

90
Q 
Which epidermal cell functions as an antigen presenting cell?
A. Keratinocyte
B. Langerhans cell
C. Merkel cell
D. Melanocyte
A

B. Langerhans cell

91
Q 
In skin, the integrity of the epidermis and the basement membrane is dependent on all of the following, EXCEPT
A. tight junctions.
B. laminin 5.
C. desmosomes.
D. hemidesmosomes.
E. collagen VII.
A

A. tight junctions.

92
Q 
Which protein induces aggregation of tonofilaments to form keratin in the cornified layer of epidermis?
A. Filaggrin
B. Laminin
C. Bullous pemphigoid antigen
D. Elastin
E. Aggrecan
A

A. Filaggrin

93
Q

A dermatome is defined as the area of skin
A. innervated by motor branches from a single ventral root of a spinal nerve.
B. innervated by the motor branches from the ventral roots of at least two spinal nerves.
C. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal root of a single spinal nerve.
D. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal roots of at least two spinal
nerves.

A

C. innervated by sensory branches from the dorsal root of a single spinal nerve.

94
Q 
Which of the following histological structures/regions is equivalent to the gross anatomical
"superficial fascia"?
A. Epidermis
B. Reticular layer of dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Epimysium
E. Papillary layer of dermis
A

C. Hypodermis

95
Q 
While moving into a new apartment a student lifting a heavy box of books experiences a sharp pain in his back radiating down his leg. He is diagnosed with a herniated disk at the L4 level which is compressing a spinal nerve where it exits the vertebral column. The point of compression of the nerve is the
A. central canal.
B. foramen magnum.
C. Intervertebral Foramen
 D. vertebral foramen.
E. interspinous ligament.
A

C. Intervertebral Foramen

96
Q 
Quasimoto, the "hunchback of Notre Dame," suffered from an abnormal thoracic curvature called kyphosis. In this condition the accentuated convexity of the curvature is
A. anterior.
B. caudal.
C. lateral.
D. medial.
E. posterior.
A

E. posterior.

97
Q 
Epidural anesthesia is sometimes given in the final stages of labor. Which of the meninges is pierced by the needle in the delivery of the anesthetic?
A. Dura mater only
B. Arachnoid mater only
C. Dura and arachnoid mater
D. Dura, arachnoid and pia mater
E. None of the meninges are pierced.
A

E. None of the meninges are pierced.

98
Q 
Which of the following is present only in spinal cord segments T1 – L2?
A. Posterior funiculus
B. Dorsal horn
C. Central canal
D. Lateral funiculus
E. Lateral horn
A

E. Lateral horn

99
Q 
All of the following are involved in sensory (afferent) functions EXCEPT the
A. ventral root.
B. spinal nerve.
C. dorsal root ganglion.
D. spinothalamic tract.
E. anterior ramus.
A

A. ventral root.

100
Q 
Which of the following is a key component of the patellar (knee jerk) reflex arc?
A. An excitatory interneuron
B. A muscle spindle
C. A Meissner's corpuscle
D. The cerebellum
E. The cerebral cortex
A

B. A muscle spindle

101
Q

Muscles that function as antagonists to the rectus abdominus muscles are the
A. erector spinae.
B. serratus posterior superior and inferior.
C. latissimus dorsi and trapezius.
D. pectoralis major and minor.

A

A. erector spinae.

102
Q

Which of the following articulations is NOT a synovial joint?
A. Body of rib to costal cartilage
B. Costal cartilage to body of sternum
C. Head of rib to vertebral body
D. Tubercle of rib to transverse process of vertebra
E. None of the above. All are synovial joints.

A

A. Body of rib to costal cartilage

103
Q 
Drugs injected into the median cubital vein will pass immediately into the
A. radial or ulnar vein.
B. cephalic or basilic vein.
C. axillary vein.
D. subclavian vein.
E. lateral thoracic vein.
A

B. cephalic or basilic vein.

104
Q 
In the formation the
of the brachial plexus, anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 and C6 join to form
A. lower trunk. 
B. lateral cord 
C. medial cord. 
D. middle trunk.
E. upper trunk.
A

E. upper trunk.

105
Q 
All of the following are muscles of the rotator cuff EXCEPT the
A. Teres Major
B. Teres Minor
C. Infraspinatus
D. Supraspinatus
A

A. Teres Major

106
Q 
Which of the following muscles moves the glenohumeral joint?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Coracobrachialis
D. Deltoid
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

107
Q 
Postganglionic, parasympathetic nerves to the pelvic organs originate in the
A. midbrain and brainstem 
B. thoracic spinal cord
C. sacral spinal cord
D. intramural ganglia
E. paravertebral ganglia
A

D. intramural ganglia

108
Q

A preganglionic sympathetic fiber that synapses in a chain ganglion may
A. exit via gray communicating ramus to join a spinal nerve
B. exit via a sympathetic nerve to innervate thoracic targets.
C. exit via a splanchnic nerve to reach the adrenal gland
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

D. A and B

Anatomy UOP Exam 1 (2 decks)

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