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Anatomy Exam 1 > Anatomy Exam 1 > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What movement does the C1 vertebra provide?

A

Nodding movement; Rotational movement around the odontoid process of C2

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2
Q

Where is the hyoid bone located?

A

Anterior part of the neck at the level of the C3 vertebra

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3
Q

What is the function of the hyoid bone?

A

Provides attachment sites for muscles associated with swallowing

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4
Q

What is the composition of the epidermis?

A

Keratinized epithelium

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5
Q

How is the epidermis nourished?

A

By the underlying vascularized dermis

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6
Q

What is the function of the dermis?

A

Provides skin tone, strength, and toughness

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7
Q

What are the predominant fibers found in the dermis?

A

Irregular (interlacing) collagen and elastic fibers

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8
Q

What structures are found in the deep layers of the dermis?

A

Hair follicles, arrector muscles, sebaceous glands, arterioles, venules, and lymphatics

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9
Q

What is the composition of the subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis)?

A

Loose connective tissue and fat

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10
Q

What muscle is located in the subcutaneous tissue of the neck?

A

Platysma

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11
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the platysma muscle?

A

Originates from the mandible; Inserts on the fascia of the upper chest and shoulder

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12
Q

What nerve innervates the platysma muscle?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

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13
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

Originates from the sternum and medial clavicle; Inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone

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14
Q

What are the actions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

Bilateral flexion of the head and neck; Unilateral side-bending of the neck with contralateral rotation of the head

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15
Q

What nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

Accessory nerve (CN XI)

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16
Q

What is torticollis?

A

Shortening, spasm, or fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle on one side

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17
Q

How does torticollis usually position the head and neck?

A

Neck bends towards the affected muscle (ipsilateral side-bend); Face rotates away (contralateral rotation)

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18
Q

What is the most superficial muscle of the upper back and posterior neck?

A

Trapezius

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19
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the trapezius muscle?

A

Originates from the posterior midline, from the external occipital protuberance to the spinous processes of vertebrae down to T12; Inserts on the spine of the scapula, acromion process, and lateral clavicle

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20
Q

What are the actions of the superior part of trapezius when acting bilaterally?

A

Extends the head and neck

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21
Q

What are the actions of the superior part of trapezius when acting unilaterally?

A

Causes ipsilateral side-bending of the neck and contralateral rotation of the head

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22
Q

What nerve innervates the trapezius muscle?

A

Accessory nerve (CN XI)

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23
Q

What is the course of the external jugular vein in relation to the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

Coursing from the angle of the mandible down over the surface of SCM

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24
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing?

A

Phase 1: Oral preparatory phase; Phase 2: Pharynx acceptance phase; Phase 3: Esophageal phase

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25
Q

What happens during Phase 1 of swallowing?

A

Tongue raises against the palate to move food back into the pharynx

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26
Q

What happens during Phase 2 of swallowing?

A

Larynx raises up, pharynx shortens, and pharynx accepts food from the oral cavity

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27
Q

What happens during Phase 3 of swallowing?

A

Larynx lowers, pharynx lengthens, and food is moved from the pharynx down into the esophagus

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28
Q

What are the suprahyoid muscles?

A

Muscles that help control the movement of the larynx and hyoid bone during swallowing

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29
Q

What are the components of the digastric muscle?

A

Anterior and posterior belly with an intermediate tendon

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30
Q

What is the action of the anterior belly of the digastric muscle?

A

Attaches to the mandible and can elevate the hyoid bone or depress the mandible

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31
Q

What is the innervation of the anterior belly of the digastric muscle?

A

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3)

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32
Q

What is the action of the mylohyoid muscle?

A

Elevates the hyoid bone and floor of the oral cavity during swallowing

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33
Q

What is the innervation of the mylohyoid muscle?

A

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3)

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34
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the stylohyoid muscle?

A

Originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone; Inserts at the hyoid bone

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35
Q

What is the action of the stylohyoid muscle?

A

Retracts the hyoid bone during swallowing

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36
Q

What is the innervation of the stylohyoid muscle?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

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37
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the geniohyoid muscle?

A

Originates from the mental spine of the mandible; Inserts on the hyoid bone

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38
Q

What is the action of the geniohyoid muscle?

A

Protrudes the hyoid bone during swallowing

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39
Q

What is the innervation of the geniohyoid muscle?

A

C1 branch of the cervical plexus

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40
Q

What are the infrahyoid muscles?

A

Muscles that lower the hyoid bone (and larynx) during swallowing

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41
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the sternohyoid muscle?

A

Originates from the manubrium of the sternum; Inserts on the hyoid bone

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42
Q

What is the action of the sternohyoid muscle?

A

Depresses the hyoid bone after elevation during swallowing

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43
Q

What is the innervation of the sternohyoid muscle?

A

Ansa cervicalis

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44
Q

What are the components of the omohyoid muscle?

A

Superior and inferior bellies with an intermediate tendon

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45
Q

What is the action of the omohyoid muscle?

A

Depresses the hyoid bone during swallowing

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46
Q

What is the innervation of the omohyoid muscle?

A

Ansa cervicalis

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47
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the sternothyroid muscle?

A

Originates from the manubrium of the sternum; Inserts on the oblique line of the thyroid cartilage

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48
Q

What is the action of the sternothyroid muscle?

A

Depresses the larynx during swallowing

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49
Q

What is the innervation of the sternothyroid muscle?

A

Ansa cervicalis

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50
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

Originates from the oblique line of the thyroid cartilage; Inserts on the hyoid bone

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51
Q

What is the action of the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

Depresses the hyoid bone after elevation during swallowing

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52
Q

What is the innervation of the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

C1 branch of the cervical plexus

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53
Q

What are the borders of the submandibular (digastric) triangle?

A

Mandible, anterior belly of digastric, posterior belly of digastric

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54
Q

What forms the floor of the submandibular triangle?

A

Mylohyoid muscle

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55
Q

What structures are found in the submandibular triangle?

A

Submandibular gland and lymph nodes

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56
Q

What are the borders of the submental triangle?

A

Hyoid bone, anterior belly of digastric

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57
Q

What forms the floor of the submental triangle?

A

Mylohyoid muscle

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58
Q

What structures are found in the submental triangle?

A

Lymph nodes

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59
Q

What are the borders of the muscular triangle?

A

Anterior aspect of SCM, superior belly of omohyoid

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60
Q

What structures are found in the muscular triangle?

A

Infrahyoid muscles, larynx, trachea, thyroid gland

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61
Q

What are the borders of the carotid triangle?

A

Anterior aspect of SCM, superior belly of omohyoid, posterior belly of digastric

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62
Q

What structures are found in the carotid triangle?

A

Carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve (CN X), lymph nodes

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63
Q

What spinal nerves contribute to the cervical plexus?

A

C1-C4

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64
Q

What are the sensory branches of the cervical plexus?

A

Great Auricular Nerve (C2, C3); Lesser Occipital Nerve (C2, C3); Transverse Cervical Nerve (C2, C3); Supraclavicular Nerves (C3, C4)

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65
Q

What is the main motor portion of the cervical plexus?

A

Ansa cervicalis

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66
Q

Which muscles are innervated by the ansa cervicalis?

A

Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, omohyoid

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67
Q

Which muscles receive direct motor innervation from the cervical plexus?

A

Thyrohyoid, geniohyoid

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68
Q

What muscles lie deep to the thyroid gland?

A

Sternothyroid muscles

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69
Q

At which vertebral level is the thyroid gland located?

A

C5-T1

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70
Q

How is the thyroid gland typically structured?

A

Right and left lobes connected by a narrow isthmus

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71
Q

What surrounds the thyroid gland?

A

A thin capsule

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72
Q

What divides the thyroid gland into lobules?

A

Septa from the capsule

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73
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

On the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland

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74
Q

How many parathyroid glands do most people have?

A

Four

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75
Q

What is the extension of the thyroid gland seen in approximately 20% of the population?

A

Pyramidal lobe

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76
Q

What does the presence of a pyramidal lobe indicate?

A

The descent of the gland from the base of the tongue and down the anterior neck

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77
Q

What is the innervation of the trapezius muscle?

A

Spinal accessory nerve, CN XI

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78
Q

Which artery supplies blood to the trapezius muscle?

A

Transverse cervical artery

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79
Q

What action does the trapezius muscle perform when the scapula is immobilized?

A

Act on the head in one of two ways: bilateral contraction results in neck extension, unilateral contraction results in ipsilateral side-bending of the head and contralateral rotation of the head

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80
Q

Where do the splenius muscles originate from?

A

Midline

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81
Q

What action do the splenius muscles perform when contracted bilaterally?

A

Extend the head and neck

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82
Q

What action do the splenius muscles perform when contracted unilaterally?

A

Result in ipsilateral rotation of the head and neck to the same side as contraction

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83
Q

Where does the splenius capitis muscle insert?

A

Posterior mastoid process

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84
Q

Where does the splenius cervicis muscle insert?

A

Transverse processes of C1-C4

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85
Q

Where does the levator scapulae muscle originate from?

A

Transverse processes of C1-C4

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86
Q

What action does the levator scapulae muscle perform on the scapula?

A

Elevate and inferiorly rotate the scapula

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87
Q

What action does the levator scapulae muscle perform when the scapula is stabilized?

A

Unilateral contraction results in side-bending the neck ipsilaterally, bilateral contraction results in neck extension

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88
Q

What is the innervation of the levator scapulae muscle?

A

Dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves

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89
Q

What is the action of the semispinalis muscles during unilateral contraction?

A

Contralateral head rotation

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90
Q

What is the action of the semispinalis muscles during bilateral contraction?

A

Extension of the head and neck

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91
Q

Where does the semispinalis capitis muscle originate?

A

Transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae

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92
Q

Where does the semispinalis capitis muscle insert?

A

Superior nuchal line of the occipital bone

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93
Q

Where does the semispinalis cervicis muscle originate?

A

Transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae

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94
Q

Where does the semispinalis cervicis muscle insert?

A

Spinous processes of thoracic and cervical vertebrae (up to C2)

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95
Q

What is the main function of the suboccipital triangle muscles?

A

Proprioception

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96
Q

Name the components of the suboccipital triangle.

A

Obliquus capitis inferior, obliquus capitis superior, rectus capitis major, rectus capitis minor

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97
Q

What is the main stabilizing muscle of the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Rectus capitis lateralis (RCL)

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98
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscles of the suboccipital triangle?

A

Suboccipital nerve

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99
Q

Which nerve carries sensation from the posterior head/scalp to the central nervous system?

A

Greater occipital nerve

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100
Q

Which nerve carries sensation from the posterior head/scalp and neck to the central nervous system?

A

Least occipital nerve or third occipital nerve

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101
Q

What are the two main compartments of the cervical fascia?

A

Superficial fascia and deep fascia

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102
Q

What structures are contained within the pretracheal fascia?

A

Thyroid gland, recurrent laryngeal nerves, esophagus, parathyroid glands, and the pharynx

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103
Q

What is the posterior border of the pretracheal fascia called?

A

Buccopharyngeal fascia

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104
Q

What structures are included within the prevertebral fascia?

A

Vertebral column, phrenic nerve, cervical plexus, brachial plexuses, and sometimes the sympathetic trunk

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105
Q

What is the sleeve called that envelops the brachial plexus, subclavian, and axillary arteries?

A

Axillary sheath

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106
Q

What is the name of the layer of fascia on the anterior border of the prevertebral fascia?

A

Alar fascia

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107
Q

What structures does the alar fascia fuse with?

A

Buccopharyngeal fascia around the T1-T4 vertebral level

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108
Q

What is the carotid fascia formed by?

A

Adjacent fascial sleeves from the deep investing, pretracheal, and prevertebral fascia

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109
Q

What structures are contained within the carotid sheath?

A

Carotid arteries, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve

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110
Q

What lies between the buccopharyngeal fascia and the alar fascia?

A

Retropharyngeal space

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111
Q

What can happen to the retropharyngeal space during infection or abscesses?

A

It may bulge anteriorly, restricting swallowing and/or breathing

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112
Q

What is the danger space?

A

The space between the two layers of the alar fascia

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113
Q

What can spread through the danger space?

A

Disease and infection, from the skull base to the posterior mediastinum

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114
Q

How can infection and disease spread through potential spaces?

A

Via widening of the spaces and using them as conduits

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115
Q

What type of enzymes do bacteria like streptococci produce?

A

Proteolytic enzymes

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116
Q

What can serve as a highway for pathogens to reach the mediastinum?

A

The retropharyngeal and danger space

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117
Q

What are the three muscles that run through the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

Omohyoid (posterior belly), levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

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118
Q

How many bellies does the omohyoid muscle have?

A

Two

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119
Q

Where does the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle insert?

A

Hyoid bone

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120
Q

Where does the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle originate?

A

Superior border of the scapula

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121
Q

What does the omohyoid muscle do?

A

Depress the hyoid bone and larynx to reestablish breathing

122
Q

Where does the anterior scalene muscle originate?

A

Transverse processes of C3-C6

123
Q

Where does the middle scalene muscle insert?

A

First rib, posterior to the anterior scalene muscle

124
Q

Where does the posterior scalene muscle insert?

A

Anterior side of the second rib

125
Q

What is the function of the scalene muscles during forced inhalation?

A

Assist in the lateral expansion of the thoracic cavity by lifting the ribs

126
Q

What movements can the scalene muscles assist in?

A

Maintaining the position of the cervical vertebrae and movements of the neck

127
Q

What is the result of bilateral contraction of the scalene muscles?

A

Neck flexion

128
Q

What is the result of unilateral contraction of the scalene muscles?

A

Ipsilateral neck rotation and inclination

129
Q

What forms the triangle through which the subclavian artery and brachial plexus travel?

A

Anterior and middle scalene muscles

130
Q

What is the distal limit of the subclavian artery?

A

Lateral border of the first rib

131
Q

What are some branches of the subclavian arteries that supply blood to structures in the head and neck?

A

Internal thoracic artery, vertebral artery, costocervical trunk, thyrocervical trunk, and dorsal scapular artery

132
Q

What is the most common aberrant subclavian artery variant?

A

Right subclavian artery branching from the descending portion of the aortic arch, traveling posterior to and wrapping around the esophagus

133
Q

What condition can the aberrant subclavian artery variant lead to?

A

Dysphagia and pressure on the recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness or vocal cord paralysis (Ortner syndrome)

134
Q

How many segments can the subclavian artery be divided into based on its position relative to the anterior scalene muscle?

A

Three: medial, posterior, and lateral

135
Q

What are the branches of the medial segment of the subclavian artery?

A

Vertebral artery, internal thoracic artery, thyrocervical trunk

136
Q

Which artery targets the inferior portion of the thyroid gland?

A

Inferior thyroid artery

137
Q

Which artery targets the trapezius muscle?

A

Transverse cervical artery

138
Q

Which artery targets the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Suprascapular artery

139
Q

What segment of the subclavian artery is posterior to the anterior scalene muscle?

A

Posterior segment

140
Q

What is the branch of the subclavian artery in the posterior segment?

A

Costocervical trunk

141
Q

Which artery targets the first intercostal space?

A

Supreme (superior) intercostal artery

142
Q

Which artery targets the posterior muscles of the deep neck?

A

Deep cervical artery

143
Q

What segment of the subclavian artery is lateral to the anterior scalene muscle?

A

Lateral segment

144
Q

Which artery targets the levator scapulae, rhomboids, and trapezius muscles?

A

Dorsal scapular artery

145
Q

What structures does the dorsal scapular artery run through on its way to the trapezius muscle?

A

Trunks of the brachial plexus

146
Q

From which artery can the dorsal scapular artery branch off if not directly from the subclavian artery?

A

Transverse cervical artery

147
Q

What is the space between the first rib and the clavicle called?

A

Costoclavicular space

148
Q

What condition can the compression of the subclavian vein in the costoclavicular space contribute to?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

149
Q

What veins join to form the brachiocephalic veins?

A

Subclavian veins and internal jugular veins

150
Q

What passes through the scalene triangle?

A

Three trunks of the brachial plexus

151
Q

From which spinal cord rami do the bilateral phrenic nerves originate?

A

C3-C5

152
Q

What muscles do the phrenic nerves descend over?

A

Anterior scalene muscles

153
Q

Through what aperture do the phrenic nerves travel on their way to the thorax?

A

Superior thoracic aperture

154
Q

What structure do the phrenic nerves pierce and innervate?

A

Respiratory diaphragm

155
Q

What muscle can be used as a landmark to identify the phrenic nerve in the posterior triangle?

A

Anterior scalene muscle

156
Q

What is the most common cause of cranial nerve XI injury?

A

Iatrogenic (during lymph node biopsies)

157
Q

What surgical intervention in the posterior neck triangle is frequently performed?

A

Radical neck dissection of lymph nodes

158
Q

What severe complication can result from surgery in the posterior neck triangle?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

159
Q

What muscles are affected in thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles

160
Q

What are some anatomic causes of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Variation in the origin of the scalene muscles, presence of an accessory scalene muscle, venous compression from the costocoracoid ligament, cervical ribs, prominent C7 transverse processes, tumors, or callouses from previous trauma

161
Q

What symptoms can occur in thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Shoulder droop and pain in the neck and shoulders

162
Q

What are the boundaries of the carotid triangle?

A

Superior belly of omohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, and sternocleidomastoid.

163
Q

What structures are found in the carotid triangle?

A

Common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, ansa cervicalis, vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), and a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

164
Q

What surrounds the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve?

A

Carotid sheath.

165
Q

What muscles does the ansa cervicalis innervate?

A

Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid.

166
Q

What is the function of the carotid sinus?

A

Regulation of arterial blood pressure through baroreceptors.

167
Q

What is the function of the carotid body?

A

Regulation of blood oxygen levels through chemoreceptors.

168
Q

Which nerves carry sensation from the carotid sinus and carotid body?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X).

169
Q

What can external pressure on the carotid artery cause in people with carotid sinus hypersensitivity?

A

Slowing of the heart rate, fall in blood pressure, and syncope (fainting).

170
Q

What does the superior thyroid artery supply?

A

Thyroid gland, infrahyoid muscles, sternocleidomastoid, and larynx (through the superior laryngeal branch).

171
Q

What does the lingual artery supply?

A

Tongue.

172
Q

What does the facial artery supply?

A

Submandibular gland and face.

173
Q

What does the occipital artery supply?

A

Posterior head.

174
Q

What does the posterior auricular artery supply?

A

Muscles in the area, parotid gland, facial nerve, and the ear.

175
Q

What does the ascending pharyngeal artery supply?

A

Pharynx, prevertebral muscles, middle ear, and cranial meninges.

176
Q

What are the terminal branches of the external carotid artery?

A

Maxillary artery and superficial temporal artery.

177
Q

What structures can be accessed by inserting a needle and catheter into the internal jugular vein (IJV)?

A

Diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

178
Q

Where is the vagus nerve (CN X) located within the carotid sheath?

A

Between the carotid artery and internal jugular vein.

179
Q

What are the functions of the vagus nerve (CN X)?

A

Innervates voluntary muscles of the larynx and pharynx, most muscles associated with the soft palate, supplies parasympathetics to the heart and digestive tract, and carries sensory information from various structures.

180
Q

Describe the pathway of the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII).

A

Loops through the upper neck deep to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, crosses over the external carotid artery, and innervates most of the muscles of the tongue.

181
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system regulate?

A

Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands in the body.

182
Q

Where do the pre-synaptic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system arise from?

A

T1-L2 levels of the spinal cord.

183
Q

What is the role of post-synaptic neurons in the sympathetic trunk?

A

They can ascend to the head and neck or descend to the pelvis and other regions of the body.

184
Q

What are some effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Increase in heart rate and slowing down of digestion.

185
Q

Where is the cervical portion of the sympathetic trunk located?

A

Deep to the contents of the carotid sheath, against the pre-vertebral muscles.

186
Q

What are the typical ganglia found in the cervical portion of the sympathetic trunk?

A

Superior, middle, and inferior ganglia.

187
Q

What is the cervicothoracic (stellate) ganglion?

A

The fusion of the inferior cervical ganglion with the first thoracic ganglion.

188
Q

Where do sympathetics traveling higher than the superior ganglion travel?

A

With the carotid vessels as the carotid plexus.

189
Q

What is the Dura Mater?

A

The tough outer layer of meninges.

190
Q

How many layers of dura are there in the skull?

A

Two layers: meningeal and periosteal dura.

191
Q

What are dural septae and venous sinuses?

A

Areas where the meningeal and periosteal dura separate to form partitions and channels.

192
Q

What does the periosteal layer of dura adhere to?

A

The internal periosteum (endocranium).

193
Q

What are two examples of septae formed by the meningeal layer?

A

Falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli.

194
Q

What happens when the dura detaches from the calvaria without damaging the bone?

A

Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the soft tissues of the neck, nose, ear, or nasopharynx.

195
Q

What usually occurs in basal fractures?

A

Tearing of the dura and leakage of CSF.

196
Q

What is the Arachnoid Mater?

A

The middle, ‘webby’ layer.

197
Q

How does the Arachnoid Mater drape over the surface of the brain?

A

Loosely, without diving into sulci.

198
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

The space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, which contains cerebrospinal fluid.

199
Q

What is the Pia Mater?

A

The delicate layer in close contact with brain tissue.

200
Q

How does the Pia Mater follow the contours of the brain?

A

It closely follows the shape of the brain and is difficult to remove from its surface.

201
Q

What structures are formed when the meningeal dura separates from the periosteal dura?

A

Vein-like structures called dural venous sinuses.

202
Q

What are the two infoldings formed by the meningeal dura within the cranium?

A

Falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli.

203
Q

What is the Falx Cerebri?

A

A sickle-shaped double layer of dura mater located within the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres.

204
Q

Where does the Falx Cerebri run from and to?

A

From the crista galli to the internal occipital protuberance.

205
Q

What does the Falx Cerebri reflect horizontally to form?

A

The tentorium cerebelli.

206
Q

What is the function of the Falx Cerebri?

A

To reduce the side-to-side movement of the brain.

207
Q

What does the Tentorium Cerebelli separate?

A

The occipital lobes of the cerebrum from the cerebellum.

208
Q

Where is the Tentorium Cerebelli attached laterally?

A

At the petrous portion of the temporal bone.

209
Q

What does the tentorial notch allow passage for?

A

The brainstem (midbrain).

210
Q

What is the function of the Tentorium Cerebelli?

A

To support the posterior cerebrum and prevent compression of the cerebellum below.

211
Q

What does the Falx Cerebelli do?

A

It is a small sickle-shaped fold that partially separates the cerebellar hemispheres.

212
Q

What is the Diaphragma Sellae?

A

A horizontal sheet of dura that forms a roof over the pituitary gland in the sella turcica.

213
Q

What can bulging of the diaphragma due to tumors cause?

A

Visual symptoms (as well as endocrine problems) by pressing on the optic chiasma.

214
Q

What is the Superior Sagittal Sinus?

A

A sinus that runs longitudinally along the midline of the skull, receiving most of the blood from cerebral veins.

215
Q

Where does the Inferior Sagittal Sinus join?

A

With the great cerebral vein (of Galen) to empty into the straight sinus.

216
Q

What is the Straight Sinus formed by?

A

When the posterior aspect of the falx cerebri fans out horizontally to form the tentorium cerebelli.

217
Q

What does the Confluence of Sinuses receive blood from?

A

Superior sagittal sinus and straight sinus.

218
Q

Where does blood leave the Confluence of Sinuses and travel through?

A

Transverse sinuses (on either side).

219
Q

What do the Transverse Sinuses carry?

A

Blood from the confluence of sinuses laterally (on either side) to the sigmoid sinuses.

220
Q

What is the course of the Sigmoid Sinuses?

A

They follow an S-shaped course in the posterior cranial fossae, leading from the transverse sinus to the jugular foramen (and into the internal jugular vein).

221
Q

Where are the Cavernous Sinuses located?

A

On each side of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

222
Q

What do the Cavernous Sinuses receive blood from?

A

The ophthalmic veins and a few other sources.

223
Q

Where do the Cavernous Sinuses drain posteriorly through?

A

The superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

224
Q

What do the Superior Petrosal Sinuses drain?

A

Blood from the cavernous sinus to the transverse sinus on each side.

225
Q

Where does the Superior Petrosal Sinus lie?

A

In the crest of the petrous portion of the temporal bone.

226
Q

Where do the Inferior Petrosal Sinuses drain blood directly to?

A

The jugular foramen.

227
Q

What is the course of the Inferior Petrosal Sinuses?

A

They run posteriorly and laterally in a groove between the petrous portion of the temporal bone and the basilar portion of the occipital bone.

228
Q

What structures are contained in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus?

A

Oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve (V1), and maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (V2).

229
Q

What structures run through the center of the cavernous sinus?

A

Internal carotid artery and abducens nerve (CN VI).

230
Q

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) continuously generated?

A

Within the ventricles of the brain.

231
Q

How does CSF flow out of the ventricular system?

A

Through openings (apertures) in the fourth ventricle, entering the subarachnoid space.

232
Q

How is CSF returned to the bloodstream?

A

Through one-way valves called arachnoid villi (or arachnoid granulations) into the superior sagittal sinus.

233
Q

What are diploic veins?

A

Veins within the skull bones.

234
Q

How do veins of the scalp communicate with diploic veins?

A

Through emissary veins.

235
Q

What is the primary artery of the dura mater?

A

Middle meningeal artery.

236
Q

Where does the middle meningeal artery enter the skull?

A

Through the foramen spinosum.

237
Q

How do the meninges relay sensations to the brain?

A

Through the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve and upper cervical segments.

238
Q

What can cause headaches related to the dura mater?

A

Deformation of the dura mater, such as distension of meningeal arteries or changes in pressure in the subarachnoid space.

239
Q

What is the specialization of capillaries in the brain that restricts substances from leaving the bloodstream?

A

The Blood-Brain Barrier.

240
Q

What are the components of the Blood-Brain Barrier?

A

Specializations to the capillaries (continuous basement membrane and tight junctions) and the presence of perivascular feet of astrocytes on the outer surface of the capillaries.

241
Q

What causes an Epidural Hematoma?

A

Tearing of a meningeal artery, allowing arterial blood to leak between the skull and dura mater.

242
Q

What causes a Subdural Hematoma?

A

Tearing of a cerebral vein from the superior sagittal sinus, allowing venous blood to leak between the dura mater and arachnoid mater.

243
Q

What causes a Subarachnoid Hemorrhage?

A

Tearing or rupture of a cerebral artery, allowing arterial blood to leak into the subarachnoid space.

244
Q

What is another term for a Subarachnoid Hemorrhage?

A

Hemorrhagic stroke.

245
Q

What forms the roof of the orbit?

A

The frontal bone

246
Q

What forms the medial wall of the orbit?

A

The ethmoid and lacrimal bones

247
Q

What forms the floor of the orbit?

A

The maxilla

248
Q

What forms the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

The zygomatic and sphenoid bones

249
Q

What is the cavity located posterior to the lens called?

A

Posterior cavity

250
Q

What is the transparent, gelatinous substance within the posterior cavity called?

A

Vitreous body

251
Q

What is the space anterior to the lens called?

A

Anterior cavity

252
Q

What is the space between the cornea and iris called?

A

Anterior chamber

253
Q

What is the space between the iris and lens called?

A

Posterior chamber

254
Q

What is the clear, watery fluid in the anterior cavity called?

A

Aqueous humor

255
Q

What circular smooth muscle affects the shape of the lens?

A

Ciliary muscle

256
Q

What connects the ciliary muscle to the capsule of the lens?

A

Suspensory ligament

257
Q

What circular smooth muscle affects the size of the pupil?

A

Sphincter pupillae

258
Q

What drains fluid from the anterior cavity?

A

Canal of Schlemm

259
Q

What is the mucous membrane of the anterior eye and inner surface of eyelids called?

A

Conjunctiva

260
Q

What skeletal muscle elevates the upper eyelid?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris

261
Q

What smooth muscle also helps elevate the upper eyelid?

A

Superior tarsal (Müller’s) muscle

262
Q

What muscle contracts to reduce the size of the pupil?

A

Sphincter pupillae muscle

263
Q

What muscle contracts to increase the size of the pupil?

A

Dilator pupillae muscle

264
Q

What muscle contracts to reduce tension on the suspensory ligaments, allowing the lens to thicken for near vision?

A

Ciliary muscle

265
Q

What muscle relaxes to increase tension on the suspensory ligaments, causing the lens to become thinner for distant vision?

A

Ciliary muscle

266
Q

Where do all the muscles of the eye (except for the inferior oblique) arise from?

A

The posterior orbit

267
Q

Which muscle causes the eyeball to elevate and adduct?

A

Superior rectus

268
Q

Which muscle causes the eyeball to depress and adduct?

A

Inferior rectus

269
Q

Which muscle causes the eyeball to move inward (adduct)?

A

Medial rectus

270
Q

Which muscle causes the eyeball to move outward (abduct)?

A

Lateral rectus

271
Q

Which muscle causes the eyeball to depress and abduct?

A

Superior oblique

272
Q

Which muscle causes the eye to elevate and abduct?

A

Inferior oblique

273
Q

What muscle raises the upper eyelid?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris

274
Q

What is the drooping of the upper eyelid called?

A

Ptosis

275
Q

Which half of the retina receives information from the lateral half of the visual field?

A

The medial half

276
Q

Which half of the retina receives information from the medial half of the visual field?

A

The lateral half

277
Q

Where do the lateral half of each retina project to?

A

The same side of the brain

278
Q

Where do the medial half of each retina project to?

A

The opposite side of the brain

279
Q

What does the optic chiasm contain?

A

Crossing fibers

280
Q

Where do the optic tracts project to?

A

The visual centers of the brain

281
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique, and levator palpebrae superioris muscles?

A

Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

282
Q

Where do the parasympathetics synapse before reaching the eyeball?

A

The ciliary ganglion

283
Q

What does the frontal nerve split into?

A

Supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves

284
Q

What sensation does the nasociliary nerve handle from the cornea?

A

Sensation from the cornea

285
Q

Which nerve carries sensation from the skin outside the eye and provides parasympathetics to the lacrimal gland?

A

Lacrimal nerve

286
Q

Which side of the optic nerve do the long ciliary nerves run on?

A

The medial side

287
Q

Which side of the optic nerve do the short ciliary nerves run on?

A

The lateral side

288
Q

Which type of nerve fibers do short ciliary nerves carry?

A

Sympathetic, parasympathetic, and general sensory

289
Q

Which type of nerve fibers do long ciliary nerves carry?

A

Sympathetic and sensory

290
Q

What is the main artery of the orbit?

A

The ophthalmic artery

291
Q

Which artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery?

A

The ophthalmic artery

292
Q

What does the ophthalmic artery supply blood to?

A

Lacrimal gland, conjunctiva, eyelids, forehead, scalp, ethmoidal air cells, frontal sinus, nasal cavity, ciliary muscle, iris, and retina

293
Q

Which veins drain blood from the orbit?

A

Ophthalmic veins

294
Q

Where do the superior and inferior ophthalmic veins empty into?

A

Cavernous sinus posteriorly and the pterygoid plexus of veins inferiorly

295
Q

Where do the central veins of the retina enter?

A

The cavernous sinus directly or may join the ophthalmic veins

296
Q

What provides a pathway for the spread of infection from the face to venous sinuses?

A

Communication of angular (facial) vein and ophthalmic veins

297
Q

What is the term used to describe the area on the face where infections can spread to venous sinuses?

A

Danger Triangle

298
Q
A
299
Q
A
300
Q

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A

Anatomy Exam 1 (1 decks)

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