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anatomy and physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary functions of the integumentary system?

A
  • Physical barrier to protect tissue from injury
  • Regulates body temperature
  • Sensation detection
  • Excretion of waste
  • Synthesis of vitamin D
  • Immune defense
  • Storage of water, lipids, and nutrients
  • Absorption of substances
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2
Q

What is the epidermis?

A

The protective, outermost layer of the skin composed of epithelial tissue, avascular with several layers of keratinocytes

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3
Q

Name the layers of the epidermis.

A
  • Stratum corneum
  • Stratum lucidum
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Stratum spinosum
  • Stratum basale/germinativum
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4
Q

What are keratinocytes?

A

Cells in the epidermis that produce keratin

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5
Q

What is the dermis?

A

The thicker layer beneath the epidermis consisting of dense connective tissue containing blood vessels

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6
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A
  • Papillary layer
  • Reticular layer
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7
Q

What structures are found in the dermis?

A
  • Hair follicles
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Sweat glands
  • Blood vessels
  • Sensory receptors
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8
Q

What is the hypodermis?

A

The deepest layer of the skin composed of adipose tissue and connective tissue

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9
Q

What are the functions of the hypodermis?

A
  • Stores fat for energy
  • Insulation
  • Cushioning to protect internal organs
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10
Q

What is hair composed of?

A

Keratinized cells

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11
Q

What are the types of hair?

A
  • Lanugo hair
  • Vellus hair
  • Terminal hair
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12
Q

What are the phases of hair growth?

A
  • Anagen phase
  • Catagen phase
  • Telogen phase
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13
Q

What is the nail plate?

A

The visible part of the nail made of keratinized cells

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14
Q

What are the types of integumentary glands?

A
  • Sweat glands
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Ceruminous glands
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15
Q

What are eccrine sweat glands?

A

Sweat glands found all over the body that help with thermoregulation

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16
Q

What are apocrine sweat glands?

A

Larger glands that become active at puberty and secrete a thicker sweat

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17
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

To secrete sebum to lubricate hair and skin

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18
Q

What do Meissner’s corpuscles detect?

A

Light touch

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19
Q

True or False: Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to deep pressure and vibration.

A

True

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20
Q

What pigment is responsible for skin color?

A

Melanin

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21
Q

What is the role of carotene?

A

A pigment contributing to the yellowish hue in lighter skin

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22
Q

What is the effect of UV radiation on skin color?

A

Stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin

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23
Q

What are the histological characteristics of nails?

A
  • Nail plate made of keratinized epithelial cells
  • Nail bed consists of an epidermis with keratinocytes
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24
Q

What are common skin conditions affecting skin texture?

A
  • Acne
  • Eczema
  • Psoriasis
  • Sun exposure
  • Pollution
  • Harsh weather
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25
Q

What is the primary cause of burns?

A

Damage to skin cells causing cellular death and disruption of tissue function

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26
Q

What are the types of skin cancers?

A
  • Melanoma
  • Basal cell carcinoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
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27
Q

What causes chickenpox?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

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28
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

An autoimmune disorder leading to thick silvery scales and red patches

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29
Q

What is dermatitis?

A

Inflammation of the skin caused by allergens or irritants

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30
Q

What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?

A

Causes hair to stand up when it contracts

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31
Q

What are freckles?

A

Small flat spots caused by increased melanin

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32
Q

What is a blister?

A

Raised fluid-filled sacs that form on the skin surface

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33
Q

What are stretch marks?

A

Linear streaky scars that appear on areas that have stretched rapidly

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34
Q

What are keloids?

A

Raised thick scars formed from excessive collagen production

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35
Q

What is the treatment for athlete’s foot?

A

Antifungal creams and good foot hygiene

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36
Q

What is the treatment for impetigo?

A

Antibiotics

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37
Q

What is the primary cause of leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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38
Q

What is the significance of the lunula?

A

The area where new nail cells are formed

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39
Q

What are calluses?

A

Thick hard areas of skin caused by prolonged pressure or rubbing

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40
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Cancer of squamous cells in the epidermis triggered by UV radiation or other skin damage. Causes red scaly patches, ulcers, or nodules.

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41
Q

What are the treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Surgical removal or radiation therapy.

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42
Q

How can squamous cell carcinoma be prevented?

A

With sunscreen and skin checkups.

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43
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) that affects blood vessels and leads to tumor formation.

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44
Q

What are the symptoms of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Red, purple, or brown lesions on skin and can spread to other organs.

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45
Q

What are the treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Antiretroviral therapy and radiation therapy.

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46
Q

How can Kaposi’s sarcoma be prevented?

A

With antiviral treatment and regular screenings.

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47
Q

What is Merkel cell carcinoma?

A

Skin cancer originating from Merkel cells in the epidermis.

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48
Q

What are the characteristics of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A

Painless firm nodules that may be red, blue, or purple.

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49
Q

What are the treatment options for Merkel cell carcinoma?

A

Chemotherapy and surgical removal.

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50
Q

What is a ball-and-socket joint?

A

A joint where the spherical head of one bone fits into a cup-like depression of another bone, allowing for a wide range of motion.

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51
Q

Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint.

A

Shoulder and hip.

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52
Q

What is a hinge joint?

A

A joint where a convex bone surface fits into a concave bone surface, allowing movement in one direction.

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53
Q

Give an example of a hinge joint.

A

Elbow, knee, fingers, toes.

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54
Q

What is a pivot joint?

A

A joint where a rounded or cylindrical bone fits into a ring-shaped bone and ligament structure, allowing rotation around a single axis.

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55
Q

Give an example of a pivot joint.

A

Neck.

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56
Q

What is a condyloid/ellipsoidal joint?

A

A joint where an oval-shaped condyle fits into an elliptical cavity, allowing movement in two planes.

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57
Q

Give an example of a condyloid joint.

A

Wrist and knuckles.

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58
Q

What is a saddle joint?

A

A joint where a concave surface fits into a convex surface like a saddle, allowing movement in two planes but is more flexible.

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59
Q

Give an example of a saddle joint.

A

Thumb.

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60
Q

What is a gliding/plane joint?

A

A joint with flat or slightly curved surfaces allowing bones to slide over each other.

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61
Q

Give an example of a gliding joint.

A

Wrist and ankle.

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62
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A

A joint where bones are connected by cartilage, allowing slight movement or flexibility.

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63
Q

Give an example of a cartilaginous joint.

A

Pubic symphysis and costal cartilage.

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64
Q

What are tendons?

A

Tough, flexible bands of connective tissue connecting muscles to bones.

65
Q

What is the origin of a muscle?

A

Stationary attachment point of a muscle.

66
Q

What is the insertion of a muscle?

A

Point that moves during muscle contraction.

67
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Fibrous connective tissue that connects bones to other bones at joints to provide stability.

68
Q

What is compact bone?

A

Dense hard outer layer providing strength and protection.

69
Q

What is spongy (cancellous) bone?

A

Lighter and less dense bone found in the ends of long bones.

70
Q

What is the function of bone marrow?

A

Produces blood cells and stores fat.

71
Q

What are osteons?

A

Basic structural units of compact bone consisting of concentric layers of mineralized matrix.

72
Q

What are lacunae?

A

Spaces within lamellae where osteocytes reside.

73
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

Small channels connecting lacunae, allowing osteocytes to communicate.

74
Q

What are perforating canals?

A

Canals connecting Haversian canals to supply nutrients.

75
Q

What are trabeculae?

A

Thin branching plates of bone in spongy bone meant to resist stress.

76
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A
  • Support body structure
  • Store minerals
  • Osteogenesis
  • Bone remodeling
  • Protection of organs
  • Movement
77
Q

What is red bone marrow?

A

Involved in production of blood cells (hematopoiesis).

78
Q

What is yellow bone marrow?

A

Composed of fat cells and converts to red bone marrow in times of need.

79
Q

What is the function of cartilage?

A
  • Shock absorption
  • Allows bones to glide over one another
  • Maintains shape and structure
  • Facilitates growth of long bones
80
Q

What hormone regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH).

81
Q

What is bone remodeling?

A

Process of bone breakdown and formation to maintain calcium and phosphate balance.

82
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts?

A

Bone-forming cells responsible for mineralization.

83
Q

What is the role of osteocytes?

A

Mature osteoblasts that maintain bone tissue by regulating mineral content.

84
Q

What does RANKL stand for?

A

Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB ligand.

85
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout the body.

86
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells that defend the body against infections.

87
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets involved in blood clotting.

88
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Process where mesenchymal stem cells differentiate into osteoblasts in flat bones.

89
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Replaces hyaline cartilage with bone, mostly for long and short bones.

90
Q

What are cervical vertebrae?

A

Vertebrae found in the neck region, small and lightweight.

91
Q

What are thoracic vertebrae?

A

Vertebrae found in the upper and mid back attached to ribs.

92
Q

What are lumbar vertebrae?

A

Largest and strongest vertebrae found in the lower back.

93
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear.

94
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune disease affecting synovial joints leading to inflammation and joint destruction.

95
Q

What is gout?

A

Condition where urate crystals develop in joints, leading to acute inflammatory attacks.

96
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Decreased bone density and strength increasing fracture risk.

97
Q

What is osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Condition where bones soften due to vitamin D deficiency.

98
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.

99
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Excessive forward curvature of the upper spine.

100
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine.

101
Q

What is tennis elbow?

A

Inflammation of the tendons attaching to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow.

102
Q

What is golfer’s elbow?

A

Inflammation of tendons attached to the medial epicondyle of the elbow.

103
Q

What are cruciate ligament tears of the knee?

A

Rupture or tear of ACL or PCL leading to knee joint instability.

104
Q

What are meniscus tears of the knee?

A

Damage to meniscus cartilage caused by twisting or compression forces.

105
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

Joint infection caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi.

106
Q

What is a fracture?

A

Breaks or cracks in bones caused by trauma, stress, or diseases.

107
Q

What is the treatment for fractures?

A

Rest, immobilization, physical therapy, and possibly surgery.

108
Q

What is the Salter-Harris fracture classification system?

A

A classification system for fractures involving the growth plate in children.

109
Q

What is the cellular anatomy of skeletal muscle?

A

Long cylindrical multinucleated cells with striations.

110
Q

What is the gross anatomy of skeletal muscle?

A

Attached to bones via tendons; movement produced by contraction.

111
Q

What is the cellular anatomy of cardiac muscle?

A

Cardiomyocytes are shorter, branched, and single nucleated with intercalated discs.

112
Q

What is the cellular anatomy of smooth muscle?

A

Spindle-shaped with a single central nucleus and no striations.

113
Q

What is tension production in skeletal muscle?

A

Produced by sliding filament theory controlled by motor neuron release of acetylcholine.

114
Q

How is tension produced in cardiac muscle?

A

Through sliding filament mechanism regulated by pacemaker cells.

115
Q

How is tension produced in smooth muscle?

A

Generated by interaction between actin and myosin, regulated by calcium ions.

116
Q

What is the physiology of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

ACh release causes action potential in muscle fiber, triggering calcium release.

117
Q

What initiates spontaneous action potentials and calcium influx in the heart?

A

Atrial node

118
Q

What regulates tension production in smooth muscle?

A

Interaction between actin and myosin, regulated by calcium ions

119
Q

How can smooth muscle contract for extended periods with minimal energy use?

A

Controlled by nervous signals, hormones, etc.

120
Q

What is the first step in the physiology of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

A motor neuron releases acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction

121
Q

What triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction?

A

Action potential traveling along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubules

122
Q

What binds to troponin on actin filaments during muscle contraction?

A

Calcium ions

123
Q

What is formed when myosin heads bind to actin?

A

Cross-bridges

124
Q

What theory explains muscle contraction involving actin and myosin?

A

Sliding filament theory

125
Q

What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?

A

Causes myosin to detach from actin and re-cock for another cycle

126
Q

What happens during skeletal muscle relaxation?

A

Calcium ions are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

127
Q

What returns to its resting state when calcium levels decrease?

A

Troponin and tropomyosin

128
Q

Define agonist in muscle action.

A

The muscle responsible for the main action

129
Q

Provide an example of an agonist muscle.

A

Biceps brachii (elbow flexion)

130
Q

Define antagonist in muscle action.

A

The muscle that opposes the action of the agonist

131
Q

Provide an example of an antagonist muscle.

A

Triceps brachii (elbow extension)

132
Q

Define synergist in muscle action.

A

Muscles that assist the agonist in performing a movement

133
Q

Provide an example of a synergist muscle.

A

Brachialis (assists biceps brachii in elbow flexion)

134
Q

What is the role of a fixator muscle?

A

Stabilizes a joint, allowing the agonist to act more effectively

135
Q

Provide an example of a fixator muscle.

A

Rhomboids (stabilizing the scapula during arm movements)

136
Q

In the head/neck, what is the agonist for neck flexion?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

137
Q

In the head/neck, what is the antagonist for neck flexion?

A

Trapezius

138
Q

In the head/neck, what is the synergist for neck flexion?

A

Scalenes

139
Q

In the upper extremities, what is the agonist for elbow flexion?

A

Biceps brachii

140
Q

In the upper extremities, what is the antagonist for elbow flexion?

A

Triceps brachii

141
Q

In the upper extremities, what is the synergist for elbow flexion?

A

Brachialis

142
Q

In the trunk, what is the agonist for trunk flexion?

A

Rectus abdominis

143
Q

In the trunk, what is the antagonist for trunk flexion?

A

Erector spinae

144
Q

In the trunk, what is the synergist for trunk flexion?

A

External obliques

145
Q

In the lower extremities, what is the agonist for knee extension?

A

Quadriceps femoris

146
Q

In the lower extremities, what is the antagonist for knee extension?

A

Hamstrings

147
Q

In the lower extremities, what is the synergist for knee flexion?

A

Sartorius

148
Q

What cellular change occurs in the muscular system due to resistance training?

A

Hypertrophy from increased protein synthesis

149
Q

What is a gross anatomical change in the muscular system caused by exercise?

A

Increased muscle mass, tone, and strength of tendons and ligaments

150
Q

What cellular change occurs in the muscular system due to aging?

A

Sarcopenia (muscle loss) from decreased protein synthesis

151
Q

What is a gross anatomical change in the muscular system caused by aging?

A

Reduced muscle mass and stiffer muscles

152
Q

Define strain.

A

Injury to muscle or tendon caused by overstretching or tearing

153
Q

What are common symptoms of a strain?

A

Pain, swelling, weakness, muscle spasms, limited range of motion

154
Q

What is the treatment for a strain?

A

Rest, ice, compression, elevation, or physical therapy

155
Q

Define sprain.

A

Ligament injury caused by overstretching or tearing of ligament fibers

156
Q

What are common causes of a sprain?

A

Twisting or stretching joint beyond normal range of motion

157
Q

What are common symptoms of a sprain?

A

Pain, swelling, bruising, and joint instability

158
Q

What is the treatment for a sprain?

A

R.I.C.E and sometimes surgical intervention

159
Q

What are prevention strategies for strains and sprains?

A

Warm-up and stretching, correct posture, strength and flexibility training

sci oly (4 decks)

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