anatomy and physiology Flashcards
What are the primary functions of the integumentary system?
- Physical barrier to protect tissue from injury
- Regulates body temperature
- Sensation detection
- Excretion of waste
- Synthesis of vitamin D
- Immune defense
- Storage of water, lipids, and nutrients
- Absorption of substances
What is the epidermis?
The protective, outermost layer of the skin composed of epithelial tissue, avascular with several layers of keratinocytes
Name the layers of the epidermis.
- Stratum corneum
- Stratum lucidum
- Stratum granulosum
- Stratum spinosum
- Stratum basale/germinativum
What are keratinocytes?
Cells in the epidermis that produce keratin
What is the dermis?
The thicker layer beneath the epidermis consisting of dense connective tissue containing blood vessels
What are the two layers of the dermis?
- Papillary layer
- Reticular layer
What structures are found in the dermis?
- Hair follicles
- Sebaceous glands
- Sweat glands
- Blood vessels
- Sensory receptors
What is the hypodermis?
The deepest layer of the skin composed of adipose tissue and connective tissue
What are the functions of the hypodermis?
- Stores fat for energy
- Insulation
- Cushioning to protect internal organs
What is hair composed of?
Keratinized cells
What are the types of hair?
- Lanugo hair
- Vellus hair
- Terminal hair
What are the phases of hair growth?
- Anagen phase
- Catagen phase
- Telogen phase
What is the nail plate?
The visible part of the nail made of keratinized cells
What are the types of integumentary glands?
- Sweat glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Ceruminous glands
What are eccrine sweat glands?
Sweat glands found all over the body that help with thermoregulation
What are apocrine sweat glands?
Larger glands that become active at puberty and secrete a thicker sweat
What is the function of sebaceous glands?
To secrete sebum to lubricate hair and skin
What do Meissner’s corpuscles detect?
Light touch
True or False: Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to deep pressure and vibration.
True
What pigment is responsible for skin color?
Melanin
What is the role of carotene?
A pigment contributing to the yellowish hue in lighter skin
What is the effect of UV radiation on skin color?
Stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin
What are the histological characteristics of nails?
- Nail plate made of keratinized epithelial cells
- Nail bed consists of an epidermis with keratinocytes
What are common skin conditions affecting skin texture?
- Acne
- Eczema
- Psoriasis
- Sun exposure
- Pollution
- Harsh weather
What is the primary cause of burns?
Damage to skin cells causing cellular death and disruption of tissue function
What are the types of skin cancers?
- Melanoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Kaposi’s sarcoma
What causes chickenpox?
Varicella-zoster virus
What is psoriasis?
An autoimmune disorder leading to thick silvery scales and red patches
What is dermatitis?
Inflammation of the skin caused by allergens or irritants
What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?
Causes hair to stand up when it contracts
What are freckles?
Small flat spots caused by increased melanin
What is a blister?
Raised fluid-filled sacs that form on the skin surface
What are stretch marks?
Linear streaky scars that appear on areas that have stretched rapidly
What are keloids?
Raised thick scars formed from excessive collagen production
What is the treatment for athlete’s foot?
Antifungal creams and good foot hygiene
What is the treatment for impetigo?
Antibiotics
What is the primary cause of leprosy?
Mycobacterium leprae
What is the significance of the lunula?
The area where new nail cells are formed
What are calluses?
Thick hard areas of skin caused by prolonged pressure or rubbing
What is squamous cell carcinoma?
Cancer of squamous cells in the epidermis triggered by UV radiation or other skin damage. Causes red scaly patches, ulcers, or nodules.
What are the treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma?
Surgical removal or radiation therapy.
How can squamous cell carcinoma be prevented?
With sunscreen and skin checkups.
What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?
Cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) that affects blood vessels and leads to tumor formation.
What are the symptoms of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
Red, purple, or brown lesions on skin and can spread to other organs.
What are the treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma?
Antiretroviral therapy and radiation therapy.
How can Kaposi’s sarcoma be prevented?
With antiviral treatment and regular screenings.
What is Merkel cell carcinoma?
Skin cancer originating from Merkel cells in the epidermis.
What are the characteristics of Merkel cell carcinoma?
Painless firm nodules that may be red, blue, or purple.
What are the treatment options for Merkel cell carcinoma?
Chemotherapy and surgical removal.
What is a ball-and-socket joint?
A joint where the spherical head of one bone fits into a cup-like depression of another bone, allowing for a wide range of motion.
Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint.
Shoulder and hip.
What is a hinge joint?
A joint where a convex bone surface fits into a concave bone surface, allowing movement in one direction.
Give an example of a hinge joint.
Elbow, knee, fingers, toes.
What is a pivot joint?
A joint where a rounded or cylindrical bone fits into a ring-shaped bone and ligament structure, allowing rotation around a single axis.
Give an example of a pivot joint.
Neck.
What is a condyloid/ellipsoidal joint?
A joint where an oval-shaped condyle fits into an elliptical cavity, allowing movement in two planes.
Give an example of a condyloid joint.
Wrist and knuckles.
What is a saddle joint?
A joint where a concave surface fits into a convex surface like a saddle, allowing movement in two planes but is more flexible.
Give an example of a saddle joint.
Thumb.
What is a gliding/plane joint?
A joint with flat or slightly curved surfaces allowing bones to slide over each other.
Give an example of a gliding joint.
Wrist and ankle.
What is a cartilaginous joint?
A joint where bones are connected by cartilage, allowing slight movement or flexibility.
Give an example of a cartilaginous joint.
Pubic symphysis and costal cartilage.
What are tendons?
Tough, flexible bands of connective tissue connecting muscles to bones.
What is the origin of a muscle?
Stationary attachment point of a muscle.
What is the insertion of a muscle?
Point that moves during muscle contraction.
What are ligaments?
Fibrous connective tissue that connects bones to other bones at joints to provide stability.
What is compact bone?
Dense hard outer layer providing strength and protection.
What is spongy (cancellous) bone?
Lighter and less dense bone found in the ends of long bones.
What is the function of bone marrow?
Produces blood cells and stores fat.
What are osteons?
Basic structural units of compact bone consisting of concentric layers of mineralized matrix.
What are lacunae?
Spaces within lamellae where osteocytes reside.
What are canaliculi?
Small channels connecting lacunae, allowing osteocytes to communicate.
What are perforating canals?
Canals connecting Haversian canals to supply nutrients.
What are trabeculae?
Thin branching plates of bone in spongy bone meant to resist stress.
What are the functions of bone?
- Support body structure
- Store minerals
- Osteogenesis
- Bone remodeling
- Protection of organs
- Movement
What is red bone marrow?
Involved in production of blood cells (hematopoiesis).
What is yellow bone marrow?
Composed of fat cells and converts to red bone marrow in times of need.
What is the function of cartilage?
- Shock absorption
- Allows bones to glide over one another
- Maintains shape and structure
- Facilitates growth of long bones
What hormone regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH).
What is bone remodeling?
Process of bone breakdown and formation to maintain calcium and phosphate balance.
What is the role of osteoblasts?
Bone-forming cells responsible for mineralization.
What is the role of osteocytes?
Mature osteoblasts that maintain bone tissue by regulating mineral content.
What does RANKL stand for?
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB ligand.
What are erythrocytes?
Red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout the body.
What are leukocytes?
White blood cells that defend the body against infections.
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets involved in blood clotting.
What is intramembranous ossification?
Process where mesenchymal stem cells differentiate into osteoblasts in flat bones.
What is endochondral ossification?
Replaces hyaline cartilage with bone, mostly for long and short bones.
What are cervical vertebrae?
Vertebrae found in the neck region, small and lightweight.
What are thoracic vertebrae?
Vertebrae found in the upper and mid back attached to ribs.
What are lumbar vertebrae?
Largest and strongest vertebrae found in the lower back.
What is osteoarthritis?
Degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
Autoimmune disease affecting synovial joints leading to inflammation and joint destruction.
What is gout?
Condition where urate crystals develop in joints, leading to acute inflammatory attacks.
What is osteoporosis?
Decreased bone density and strength increasing fracture risk.
What is osteomalacia/rickets?
Condition where bones soften due to vitamin D deficiency.
What is scoliosis?
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.
What is kyphosis?
Excessive forward curvature of the upper spine.
What is lordosis?
Excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine.
What is tennis elbow?
Inflammation of the tendons attaching to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow.
What is golfer’s elbow?
Inflammation of tendons attached to the medial epicondyle of the elbow.
What are cruciate ligament tears of the knee?
Rupture or tear of ACL or PCL leading to knee joint instability.
What are meniscus tears of the knee?
Damage to meniscus cartilage caused by twisting or compression forces.
What is septic arthritis?
Joint infection caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi.
What is a fracture?
Breaks or cracks in bones caused by trauma, stress, or diseases.
What is the treatment for fractures?
Rest, immobilization, physical therapy, and possibly surgery.
What is the Salter-Harris fracture classification system?
A classification system for fractures involving the growth plate in children.
What is the cellular anatomy of skeletal muscle?
Long cylindrical multinucleated cells with striations.
What is the gross anatomy of skeletal muscle?
Attached to bones via tendons; movement produced by contraction.
What is the cellular anatomy of cardiac muscle?
Cardiomyocytes are shorter, branched, and single nucleated with intercalated discs.
What is the cellular anatomy of smooth muscle?
Spindle-shaped with a single central nucleus and no striations.
What is tension production in skeletal muscle?
Produced by sliding filament theory controlled by motor neuron release of acetylcholine.
How is tension produced in cardiac muscle?
Through sliding filament mechanism regulated by pacemaker cells.
How is tension produced in smooth muscle?
Generated by interaction between actin and myosin, regulated by calcium ions.
What is the physiology of skeletal muscle contraction?
ACh release causes action potential in muscle fiber, triggering calcium release.
What initiates spontaneous action potentials and calcium influx in the heart?
Atrial node
What regulates tension production in smooth muscle?
Interaction between actin and myosin, regulated by calcium ions
How can smooth muscle contract for extended periods with minimal energy use?
Controlled by nervous signals, hormones, etc.
What is the first step in the physiology of skeletal muscle contraction?
A motor neuron releases acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction
What triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction?
Action potential traveling along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubules
What binds to troponin on actin filaments during muscle contraction?
Calcium ions
What is formed when myosin heads bind to actin?
Cross-bridges
What theory explains muscle contraction involving actin and myosin?
Sliding filament theory
What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?
Causes myosin to detach from actin and re-cock for another cycle
What happens during skeletal muscle relaxation?
Calcium ions are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
What returns to its resting state when calcium levels decrease?
Troponin and tropomyosin
Define agonist in muscle action.
The muscle responsible for the main action
Provide an example of an agonist muscle.
Biceps brachii (elbow flexion)
Define antagonist in muscle action.
The muscle that opposes the action of the agonist
Provide an example of an antagonist muscle.
Triceps brachii (elbow extension)
Define synergist in muscle action.
Muscles that assist the agonist in performing a movement
Provide an example of a synergist muscle.
Brachialis (assists biceps brachii in elbow flexion)
What is the role of a fixator muscle?
Stabilizes a joint, allowing the agonist to act more effectively
Provide an example of a fixator muscle.
Rhomboids (stabilizing the scapula during arm movements)
In the head/neck, what is the agonist for neck flexion?
Sternocleidomastoid
In the head/neck, what is the antagonist for neck flexion?
Trapezius
In the head/neck, what is the synergist for neck flexion?
Scalenes
In the upper extremities, what is the agonist for elbow flexion?
Biceps brachii
In the upper extremities, what is the antagonist for elbow flexion?
Triceps brachii
In the upper extremities, what is the synergist for elbow flexion?
Brachialis
In the trunk, what is the agonist for trunk flexion?
Rectus abdominis
In the trunk, what is the antagonist for trunk flexion?
Erector spinae
In the trunk, what is the synergist for trunk flexion?
External obliques
In the lower extremities, what is the agonist for knee extension?
Quadriceps femoris
In the lower extremities, what is the antagonist for knee extension?
Hamstrings
In the lower extremities, what is the synergist for knee flexion?
Sartorius
What cellular change occurs in the muscular system due to resistance training?
Hypertrophy from increased protein synthesis
What is a gross anatomical change in the muscular system caused by exercise?
Increased muscle mass, tone, and strength of tendons and ligaments
What cellular change occurs in the muscular system due to aging?
Sarcopenia (muscle loss) from decreased protein synthesis
What is a gross anatomical change in the muscular system caused by aging?
Reduced muscle mass and stiffer muscles
Define strain.
Injury to muscle or tendon caused by overstretching or tearing
What are common symptoms of a strain?
Pain, swelling, weakness, muscle spasms, limited range of motion
What is the treatment for a strain?
Rest, ice, compression, elevation, or physical therapy
Define sprain.
Ligament injury caused by overstretching or tearing of ligament fibers
What are common causes of a sprain?
Twisting or stretching joint beyond normal range of motion
What are common symptoms of a sprain?
Pain, swelling, bruising, and joint instability
What is the treatment for a sprain?
R.I.C.E and sometimes surgical intervention
What are prevention strategies for strains and sprains?
Warm-up and stretching, correct posture, strength and flexibility training
